CDC 2A652 Vol. 3

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2a652 Quizzes & Trivia

Aerospace Ground Equipment Journeyman Prime Movers and Generation. Edit Code 05.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    To change electrical energy to mechanical energy is the purpose of a
    • A. 

      Generator

    • B. 

      Converter

    • C. 

      Inverter

    • D. 

      Motor

  • 2. 
    Electrical contact between the stationary and rotating parts of a motor is the function of the
    • A. 

      Field windings.

    • B. 

      Commutator.

    • C. 

      Bearings.

    • D. 

      Brushes.

  • 3. 
    Torque is defined as
    • A. 

      Wattage.

    • B. 

      Horsepower.

    • C. 

      Rotational force.

    • D. 

      Opposition to applied voltage.

  • 4. 
    In a series-wound direct current (DC) motor, speed is dependent on the
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Torque.

    • C. 

      Armature.

    • D. 

      Field winding.

  • 5. 
    The relationship between slip and torque can best be described as more
    • A. 

      Torque causing more slip.

    • B. 

      Slip causing more torque.

    • C. 

      Torque causing less slip.

    • D. 

      Slip causing less torque.

  • 6. 
    The three-phase induction motor does not require
    • A. 

      Slip.

    • B. 

      A rotor.

    • C. 

      A stator.

    • D. 

      A starting device.

  • 7. 
    To reverse the direction of rotation of a three-phrase inductive motor, you must reverse
    • A. 

      All three phases.

    • B. 

      Any two power leads.

    • C. 

      A and B phases only.

    • D. 

      B and C phases only.

  • 8. 
    The stator windings of a synchronous motor are spaced
    • A. 

      20 degrees apart.

    • B. 

      30 degrees apart.

    • C. 

      90 degrees apart.

    • D. 

      120 degrees apart.

  • 9. 
    The rotation speed of a synchronous motor is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Torque.

    • C. 

      Input frequency.

    • D. 

      Armature current.

  • 10. 
    During an inspection of a direct current (DC) motor, check the brushes for
    • A. 

      Pitting.

    • B. 

      Seating.

    • C. 

      Coloration.

    • D. 

      Brittleness.

  • 11. 
    When you check the concentricity of a commutator or slip rings, look for
    • A. 

      Wear.

    • B. 

      Pitting.

    • C. 

      Roundness.

    • D. 

      Overheating.

  • 12. 
    When using a troubleshooting chart, what are you not likely to find?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Remedies.

    • C. 

      Symptoms.

    • D. 

      Probably causes.

  • 13. 
    Most troubleshooting on a motor can be done using a
    • A. 

      Megger.

    • B. 

      Growler.

    • C. 

      Multimeter.

    • D. 

      Clamp-on meter.

  • 14. 
    Perform an operational check of the unit
    • A. 

      At the last minute.

    • B. 

      With the defective part removed.

    • C. 

      Before final reassembly of the enclosure.

    • D. 

      As soon as you replace the defective part.

  • 15. 
    The component not likely to be damaged by poorly filtered fuel is the 
    • A. 

      Combustion chamber.

    • B. 

      Transfer pump.

    • C. 

      Fuel lines.

    • D. 

      Injectors.

  • 16. 
    The type of injector that is operated by a rocker arm is
    • A. 

      Spray.

    • B. 

      Pintle.

    • C. 

      Pressure.

    • D. 

      Mechanical.

  • 17. 
    Aside from idle speed, the limiting speed governor through the use of flyweights and spring tension controls
    • A. 

      Load speed.

    • B. 

      Minimum speed.

    • C. 

      Maximum speed.

    • D. 

      Intermediate speed.

  • 18. 
    A lubricant performs which function when it deposites particles of dirt in the oil sump?
    • A. 

      Cooling.

    • B. 

      Sealing.

    • C. 

      Cleaning.

    • D. 

      Reducing friction.

  • 19. 
    What component holds a large amount of coolant in close contact with a large volume of air?
    • A. 

      Radiator cap.

    • B. 

      Thermostat.

    • C. 

      Water pump.

    • D. 

      Radiator.

  • 20. 
    Which liquid cooling system component circulates the coolant?
    • A. 

      Vacuum valve.

    • B. 

      Water pump.

    • C. 

      Cooling fan.

    • D. 

      Radiator.

  • 21. 
    One of the impellers within a blower on a diesel engine is normally driven
    • A. 

