CDC 2A652 Age (Vol 3)
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URE's for CDC Vol 3 for Aerospace Ground Equipment
- 1.Which component is one of the major causes of failure in the DC motor?
- A.
Commutator
- B.
Slip rings
- C.
Bearings
- D.
Rotor
- 2.During operation of the EPU-6/E frequency converter the operator determine that one phase voltage is lower than the other two phases. What could cause this malfunction?
- A.
Malfunctioning transistor
- B.
Improper SCR firing adjustment
- C.
Burnt control transformer fuse
- D.
Loose push-on connector on the output filter capacitor
- 3.Which induction motor has the highest starting torque?
- A.
Capacitive-start
- B.
Squirrel cage
- C.
Shaded pole
- D.
Split-phase
- 4.When you check the concentricity of a commutator of slip rings, look for
- A.
Wear
- B.
Pitting
- C.
Roundness
- D.
Overheating
- 5.One advantage of the three-phase induction motor over a comparable single-phase unit is
- A.
Lower voltage requirement
- B.
High starting torque
- C.
A higher speed
- D.
Less weight
- 6.After shutdown a motor continues turning; this is known as
- A.
Inertia
- B.
Impedance
- C.
Inductance
- D.
Eddy currents
- 7.In a series-wound DC motor, speed is controlled by the
- A.
Load
- B.
Torque
- C.
Armature
- D.
Field winding
- 8.The three-phase induction motor does not require
- A.
Slip
- B.
A rotor
- C.
A stator
- D.
A starting device
- 9.Torque is defined as
- A.
Horsepower
- B.
Wattage
- C.
Rotational force
- D.
Opposition to applied voltage
- 10.The stator windings of a synchronous motor are wound
- A.
20 degrees apart
- B.
30 degrees apart
- C.
90 degrees apart
- D.
120 degrees apart
- 11.When using a troubleshooting chart, what are you not likely to find?
- A.
Analysis
- B.
Remedies
- C.
Symptoms
- D.
Probable causes
- 12.The first thing you should do when troubleshooting a motor is a
- A.
Voltage check
- B.
Continuity test
- C.
Visual inspection
- D.
Current measurement
- 13.The component most likely to be damaged by cleaning solvent is the
- A.
Brushes
- B.
Bearings
- C.
Slip rings
- D.
Commutator
- 14.The type of injector that is operated by a rocker arm is the
- A.
Spray
- B.
Pintle
- C.
Pressure
- D.
Mechanical
- 15.When lubricant reduces friction, it also reduces
- A.
Heat
- B.
Wear
- C.
Resistance
- D.
All of the above
- 16.Which function does a lubricant perform by constantly circulating past the air that surrounds the oil sump?
- A.
Cooling
- B.
Sealing
- C.
Cleaning
- D.
Reducing friction
- 17.What component holds a large amount of coolant in close contact with a large volume of air?
- A.
Radiator cap
- B.
Thermostat
- C.
Water pump
- D.
Radiator
- 18.The purpose of the cooling system thermostat is to maintain correct engine
- A.
Operating temperature
- B.
Coolant temperature
- C.
System pressure
- D.
Coolant flow
- 19.What is installed on a two-stroke diesel engine to ensure displacement of all exhaust gases?
- A.
Blower
- B.
Intake valve
- C.
Exhaust valve
- D.
Turbulence chamber
- 20.The maintenance procedure that is considered to be the cheapest and most effective means of reducing injection equipment problems and maintenance costs is
- A.
Correct defective components only
- B.
Rigid maintenance schedules
- C.
Periodic overhaul schedule
- D.
Preventive maintenance
- 21.The filtration step protects the diesel engine fuel system from
- A.
Blockage of airflow
- B.
Lube system malfunctions
- C.
Slipping belts on the blower
- D.
Abrasion by foreign particles
- 22.
- A.
Avoid operating the engine for extended periods at no-load
- B.
Operate the unit at idle speed for long periods of time
- C.
Drain moisture from fuel system periodically
- D.
Perform a preoperational check
- 23.When performing a compression test the allowable deviation between cylinders is
- A.
25 psi
- B.
50 psi
- C.
75 psi
- D.
100 psi
- 24.During starting, the turbine engine is rotated up to 20 percent by the
- A.
AC generator
- B.
Starter motor
- C.
Tachometer generator
- D.
