CDC 2A652 Age (Vol 3)

85 Questions | Total Attempts: 4100

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2a652 Quizzes & Trivia

URE's for CDC Vol 3 for Aerospace Ground Equipment


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which component is one of the major causes of failure in the DC motor?
    • A. 

      Commutator

    • B. 

      Slip rings

    • C. 

      Bearings

    • D. 

      Rotor

  • 2. 
    During operation of the EPU-6/E frequency converter the operator determine that one phase voltage is lower than the other two phases. What could cause this malfunction?
    • A. 

      Malfunctioning transistor

    • B. 

      Improper SCR firing adjustment

    • C. 

      Burnt control transformer fuse

    • D. 

      Loose push-on connector on the output filter capacitor

  • 3. 
    Which induction motor has the highest starting torque?
    • A. 

      Capacitive-start

    • B. 

      Squirrel cage

    • C. 

      Shaded pole

    • D. 

      Split-phase

  • 4. 
    When you check the concentricity of a commutator of slip rings, look for
    • A. 

      Wear

    • B. 

      Pitting

    • C. 

      Roundness

    • D. 

      Overheating

  • 5. 
    One advantage of the three-phase induction motor over a comparable single-phase unit is 
    • A. 

      Lower voltage requirement

    • B. 

      High starting torque

    • C. 

      A higher speed

    • D. 

      Less weight

  • 6. 
    After shutdown a motor continues turning; this is known as
    • A. 

      Inertia

    • B. 

      Impedance

    • C. 

      Inductance

    • D. 

      Eddy currents

  • 7. 
    In a series-wound DC motor, speed is controlled by the 
    • A. 

      Load

    • B. 

      Torque

    • C. 

      Armature

    • D. 

      Field winding

  • 8. 
    The three-phase induction motor does not require
    • A. 

      Slip

    • B. 

      A rotor

    • C. 

      A stator

    • D. 

      A starting device

  • 9. 
    Torque is defined as
    • A. 

      Horsepower

    • B. 

      Wattage

    • C. 

      Rotational force

    • D. 

      Opposition to applied voltage

  • 10. 
    The stator windings of a synchronous motor are wound
    • A. 

      20 degrees apart

    • B. 

      30 degrees apart

    • C. 

      90 degrees apart

    • D. 

      120 degrees apart

  • 11. 
    When using a troubleshooting chart, what are you not likely to find?
    • A. 

      Analysis

    • B. 

      Remedies

    • C. 

      Symptoms

    • D. 

      Probable causes

  • 12. 
    The first thing you should do when troubleshooting a motor is a
    • A. 

      Voltage check

    • B. 

      Continuity test

    • C. 

      Visual inspection

    • D. 

      Current measurement

  • 13. 
    The component most likely to be damaged by cleaning solvent is the 
    • A. 

      Brushes

    • B. 

      Bearings

    • C. 

      Slip rings

    • D. 

      Commutator

  • 14. 
    The type of injector that is operated by a rocker arm is the 
    • A. 

      Spray

    • B. 

      Pintle

    • C. 

      Pressure

    • D. 

      Mechanical

  • 15. 
    When lubricant reduces friction, it also reduces
    • A. 

      Heat

    • B. 

      Wear

    • C. 

      Resistance

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 16. 
    Which function does a lubricant perform by constantly circulating past the air that surrounds the oil sump?
    • A. 

      Cooling

    • B. 

      Sealing

    • C. 

      Cleaning

    • D. 

      Reducing friction

  • 17. 
    What component holds a large amount of coolant in close contact with a large volume of air?
    • A. 

      Radiator cap

    • B. 

      Thermostat

    • C. 

      Water pump

    • D. 

      Radiator

  • 18. 
    The purpose of the cooling system thermostat is to maintain correct engine
    • A. 

      Operating temperature

    • B. 

      Coolant temperature

    • C. 

      System pressure

    • D. 

      Coolant flow

  • 19. 
    What is installed on a two-stroke diesel engine to ensure displacement of all exhaust gases?
    • A. 

      Blower

    • B. 

      Intake valve

    • C. 

      Exhaust valve

    • D. 