      By the engine electrical system through a DC motor.

    • B. 

      By the engine exhaust gases flowing across the turbine wheel.

    • C. 

      From the engine crankshaft through a system of gears or a silent chain.

    • D. 

      Through a solid shaft connected between the blower and the transmission.

  • 22. 
    What must be accomplished to supercharge a diesel engine?
    • A. 

      Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are not open at the same time.

    • B. 

      Change the overlap and timing so that the intake and exhaust valves are open at the same time.

    • C. 

      Advance exhaust valve opening time.

    • D. 

      Retard intake valve opening time.

  • 23. 
    The filtration stop protects the diesel engine fuel system from
    • A. 

      Blockage of airflow.

    • B. 

      Lube system malfunctions.

    • C. 

      Slipping belts on the blower.

    • D. 

      Abrasion by foreign particles.

  • 24. 
    The best step in preventing abnormal amounts of carbon moisture, and sludge buildup in a diesel engine, is to
    • A. 

      Avoid operating the engine for extended periods at no-load.

    • B. 

      Operate the unit at idle speed for long periods of time.

    • C. 

      Drain moisture from fuel system periodically.

    • D. 

      Perform a preoperational check.

  • 25. 
    When performing a compression test, measuring pounds per square inch (psi), the maximum allowable deviation between cylinders is
    • A. 

      25 psi.

    • B. 

      50 psi.

    • C. 

      75 psi.

    • D. 

      100 psi.

  • 26. 
    If the drive shaft for the oil pump assembly in a gas turbine engine becomes sheared, what other component is rendered inoperative?
    • A. 

      Alternating (AC) generator.

    • B. 

      Tachometer generator.

    • C. 

      Starter motor.

    • D. 

      Cooling fan.

  • 27. 
    In the gas turbine engine, cooling air for the transformer rectifier is provided by the 
    • A. 

      Cooling fan.

    • B. 

      Starter motor.

    • C. 

      Fuel pump and control unit.

    • D. 

      Multiple centrifugal switch assembly.

  • 28. 
    During gas turbine engine operation, the air is accelerated by the
    • A. 

      Diffusers.

    • B. 

      Exducers.

    • C. 

      Impellers.

    • D. 

      Deswirl ring.

  • 29. 
    During operation of a turbine engine, fuel and air are mixed and ignited in the
    • A. 

      Fuel atomizer.

    • B. 

      Combustor can.

    • C. 

      Mixer assembly.

    • D. 

      Plenum chamber.

  • 30. 
    In the operation of a turbine engine, energy is extracted from the burning gases by the
    • A. 

      Diffuser.

    • B. 

      Exhaust flange.

    • C. 

      Turbine wheel and exducer.

    • D. 

      Exhaust gas thermocouple.

  • 31. 
    The boost pump on the gas turbine engine provides fuel to the
    • A. 

      Fuel atomizer.

    • B. 

      Main fuel pump.

    • C. 

      Combustion chamber.

    • D. 

      Fuel air mixture valve.

  • 32. 
    Lubrication system pressure in the turbine engine is regulated through a
    • A. 

      Flow check valve.

    • B. 

      Filter bypass valve.

    • C. 

      Pressure relief valve.

    • D. 

      Temperature regulator.

  • 33. 
    Gas turbine compressor (GTC) operation with insufficient oil pressure is prevented by the
    • A. 

      Oil pressure solenoid.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch.

    • C. 

      Oil drain switch.

    • D. 

      Ignition coil.

  • 34. 
    During turbine engine operation, oil loss into the airflow system is prevented by the
    • A. 

      Air-oil seals.

    • B. 

      Oil tank baffles.

    • C. 

      Exhaust vent line.

    • D. 

      Pressure relief valve.

  • 35. 
    If the gas turbine compressor (GTC) load control butterfly valve opens too slowly or too quickly, what is the most probable cause of the malfunction?
    • A. 

      Excessive exhaust gas temperature.

    • B. 

      Maladjusted rate adjustment screw.

    • C. 

      Ruptured actuator diaphragm.

    • D. 

      Defective relief valve.

  • 36. 
    In the turbine engine, rupture of the rate diaphragm is prevented by the
    • A. 

      Adjustment screw.

    • B. 

      Actuator regulator.

    • C. 

      Rate metering valve.

    • D. 

      Rate diaphragm return spring.