Fuel pump and control unit
- 25.In the gas turbine engine, cooling air for the transformer rectifier is provided by the
- A.
Starter motor
- B.
Cooling fan
- C.
Fuel pump and control unit
- D.
Multiple centrifugal switch assembly
- 26.During gas turbine engine operation, the air is accelerated by the
- A.
Impellers
- B.
Diffusers
- C.
Exducers
- D.
Deswirl ring
- 27.In the operation of a turbine engine, energy is extracted from the burning gases by the
- A.
Inducer
- B.
Diffuser
- C.
Turbine wheel
- D.
Torque converter
- 28.The turbine engine's constant speed is maintained by the
- A.
Governor
- B.
Fuel regulator
- C.
Acceleration limiter valve
- D.
Acceleration stabilizer solenoid
- 29.Before you load and after you unload the GTC, allow the engine to operate unloaded to
- A.
Decrease noise
- B.
Allow for flameouts
- C.
Reduce thermal stress
- D.
Allow for positioning of the service hose
- 30.During turbine engine operation, oil loss into the airflow system is prevented by the
- A.
Air-oil seals
- B.
Oil-tank baffles
- C.
Exhaust vent-line
- D.
Pressure-relief valve
- 31.The load section os the load control valve consists of
- A.
Chambers 1 and 2
- B.
Chambers 2 and 3
- C.
Chambers 3 and 4
- D.
Chambers 1 and 4
- 32.Common of frequent occurring troubles in a unit, their cause, and remedies may be found in the
- A.
Historical record
- B.
Maintenance record
- C.
Troubleshooting chart
- D.
Illustrated parts breakdown
- 33.While troubleshooting the GTC, you find no oil pressure and the oil filter is dirty. Will changing the filter correct the problem?
- A.
Yes
- B.
No, the filter bypass valve is stuck open
- C.
No, the oil pressure relief valve is stuck open
- D.
No, the scavenge pump is not providing sufficient suction
- 34.The turbine engine component that prevents fuel from accumulating in the plenum is the
- A.
Atomizer
- B.
Drain valve
- C.
Pneumatic control device
- D.
Acceleration limiter valve
- 35.When you operate a gas turbine engine, you should
- A.
Use earplugs and muffs
- B.
Never enter the plane of rotation
- C.
Stay away from the rear of the engine
- D.
All of the above
- 36.Normal acceleration characteristics of the GTC includes
- A.
A decrease in vibration after 35 perfect
- B.
Sudden rumbling noises after 35 perfect
- C.
Smooth and quiet acceleration
- D.
Burping
- 37.Lubrication system pressure in the turbine engine is regulated through a
- A.
Flow check valve
- B.
Filter bypass valve
- C.
Pressure relief valve
- D.
Temperature regulator
- 38.During preoperational inspection of a gas turbine engine, you check the intake and exhaust for
- A.
Leakage
- B.
Excess heat
- C.
Hairline cracks
- D.
Foreign objects
- 39.Which causes gray or white smoke to pour from the exhaust stack on the GTC?
- A.
Excessive engine rpm
- B.
Fuel mixing with the airflow
- C.
Oil that enters the airflow system
- D.
Excessive engine exhaust temperature
- 40.Which could cause the butterfly valve to oscillate (continually open and close)?
- A.
Load valve
- B.
Hose relief valve
- C.
Pneumatic load thermostat
- D.
Rate adjustment screw
- 41.Which three things are necessary to produce an EMP mechanically?
- A.
EMF, relative motion, and magnetic field
- B.
Magnet, lines of force, and relative motion
- C.
Magnetic field, conductor, and relative motion
- D.
CEMF, conductor, and magnetic field
- 42.The internal current produced by all generators is
- A.
AC
- B.
DC
- C.
Pulsating AC
- D.
Pulsating DC
- 43.What result is achieved by replacing the single rotating conductor of a simple DC generator with many coils of wire wound on the same shaft?
- A.
Increased output and constant AC
- B.
Increased output and constant DC
- C.
Decreased current and constant DC
- D.
Decreased current and constant AC
- 44.What part of an AC generator provides a connection between the rotating and stationary parts?
- A.
Armature
- B.
Slip rings
- C.
Commutator
- D.
Field windings
- 45.Control of the output voltage of an AC generator is accomplished by varying the
- A.