      Turbulence chamber

  • 20. 
    The maintenance procedure that is considered to be the cheapest and most effective means of reducing injection equipment problems and maintenance costs is
    • A. 

      Correct defective components only

    • B. 

      Rigid maintenance schedules

    • C. 

      Periodic overhaul schedule

    • D. 

      Preventive maintenance

  • 21. 
    The filtration step protects the diesel engine fuel system from
    • A. 

      Blockage of airflow

    • B. 

      Lube system malfunctions

    • C. 

      Slipping belts on the blower

    • D. 

      Abrasion by foreign particles

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Avoid operating the engine for extended periods at no-load

    • B. 

      Operate the unit at idle speed for long periods of time

    • C. 

      Drain moisture from fuel system periodically

    • D. 

      Perform a preoperational check

  • 23. 
    When performing a compression test the allowable deviation between cylinders is
    • A. 

      25 psi

    • B. 

      50 psi

    • C. 

      75 psi

    • D. 

      100 psi

  • 24. 
    During starting, the turbine engine is rotated up to 20 percent by the 
    • A. 

      AC generator

    • B. 

      Starter motor

    • C. 

      Tachometer generator

    • D. 

      Fuel pump and control unit

  • 25. 
    In the gas turbine engine, cooling air for the transformer rectifier is provided by the 
    • A. 

      Starter motor

    • B. 

      Cooling fan

    • C. 

      Fuel pump and control unit

    • D. 

      Multiple centrifugal switch assembly

  • 26. 
    During gas turbine engine operation, the air is accelerated by the 
    • A. 

      Impellers

    • B. 

      Diffusers

    • C. 

      Exducers

    • D. 

      Deswirl ring

  • 27. 
    In the operation of a turbine engine, energy is extracted from the burning gases by the 
    • A. 

      Inducer

    • B. 

      Diffuser

    • C. 

      Turbine wheel

    • D. 

      Torque converter

  • 28. 
    The turbine engine's constant speed is maintained by the 
    • A. 

      Governor

    • B. 

      Fuel regulator

    • C. 

      Acceleration limiter valve

    • D. 

      Acceleration stabilizer solenoid

  • 29. 
    Before you load and after you unload the GTC, allow the engine to operate unloaded to
    • A. 

      Decrease noise

    • B. 

      Allow for flameouts

    • C. 

      Reduce thermal stress

    • D. 

      Allow for positioning of the service hose

  • 30. 
    During turbine engine operation, oil loss into the airflow system is prevented by the 
    • A. 

      Air-oil seals

    • B. 

      Oil-tank baffles

    • C. 

      Exhaust vent-line

    • D. 

      Pressure-relief valve

  • 31. 
    The load section os the load control valve consists of
    • A. 

      Chambers 1 and 2

    • B. 

      Chambers 2 and 3

    • C. 

      Chambers 3 and 4

    • D. 

      Chambers 1 and 4

  • 32. 
    Common of frequent occurring troubles in a unit, their cause, and remedies may be found in the
    • A. 

      Historical record

    • B. 

      Maintenance record

    • C. 

      Troubleshooting chart

    • D. 

      Illustrated parts breakdown

  • 33. 
    While troubleshooting the GTC, you find no oil pressure and the oil filter is dirty. Will changing the filter correct the problem?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No, the filter bypass valve is stuck open

    • C. 

      No, the oil pressure relief valve is stuck open

    • D. 

      No, the scavenge pump is not providing sufficient suction

  • 34. 
    The turbine engine component that prevents fuel from accumulating in the plenum is the 
    • A. 

      Atomizer

    • B. 

      Drain valve

    • C. 

      Pneumatic control device

    • D. 

      Acceleration limiter valve

  • 35. 
    When you operate a gas turbine engine, you should
    • A. 

      Use earplugs and muffs

    • B. 

      Never enter the plane of rotation

    • C. 

      Stay away from the rear of the engine

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 36. 
    Normal acceleration characteristics of the GTC includes
    • A. 

      A decrease in vibration after 35 perfect

    • B. 

      Sudden rumbling noises after 35 perfect

    • C. 