  • 37. 
    Prior to operating any aerospace ground equipment (AGE), you should perform
    • A. 

      A preoperational inspection.

    • B. 

      A serviceability check.

    • C. 

      A periodic inspection.

    • D. 

      An operational test.

  • 38. 
    During a preoperational inspection of a gas turbine engine, you check the intake and exhaust for
    • A. 

      Leakage.

    • B. 

      Excess heat.

    • C. 

      Hairline cracks.

    • D. 

      Foreign objects.

  • 39. 
    Normal acceleration characteristics of the gas turbine compressor (GTC) include
    • A. 

      Sudden rumbling noises after 35 percent.

    • B. 

      A decrease in vibration after 35 percent.

    • C. 

      Smooth and quiet acceleration.

    • D. 

      Burping.

  • 40. 
    Before you load and after you unload the gas turbine compressor (GTC), allow the engine to operate unloaded to
    • A. 

      Decrease noise.

    • B. 

      Allow for flameouts.

    • C. 

      Reduce thermal stress.

    • D. 

      Allow for positioning of the service hose.

  • 41. 
    When you operate a unit to determine the validity of an entry on the maintenance record form, what step in effective troubleshooting are you performing?
    • A. 

      Analysis.

    • B. 

      Isolation.

    • C. 

      Recognition.

    • D. 

      Verification.

  • 42. 
    While troubleshooting the gas turbine compressor (GTC), if you discover there is no oil pressure and the oil filter is dirty, changing the oil filter will not correct the problem because the
    • A. 

      Filter bypass valve is stuck open.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure relief valve is stuck open.

    • C. 

      Externally mounted solenoid is stuck closed.

    • D. 

      Scavenge pump is not providing sufficient suction.

  • 43. 
    If no oil pressure is available from the main oil pump assembly on the gas turbine compressor (GTC), you should replace the
    • A. 

      Oil pump.

    • B. 

      Entire assembly.

    • C. 

      Flow check valve.

    • D. 

      Filter bypass relief valve.

  • 44. 
    Which causes gray or white smoke to pour from the exhaust stack on the gas turbine compressor (GTC)?
    • A. 

      Excessive engine revolutions per minute (rpm).

    • B. 

      Excessive engine exhaust temperature.

    • C. 

      Oil that enters the airflow system.

    • D. 

      Fuel mixing with the airflow.

  • 45. 
    In the gas turbine compressor (GTC), if large amounts of oil are forced through the air-oil seals, the most probable cause is a defective
    • A. 

      Main oil pump.

    • B. 

      Scavenge pump.

    • C. 

      Oil tank vent line.

    • D. 

      Oil drain solenoid.

  • 46. 
    Which could cause the butterfly valve to oscillate (continually open and close)?
    • A. 

      Load valve.

    • B. 

      Hose relief valve.

    • C. 

      Rate adjustment screw.

    • D. 

      Pneumatic load thermostat.

  • 47. 
    Which three things are necessary to produce an electromotive force (EMF) mechanically?
    • A. 

      EMF, relative motion, and magnetic field.

    • B. 

      Magnet, lines of force, and relative motion.

    • C. 

      Magnetic field, a conductor, and relative motion.

    • D. 

      Counter-electromotive force (CEMF), a conductor, and magnetic field.

  • 48. 
    To increase the output of a generator, you must increase the
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Resistance of the conductor.

    • C. 

      Strength of the magnetic field.

    • D. 

      Counter-electromotive force (CEMF)

  • 49. 
    What result is achieved by replacing the single rotating conductor of a simple direct current (DC) generator with many coils of wire wound on the same shaft?
    • A. 

      Increased output and almost constant alternating current (AC).

    • B. 

      Increased output and almost constant DC.

    • C. 

      Decreased current and constant AC.

    • D. 

      Decreased current and constant DC.

  • 50. 
    The rotor of an alternating current (AC) generator consists of the slip rings and 
    • A. 

      Armature.

    • B. 

      Starter coil.

    • C. 

      Stator windings.

    • D. 

      Voltage regulator.

  • 51. 
    Control the output voltage of an alternating current (AC) generator is accomplished by varying the
    • A. 

      Speed of rotation.

    • B. 

      Size of the armature.

    • C. 

      Amount of field current.

    • D. 

      Size of the field windings.

  • 52. 
    In an alternating current (AC) generator, the output frequency is often more critical than the output
    • A. 