Speed of rotation
- B.
Size of armature
- C.
Amount of field current
- D.
Size of the field windings
- 46.Output phase to phase voltage on a three-phase AC generator is always
- A.
120 volts
- B.
108 volts
- C.
208 volts
- D.
240 volts
- 47.Three different loads can be supported at the same time by a
- A.
DC generator
- B.
Single-phase generator
- C.
Two-phase generator
- D.
Three-phase generator
- 48.The weak points of the self-excited AC generator are the
- A.
Brushes, slip rings, and rotor
- B.
Brushes, slip rings, and commutator
- C.
Commutator, rotor, and slip rings
- D.
Brushes, commutator, and rotor
- 49.In a brushless AC generator, what provides the field current for the main AC generator section?
- A.
PMG
- B.
Battery
- C.
Main generator
- D.
Exciter generator
- 50.How does rectification take place in a brushless AC generator?
- A.
Chemically
- B.
Magnetically
- C.
Electrically
- D.
Mechanically
- 51.The A/M24T-8 electrical test set is capable of testing
- A.
AC power supplies only
- B.
DC power supplies only
- C.
AC and DC power supplies
- D.
AGE generator sets only
- 52.What circuit on the A/M24T-8 load bank is used to check the performance of three-phase alternators?
- A.
Special checks
- B.
Impedance load
- C.
Aircraft servicing
- D.
Jet engine servicing
- 53.Before connecting a generator set to the load bank, you should
- A.
Close the DC section cooling fan doors
- B.
Make sure input power cables are energized
- C.
Make sure all on-off switches are in the OFF position
- D.
Place circuit breaker three phase shock load to ON postion
- 54.When using a load bank to test a generator, follow the procedures outlines in the
- A.
Generator TO and CDC
- B.
Load bank TO and CDC
- C.
Generator TO and load bank TO
- D.
Generator TO, load bank TO, and CDC
- 55.When load testing a generator the AC control panel contains all the necessary controls to test an AC generator with both resistive and
- A.
Impedance loads
- B.
Inductive loads
- C.
Variable loads
- D.
Reactive loads
- 56.When using an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, when should the frequency and voltage selector switch be positioned to match input power?
- A.
After applying power to the test set
- B.
Before applying power to the test set
- C.
After the ABC indicator is illuminated
- D.
After the 28 VDC control signal indicator illuminates
- 57.What maximum AC resistive load can the portable load bank supply to a generator?
- A.
65 kilowatts
- B.
70 kilowatts
- C.
75 kilowatts
- D.
80 kilowatts
- 58.The resistive elements on the A/M24T-8 test set are best cleaned by
- A.
Steam cleaning
- B.
Scrubbing with soap and water
- C.
Blowing off with 5 psi uncontaminated air
- D.
Blowing off with 15 psi uncontaminated air
- 59.On the A/M32A-60A, which chambers of the load control valve work together to ensure the butterfly valve opens smoothly?
- A.
Chambers 1 and 2
- B.
Chambers 2 and 3
- C.
Chambers 1 and 3
- D.
Chambers 2 and 4
- 60.The oil pressure switch stops operation of the A/M32A-60A if it opens during which operating period?
- A.
From 0-35 percent
- B.
From 35-95 percent
- C.
From 95-100 percent
- D.
Anytime during operation
- 61.On the A/M32A-60A, the ignition coil is energized by the
- A.
35 percent switch
- B.
Fuel level switch
- C.
Oil pressure switch
- D.
Turbine start switch
- 62.What component of the A/M32A-60A stops the engine when the fuel supply gets low?
- A.
Fuel level relay, K4
- B.
Fuel level switch, S20
- C.
Fuel level control relay, K26
- D.
Fuel low level lockout switch, S18
- 63.An auxiliary fuel tank mounted on the rear of the A/M32A-60A generator set transfers fuel to the main tanks
- A.
Automatically
- B.
By manual control
- C.
When the tanks are empty
- D.
At regular predetermined time intervals
- 64.On the A/M32A-60A generator, the starter motor relay is deenergized when the
- A.
Start switch opens
- B.
Start switch closes
- C.
35 perfect switch opens
- D.
35 percent switch closes
- 65.What component of the A/M32A-60A must open to allow fuel to flow to the atomizer?
- A.
Fuel solenoid valve, L1
- B.
Fuel level control relay, K26
- C.