      Smooth and quiet acceleration

    • D. 

      Burping

  • 37. 
    Lubrication system pressure in the turbine engine is regulated through a 
    • A. 

      Flow check valve

    • B. 

      Filter bypass valve

    • C. 

      Pressure relief valve

    • D. 

      Temperature regulator

  • 38. 
    During preoperational inspection of a gas turbine engine, you check the intake and exhaust for
    • A. 

      Leakage

    • B. 

      Excess heat

    • C. 

      Hairline cracks

    • D. 

      Foreign objects

  • 39. 
    Which causes gray or white smoke to pour from the exhaust stack on the GTC?
    • A. 

      Excessive engine rpm

    • B. 

      Fuel mixing with the airflow

    • C. 

      Oil that enters the airflow system

    • D. 

      Excessive engine exhaust temperature

  • 40. 
    Which could cause the butterfly valve to oscillate (continually open and close)?
    • A. 

      Load valve

    • B. 

      Hose relief valve

    • C. 

      Pneumatic load thermostat

    • D. 

      Rate adjustment screw

  • 41. 
    Which three things are necessary to produce an EMP mechanically?
    • A. 

      EMF, relative motion, and magnetic field

    • B. 

      Magnet, lines of force, and relative motion

    • C. 

      Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion

    • D. 

      CEMF, conductor, and magnetic field

  • 42. 
    The internal current produced by all generators is
    • A. 

      AC

    • B. 

      DC

    • C. 

      Pulsating AC

    • D. 

      Pulsating DC

  • 43. 
    What result is achieved by replacing the single rotating conductor of a simple DC generator with many coils of wire wound on the same shaft?
    • A. 

      Increased output and constant AC

    • B. 

      Increased output and constant DC

    • C. 

      Decreased current and constant DC

    • D. 

      Decreased current and constant AC

  • 44. 
    What part of an AC generator provides a connection between the rotating and stationary parts?
    • A. 

      Armature

    • B. 

      Slip rings

    • C. 

      Commutator

    • D. 

      Field windings

  • 45. 
    Control of the output voltage of an AC generator is accomplished by varying the 
    • A. 

      Speed of rotation

    • B. 

      Size of armature

    • C. 

      Amount of field current

    • D. 

      Size of the field windings

  • 46. 
    Output phase to phase voltage on a three-phase AC generator is always
    • A. 

      120 volts

    • B. 

      108 volts

    • C. 

      208 volts

    • D. 

      240 volts

  • 47. 
    Three different loads can be supported at the same time by a 
    • A. 

      DC generator

    • B. 

      Single-phase generator

    • C. 

      Two-phase generator

    • D. 

      Three-phase generator

  • 48. 
    The weak points of the self-excited AC generator are the
    • A. 

      Brushes, slip rings, and rotor

    • B. 

      Brushes, slip rings, and commutator

    • C. 

      Commutator, rotor, and slip rings

    • D. 

      Brushes, commutator, and rotor

  • 49. 
    In a brushless AC generator, what provides the field current for the main AC generator section?
    • A. 

      PMG

    • B. 

      Battery

    • C. 

      Main generator

    • D. 

      Exciter generator

  • 50. 
    How does rectification take place in a brushless AC generator?
    • A. 

      Chemically

    • B. 

      Magnetically

    • C. 

      Electrically

    • D. 

      Mechanically

  • 51. 
    The A/M24T-8 electrical test set is capable of testing
    • A. 

      AC power supplies only

    • B. 

      DC power supplies only

    • C. 

      AC and DC power supplies

    • D. 

      AGE generator sets only

  • 52. 
    What circuit on the A/M24T-8 load bank is used to check the performance of three-phase alternators?
    • A. 

      Special checks

    • B. 

      Impedance load

    • C. 

      Aircraft servicing

    • D. 

      Jet engine servicing

  • 53. 
    Before connecting a generator set to the load bank, you should
    • A. 

      Close the DC section cooling fan doors

    • B. 

      Make sure input power cables are energized

    • C. 

      Make sure all on-off switches are in the OFF position

    • D. 

      Place circuit breaker three phase shock load to ON postion

  • 54. 
    When using a load bank to test a generator, follow the procedures outlines in the
    • A. 