      Load.

    • B. 

      Phase.

    • C. 

      Current.

    • D. 

      Voltage.

  • 53. 
    In a three-phase alternating current (AC) generator, direct current (DC) is applied to the field windings through the brushes and
    • A. 

      Diodes.

    • B. 

      Rectifier.

    • C. 

      Slip rings.

    • D. 

      Commutator.

  • 54. 
    Three different loads can be supported at the same time by a
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC) generator.

    • B. 

      Single-phase generator.

    • C. 

      Two-phase generator.

    • D. 

      Three-phase generator.

  • 55. 
    The self-excited alternating current (AC) generator provides its own field current from a built-in
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC) generator.

    • B. 

      Selenium rectifier.

    • C. 

      Battery source.

    • D. 

      Regulator.

  • 56. 
    When a load is applied to a self-excited alternating current (AC) generator, exciter field resistance will
    • A. 

      Decrease current flow.

    • B. 

      Remain the same.

    • C. 

      Increase.

    • D. 

      Decrease.

  • 57. 
    The weak points of the self-excited alternating current (AC) generator are the
    • A. 

      Commutator, brushes, and slip rings.

    • B. 

      Commutator, rotor, and slip rings.

    • C. 

      Brushes, commutator, and rotor.

    • D. 

      Brushes, slip rings, and rotor.

  • 58. 
    In the brushless alternating current (AC) generator, what provides necessary excitation current?
    • A. 

      Main generator.

    • B. 

      Exciter generator.

    • C. 

      Armature windings.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet generator.

  • 59. 
    What type of loads can be applied to a generator under test by the A/M24T-8 electrical test set?
    • A. 

      Inductive and resistive.

    • B. 

      Reactive and resistive.

    • C. 

      Armature windings.

    • D. 

      Permanent magnet generator.

  • 60. 
    The A/M24T-8 electrical test est is capable of testing
    • A. 

      Aerospace ground equipment (AGE) generator sets only.

    • B. 

      Alternating current (AC) power supplies only.

    • C. 

      Direct current (DC) power supplies only.

    • D. 

      AC and DC power supplies.

  • 61. 
    What circuit on the A/M24T-8 load bank is used to check the performance of three-phase alternators?
    • A. 

      Special checks.

    • B. 

      Impedance load.

    • C. 

      Aircraft servicing.

    • D. 

      Jet engine servicing.

  • 62. 
    What occurs when the load selection switches on the A/M24T-8 load bank are closed?
    • A. 

      Load elements are connected to neutral.

    • B. 

      Blower motors begin operation.

    • C. 

      Panel lights illuminate.

    • D. 

      Link boards rearrange.

  • 63. 
    Before connecting a generator set to the load bank, you should
    • A. 

      Make sure input power cables are energized.

    • B. 

      Make sure all on-off switches are in the OFF position.

    • C. 

      Close the direct current (DC) section cooling fan doors.

    • D. 

      Place circuit breaker three-phase shock load to ON position.

  • 64. 
    When using a load bank to test a generator, follow the procedures outlined in the
    • A. 

      Generator technical order (TO) and career development course (CDC).

    • B. 

      Load bank TO, generator TO, and CDC.

    • C. 

      Generator TO and load bank TO.

    • D. 

      Load bank TO and CDC.

  • 65. 
    • A. 

      While applying power to the test set.

    • B. 

      Before applying power to the test set.

    • C. 

      After the ABC indicator is illuminated.

    • D. 

      After the 28 volts direct current (VDC) control signal indicator illuminates.

  • 66. 
    What maximum alternating current (AC) resistive load can the portable load bank apply to a generator?
    • A. 

      65 kilowatts.

    • B. 

      70 kilowatts.

    • C. 

      75 kilowatts.

    • D. 

      80 kilowatts.

  • 67. 
    When performing a phase-one periodic inspection (PE), you are going to do a
    • A. 

      Detailed annual inspection.

    • B. 

      Relatively quick equipment condition check.

    • C. 

      Special inspection accomplishing the lubrication requirements only.

    • D. 

      Streamline inspection to ensure a unit is operational and serviceable.

  • 68. 
    The resistive elements on the A/M24T-8 test set are best cleaned by
    • A. 

      Blowing off with 5 pounds per square inch (PSI) uncontaminated air.

    • B. 

      Blowing off with 15 psi uncontaminated air.