Fuel level solenoid valve, L4
- D.
Fuel low level lockout switch, S18
- 66.Oil vapors are removed from the turbine engine by the
- A.
Vent system
- B.
Cooling fan
- C.
Suction pump
- D.
Oil jet assembly
- 67.On an A/M24T-8 electrical test set, what would prevent the fan motors from operating?
- A.
Defective wind switch
- B.
Shorted fuses
- C.
Defective power supply rectifier
- D.
CB1 stuck in ON position
- 68.What does the AC regulator of the A/M32A-60A use to determine the amount of adjustment the generator output needs?
- A.
AC ammeter
- B.
AC voltmeter
- C.
Generator output current
- D.
Generator output voltage
- 69.To charge the batteries of the A/M32A-60A generator set, the operator must
- A.
Reset the DC system
- B.
Reset the AC system
- C.
Connect an external source
- D.
Turn on the battery charger
- 70.The DC voltmeter of the A/M32A-60A starts indicating as soon as the
- A.
DC system is reset
- B.
AC system is reset
- C.
DC contactor is closed
- D.
AC contactor is closed
- 71.How often are service inspections required?
- A.
After equipment is placed on the ready line
- B.
After maintenance
- C.
Once a week
- D.
Once a day
- 72.In the A/M32A-60A generator set, if combustion does not occur within 15 seconds after placing the start switch in the ON position, the operator must
- A.
Stop the unit
- B.
Prime the oil pump
- C.
Disconnect the load
- D.
Prime the fuel pump
- 73.After the A/M32A-60A generator set has reached 95 percent of the governed speed, the operator should
- A.
Reset the AC system
- B.
Connect the power cables
- C.
Adjust the governed speed
- D.
Connect the bleed air duct
- 74.How long can you operate the starter on the A/M32A-86D before letting it cool?
- A.
60 seconds
- B.
30 seconds
- C.
20 seconds
- D.
10 seconds
- 75.Which step of the troubleshooting is considered the most difficult one?
- A.
Recognition and verification
- B.
Isolation and elimination
- C.
Repair and check
- D.
Analysis
- 76.The service inspection is
- A.
A thorough analysis of the unit
- B.
An equipment condition check
- C.
A weekly requirement
- D.
A daily requirement
- 77.What is the purpose of the protective circuits of the A/M32A-86D?
- A.
Protects the generator electrical system against damage which could result from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, over/under frequency
- B.
Protects the aircraft electrical system against damage which could result from an overload, overvoltage, undervoltage, over/under frequency
- C.
Sense fault conditions, stopping the engine
- D.
Senses fault conditions, stopping the generator
- 78.What component of the A/M32A-86D energizes to send power to the fuel gauge during operation?
- A.
Hourmeter, M4
- B.
Oil pressure switch, S46
- C.
Oil pressure switch, S53
- D.
Fuel oil pressure switch, S48
- 79.To find out where a wire is connected, you should consult the
- A.
Flow chart
- B.
Wiring diagram
- C.
Schematic diagram
- D.
Reference designation list
- 80.In order for the A/M32A-86D to host a transformer rectifier, it must have?
- A.
JHAR100B model voltage regulator
- B.
JHAR100C model voltage regulator
- C.
K7 contactor installed
- D.
Larger capacity radiator
- 81.What position must the alarm switch on the EPU-6/E frequency converter be placed prior to operation?
- A.
On
- B.
Off
- C.
Activate
- D.
Inactive
- 82.The maximum amperage load the transformer rectifier pack can maintain is
- A.
1050 amps for 30 seconds
- B.
2000 amps for 30 seconds
- C.
2050 amps for 30 seconds
- D.
2500 amps for 30 seconds
- 83.To test the load contactor K1, using test probes, the automatic-manual voltage control switch must be in which postion?
- A.
AUTOMATIC
- B.
MANUAL
- C.
TEST
- D.
OFF
- 84.What component on the EPU-6/E frequency converter control the timing and firing of the SCR?
- A.
Analog board
- B.
Control transformer
- C.
SCR voltage regulator
- D.
Phase sequence transformer
- 85.Before using the EPU-6/E frequency converter, you must inspect the
- A.
Air inlets for blockage
- B.
Wiring for secure mounting
- C.
Maintenance panels for corrosion
- D.
Interior air vents for secure mounting
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