      Generator TO and CDC

    • B. 

      Load bank TO and CDC

    • C. 

      Generator TO and load bank TO

    • D. 

      Generator TO, load bank TO, and CDC

  • 55. 
    When load testing a generator the AC control panel contains all the necessary controls to test an AC generator with both resistive and
    • A. 

      Impedance loads

    • B. 

      Inductive loads

    • C. 

      Variable loads

    • D. 

      Reactive loads

  • 56. 
    When using an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, when should the frequency and voltage selector switch be positioned to match input power?
    • A. 

      After applying power to the test set

    • B. 

      Before applying power to the test set

    • C. 

      After the ABC indicator is illuminated

    • D. 

      After the 28 VDC control signal indicator illuminates

  • 57. 
    What maximum AC resistive load can the portable load bank supply to a generator?
    • A. 

      65 kilowatts

    • B. 

      70 kilowatts

    • C. 

      75 kilowatts

    • D. 

      80 kilowatts

  • 58. 
    The resistive elements on the A/M24T-8 test set are best cleaned by
    • A. 

      Steam cleaning

    • B. 

      Scrubbing with soap and water

    • C. 

      Blowing off with 5 psi uncontaminated air

    • D. 

      Blowing off with 15 psi uncontaminated air

  • 59. 
    On the A/M32A-60A, which chambers of the load control valve work together to ensure the butterfly valve opens smoothly?
    • A. 

      Chambers 1 and 2

    • B. 

      Chambers 2 and 3

    • C. 

      Chambers 1 and 3

    • D. 

      Chambers 2 and 4

  • 60. 
    The oil pressure switch stops operation of the A/M32A-60A if it opens during which operating period?
    • A. 

      From 0-35 percent

    • B. 

      From 35-95 percent

    • C. 

      From 95-100 percent

    • D. 

      Anytime during operation

  • 61. 
    On the A/M32A-60A, the ignition coil is energized by the 
    • A. 

      35 percent switch

    • B. 

      Fuel level switch

    • C. 

      Oil pressure switch

    • D. 

      Turbine start switch

  • 62. 
    What component of the A/M32A-60A stops the engine when the fuel supply gets low?
    • A. 

      Fuel level relay, K4

    • B. 

      Fuel level switch, S20

    • C. 

      Fuel level control relay, K26

    • D. 

      Fuel low level lockout switch, S18

  • 63. 
    An auxiliary fuel tank mounted on the rear of the A/M32A-60A generator set transfers fuel to the main tanks
    • A. 

      Automatically

    • B. 

      By manual control

    • C. 

      When the tanks are empty

    • D. 

      At regular predetermined time intervals

  • 64. 
    On the A/M32A-60A generator, the starter motor relay is deenergized when the 
    • A. 

      Start switch opens

    • B. 

      Start switch closes

    • C. 

      35 perfect switch opens

    • D. 

      35 percent switch closes

  • 65. 
    What component of the A/M32A-60A must open to allow fuel to flow to the atomizer?
    • A. 

      Fuel solenoid valve, L1

    • B. 

      Fuel level control relay, K26

    • C. 

      Fuel level solenoid valve, L4

    • D. 

      Fuel low level lockout switch, S18

  • 66. 
    Oil vapors are removed from the turbine engine by the
    • A. 

      Vent system

    • B. 

      Cooling fan

    • C. 

      Suction pump

    • D. 

      Oil jet assembly

  • 67. 
    On an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, what would prevent the fan motors from operating?
    • A. 

      Defective wind switch

    • B. 

      Shorted fuses

    • C. 

      Defective power supply rectifier

    • D. 

      CB1 stuck in ON position

  • 68. 
    What does the AC regulator of the A/M32A-60A use to determine the amount of adjustment the generator output needs?
    • A. 

      AC ammeter

    • B. 

      AC voltmeter

    • C. 

      Generator output current

    • D. 

      Generator output voltage

  • 69. 
    To charge the batteries of the A/M32A-60A generator set, the operator must
    • A. 

      Reset the DC system

    • B. 