    • C. 

      Scrubbing with soap and water.

    • D. 

      Steam cleaning.

  • 69. 
    On an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, what would prevent the fan motors from operating?
    • A. 

      Shorted fuses.

    • B. 

      Defective wind switch.

    • C. 

      CB1 stuck in the ON position.

    • D. 

      Defective power supply rectifier.

  • 70. 
    The governor of the A/M32T-60A generator set is controlled directly by the
    • A. 

      Engine speed.

    • B. 

      Trim control motor.

    • C. 

      Static frequency sensor.

    • D. 

      Manual trim adjustment.

  • 71. 
    What is used as a reference for controlling A/M32A-60A engine speed?
    • A. 

      Fuel pressure.

    • B. 

      Control air pressure.

    • C. 

      Governor flyweight pressure.

    • D. 

      Alternating current (AC) generator output frequency.

  • 72. 
    If the oil pressure switch opens during operation of a A/M32A-60A, during which period does it stop operating?
    • A. 

      From 0 to 35 percent.

    • B. 

      From 35 to 95 percent.

    • C. 

      From 95 to 100 percent.

    • D. 

      Anytime during operation.

  • 73. 
    On the A/M32A-60A, which chambers of the load control valve work together to ensure the butterfly valve opens smoothly?
    • A. 

      1 and 2.

    • B. 

      2 and 3.

    • C. 

      1 and 3.

    • D. 

      2 and 4.

  • 74. 
    Power for starting the A/M32A-60A is provided by
    • A. 

      Batteries.

    • B. 

      Generator.

    • C. 

      Start switch.

    • D. 

      Master switch.

  • 75. 
    In the event of an overspeed condition, what component of the A/M32A-60A generator electrical system stops the engine?
    • A. 

      Overspeed actuator.

    • B. 

      Fuel shutoff switch.

    • C. 

      35 percent centrifugal switch.

    • D. 

      110 percent centrifugal switch.

  • 76. 
    The A/M32A-60A generator set cannot be loaded either electrically or pneumatically until after the
    • A. 

      35 percent switch has closed.

    • B. 

      95 percent switch has closed.

    • C. 

      110 percent switch has opened.

    • D. 

      BLEED AIR ON switch is closed.

  • 77. 
    The component of the A/M32A-60A that opens and closes the fuel transfer line is the fuel
    • A. 

      Level switch, S20

    • B. 

      Solenoid valve, L1

    • C. 

      Level control relay, K26

    • D. 

      Level solenoid valve, L4

  • 78. 
    After the A/M32A-60A generator set has shut itself down due to low fuel, the fuel level relay, K4 must be reset by
    • A. 

      Turning the start switch OFF, the ON.

    • B. 

      Turning the master switch OFF, then ON.

    • C. 

      De-energizing the low-level lockout relay.

    • D. 

      De-energizing the low-level warning switch.

  • 79. 
    What does the alternating current (AC) voltage regulator of the A/M32A-60A use to determine the amount of adjustment the generator output needs?
    • A. 

      AC ammeter.

    • B. 

      AC voltmeter.

    • C. 

      Generator output current.

    • D. 

      Generator output voltage.

  • 80. 
    When is 28 volts direct current (VDC) applied to E pin of the alternating current (AC) cable?
    • A. 

      Never.

    • B. 

      At all times.

    • C. 

      When the AC cable switch is in the GEN position.

    • D. 

      When the AC cable switch is in the ACFT position.

  • 81. 
    On the A/M32A-60A generator, what stops battery charging when the batteries are fully charged and prevents discharge when the unit is shut down?
    • A. 

      Battery charging resistor.

    • B. 

      Battery charging diode.

    • C. 

      Voltage regulator.

    • D. 

      Charging shunt.

  • 82. 
    On the A/M32A-60A generator, when the direct current (DC) contactor is in the closed position, the DC ammeter indicates
    • A. 

      Power through the DC power receptacle.

    • B. 

      Alternating current (AC) load.

    • C. 

      Battery charging current.

    • D. 

      Nothing.

  • 83. 
    How often are service inspections required?
    • A. 

      After equipment is placed on the ready line.

    • B. 

      After maintenance.

    • C. 

      Once a week.

    • D. 

      Once a day.

  • 84. 
    After the A/M32A-60A generator set has reached 95 percent of governed speed, the operator should
    • A. 

      Reset the alternating current (AC) system.