      Reset the AC system

    • C. 

      Connect an external source

    • D. 

      Turn on the battery charger

  • 70. 
    The DC voltmeter of the A/M32A-60A starts indicating as soon as the 
    • A. 

      DC system is reset

    • B. 

      AC system is reset

    • C. 

      DC contactor is closed

    • D. 

      AC contactor is closed

  • 71. 
    How often are service inspections required?
    • A. 

      After equipment is placed on the ready line

    • B. 

      After maintenance

    • C. 

      Once a week

    • D. 

      Once a day

  • 72. 
    In the A/M32A-60A generator set, if combustion does not occur within 15 seconds after placing the start switch in the ON position, the operator must
    • A. 

      Stop the unit

    • B. 

      Prime the oil pump

    • C. 

      Disconnect the load

    • D. 

      Prime the fuel pump

  • 73. 
    After the A/M32A-60A generator set has reached 95 percent of the governed speed, the operator should
    • A. 

      Reset the AC system

    • B. 

      Connect the power cables

    • C. 

      Adjust the governed speed

    • D. 

      Connect the bleed air duct

  • 74. 
    How long can you operate the starter on the A/M32A-86D before letting it cool?
    • A. 

      60 seconds

    • B. 

      30 seconds

    • C. 

      20 seconds

    • D. 

      10 seconds

  • 75. 
    Which step of the troubleshooting is considered the most difficult one?
    • A. 

      Recognition and verification

    • B. 

      Isolation and elimination

    • C. 

      Repair and check

    • D. 

      Analysis

  • 76. 
    The service inspection is
    • A. 

      A thorough analysis of the unit

    • B. 

      An equipment condition check

    • C. 

      A weekly requirement

    • D. 

      A daily requirement

  • 77. 
    What is the purpose of the protective circuits of the A/M32A-86D?
    • A. 

      Protects the generator electrical system against damage which could result from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, over/under frequency

    • B. 

      Protects the aircraft electrical system against damage which could result from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, over/under frequency

    • C. 

      Sense fault conditions, stopping the engine

    • D. 

      Senses fault conditions, stopping the generator

  • 78. 
    What component of the A/M32A-86D energizes to send power to the fuel gauge during operation? 
    • A. 

      Hourmeter, M4

    • B. 

      Oil pressure switch, S46

    • C. 

      Oil pressure switch, S53

    • D. 

      Fuel oil pressure switch, S48

  • 79. 
    To find out where a wire is connected, you should consult the 
    • A. 

      Flow chart

    • B. 

      Wiring diagram

    • C. 

      Schematic diagram

    • D. 

      Reference designation list

  • 80. 
    In order for the A/M32A-86D to host a transformer rectifier, it must have?
    • A. 

      JHAR100B model voltage regulator

    • B. 

      JHAR100C model voltage regulator

    • C. 

      K7 contactor installed

    • D. 

      Larger capacity radiator

  • 81. 
    What position must the alarm switch on the EPU-6/E frequency converter be placed prior to operation?
    • A. 

      On

    • B. 

      Off

    • C. 

      Activate

    • D. 

      Inactive

  • 82. 
    The maximum amperage load the transformer rectifier pack can maintain is
    • A. 

      1050 amps for 30 seconds

    • B. 

      2000 amps for 30 seconds

    • C. 

      2050 amps for 30 seconds

    • D. 

      2500 amps for 30 seconds

  • 83. 
    To test the load contactor K1, using test probes, the automatic-manual voltage control switch must be in which postion?
    • A. 

      AUTOMATIC

    • B. 

      MANUAL

    • C. 

      TEST

    • D. 

      OFF

  • 84. 
    What component on the EPU-6/E frequency converter control the timing and firing of the SCR?
    • A. 

      Analog board

    • B. 

      Control transformer

    • C. 

      SCR voltage regulator

    • D. 

      Phase sequence transformer

  • 85. 
    Before using the EPU-6/E frequency converter, you must inspect the 
    • A. 

      Air inlets for blockage

    • B. 

      Wiring for secure mounting

    • C. 

      Maintenance panels for corrosion

    • D. 

      Interior air vents for secure mounting