    • B. 

      Connect the power cables.

    • C. 

      Adjust the governed speed.

    • D. 

      Connect the bleed air duct.

  • 85. 
    When troubleshooting, the actual location of a terminal connection on the unit can best be found by using
    • A. 

      The wiring diagram.

    • B. 

      Your past experience.

    • C. 

      The schematic diagram.

    • D. 

      The reference designation.

  • 86. 
    To find out where a wire is connected, you should consult the
    • A. 

      Flow chart.

    • B. 

      Wiring diagram.

    • C. 

      Schematic diagram.

    • D. 

      Reference designation list.

  • 87. 
    What component of the A/M32A-86D energizes to send power to the fuel gauge during operation?
    • A. 

      Hourmeter, M4.

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch, S46.

    • C. 

      Oil pressure switch, S53.

    • D. 

      Fuel oil pressure switch, S48.

  • 88. 
    What is the purpose of the protective circuits of the A/M32A-86D?
    • A. 

      Protects the generator electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

    • B. 

      Protects the aircraft electrical system against damage resulting from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, and over/underfrequency.

    • C. 

      Senses fault conditions, stopping the generator.

    • D. 

      Senses fault conditions, stopping the engine.

  • 89. 
    How long can you operate the starter on the A/M32-86D before letting it cool?
    • A. 

      60 seconds.

    • B. 

      30 seconds.

    • C. 

      20 seconds.

    • D. 

      10 seconds.

  • 90. 
    When troubleshooting any electrical system, you can locate a starting point by first finding the
    • A. 

      Common ground bus.

    • B. 

      Main circuit breaker.

    • C. 

      External power source.

    • D. 

      Last known source of power.

  • 91. 
    What position must the alarm switch on the EPU-6/E frequency converter be placed prior to operation?
    • A. 

      ON.

    • B. 

      OFF.

    • C. 

      ACTIVATE.

    • D. 

      INACTIVE.

  • 92. 
    What indicator on the EPU-6/E frequency converter indicates an undervoltage condition?
    • A. 

      Overvoltage.

    • B. 

      Out-of-phase.

    • C. 

      Undervoltage.

    • D. 

      Fault.

  • 93. 
    What component on the EPU-6/E frequency converter controls the timing and firing of the silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)?
    • A. 

      Analog board.

    • B. 

      Control transformer.

    • C. 

      SCR voltage regulator.

    • D. 

      Phase sequence transformer.

  • 94. 
    Before using the EPU-6/E frequency converter, you must inspect the
    • A. 

      Air inlets for blockage.

    • B. 

      Wiring for secure mounting.

    • C. 

      Maintenance panels for corrosion.

    • D. 

      Interior air vents for secure mounting.

  • 95. 
    What problem is indicated by a flashing red over/undervoltage indicator light on the EPU-6/E frequency converter?
    • A. 

      Out-of-phase relationship.

    • B. 

      Output overvoltage.

    • C. 

      Loss-of-input phase.

    • D. 

      Input undervoltage.

  • 96. 
    What printed circuit (PC) card controls the cold-starting air on the B809A generator set?
    • A. 

      Direct current (DC).

    • B. 

      Annunciator.

    • C. 

      Regulator.

    • D. 

      Engine.

  • 97. 
    What signal powers the regulator card output pulse sent to the exciter field of the B809A generator?
    • A. 

      200 volts alternating current (VAC).

    • B. 

      110 volts direct current (VDC).

    • C. 

      28.5 VDC.

    • D. 

      115 VAC.

  • 98. 
    What condition is sensed by the direct current (DC) card on the B809A generator set?
    • A. 

      Overtemperature.

    • B. 

      Under frequency.

    • C. 

      Overfrequency.

    • D. 

      Low fuel.

  • 99. 
    During high-voltage operation of the B809A generator set, what action occurs to prevent the direct current (DC) contactors from closing?
    • A. 

      High sense relay (HSR) energizes.

    • B. 

      Interlock (INT) relay energizes.

    • C. 

      INT relay deenergizes.

    • D. 

      HSR deenergizes.

  • 100. 
    If you have a loss of residual magnetism in the exciter field poles, what should you do?
    • A. 

      Connect TB4-11 to 14 VDC power source.

    • B. 

      Check the Field Transformer.

    • C. 

      Field flash the generator.

    • D. 

      Check the fault display.