CCNA Certification Practice #2
As we continue on the search for a way to ace the upcoming exams there is a series of tests designed to put you on the right track. The practice quiz below is the second of many to help you reach your target grade. Give it a shot and keep an eye out for the third quiz.
- 1.
Refer to the exhibit. The exhibit shows simplified protocol data units from different OSI model layers. Which three statements are true about the PDUs and the encapsulation process? (Choose three.)
- A.
PDU #1 is a frame.
- B.
PDU #2 is an application layer PDU
- C.
PDU #3 is a segment.
- D.
PDU #4 is a transport layer PDU.
- E.
The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.
Correct Answer(s)
A. PDU #1 is a frame.
C. PDU #3 is a segment.
E. The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2.Explanation
The exhibit shows the simplified protocol data units (PDUs) from different OSI model layers. PDU #1 is a frame because frames are created at the data link layer. PDU #3 is a segment because segments are created at the transport layer. The order in which these PDUs are created during the encapsulation process is 3, 4, 1, 2, meaning that segments are created first, followed by transport layer PDUs, then data link layer PDUs, and finally application layer PDUs.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Which three application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
- A.
SMTP
- B.
FTP
- C.
SNMP
- D.
HTTP
- E.
TFTP
Correct Answer(s)
A. SMTP
B. FTP
D. HTTPExplanation
SMTP, FTP, and HTTP are all application layer protocols that use TCP. SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) is used for sending and receiving email messages. FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is used for transferring files between a client and a server. HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) is used for transmitting web pages and other resources over the internet. These protocols require a reliable and connection-oriented transport protocol like TCP to ensure that data is transmitted accurately and in the correct order.Rate this question:
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- 3.
Which two application layer protocols use the UDP protocol? (Choose two.)
- A.
Telnet
- B.
SNMP
- C.
SMTP
- D.
SQL
- E.
TFTP
Correct Answer(s)
B. SNMP
E. TFTPExplanation
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) and TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) are the two application layer protocols that use the UDP (User Datagram Protocol) protocol. SNMP is used for managing and monitoring network devices, while TFTP is a simple file transfer protocol commonly used for transferring files between network devices. UDP is a connectionless and unreliable protocol, making it suitable for these protocols where speed and efficiency are prioritized over reliability.Rate this question:
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- 4.
What are two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.)
- A.
Establishment of logical connections between source and destination hosts
- B.
End-to-end flow control
- C.
Determination of best paths through the network
- D.
Definition of the procedures used to interface with the network hardware
- E.
Packet switching
Correct Answer(s)
C. Determination of best paths through the network
E. Packet switchingExplanation
The two functions that occur at the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model are determination of best paths through the network and packet switching. The determination of best paths through the network involves finding the most efficient route for data packets to travel from the source to the destination host. Packet switching is the process of breaking data into smaller packets and sending them individually across the network, where they can take different paths and be reassembled at the destination. These functions are essential for the Internet layer to ensure efficient and reliable communication between hosts.Rate this question:
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- 5.
Refer to the exhibit. All ports on switch A are in the sales VLAN and all ports on switch B are in the accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains exist in the exhibited network? (Choose two.)
- A.
3 collision domains
- B.
3 broadcast domains
- C.
5 broadcast domains
- D.
9 collision domains
- E.
10 collision domains
Correct Answer(s)
B. 3 broadcast domains
D. 9 collision domainsExplanation
In the exhibited network, there are two switches, A and B. Switch A has all its ports in the sales VLAN, while switch B has all its ports in the accounting VLAN. Since each VLAN is a separate broadcast domain, there are two broadcast domains in total.
To determine the number of collision domains, we need to consider the number of ports on each switch. Switch A has all its ports in the sales VLAN, so all these ports are in the same collision domain. Switch B also has all its ports in the accounting VLAN, so these ports are in the same collision domain as well. Therefore, there are two collision domains in total.
Additionally, each switch itself is a collision domain, so we need to consider the number of switches as well. Since there are two switches, there are a total of four collision domains.
Therefore, the correct answer is 3 broadcast domains and 9 collision domains.Rate this question:
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- 6.
A high-end Catalyst switch that supports both ISL and 802.1Q is to be connected by a link that will carry all VLAN traffic to a Catalyst 2960 LAN switch. What two commands are required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the Catalyst 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
- A.
Switch(config-if)# vlan all
- B.
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 30
- C.
Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan all
- D.
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
- E.
Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
Correct Answer(s)
D. Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
E. Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1qExplanation
The two commands required to configure an interface on the high-end Catalyst switch to carry traffic from all VLANs to the Catalyst 2960 switch are "Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk" and "Switch(config-if)# switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q". The first command sets the interface to trunk mode, allowing it to carry traffic from multiple VLANs. The second command specifies the encapsulation method as dot1q, which is the standard for VLAN tagging. These two commands together enable the interface to carry traffic from all VLANs to the connected Catalyst 2960 switch.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the exhibited configuration and output, what would be the result of this command: Sw1# telnet 192.168.1.10
- A.
All packets will be dropped.
- B.
The Telnet session will succeed.
- C.
An error message that says “Session terminated” will appear.
- D.
An error message that says “Password required, but none set” will appear.
Correct Answer
A. All packets will be dropped.Explanation
The exhibited configuration and output show that the command "telnet 192.168.1.10" is being executed on Sw1. Since there is no Telnet server configured on the IP address 192.168.1.10, all packets sent to that IP address will be dropped. Therefore, the result of this command would be "All packets will be dropped."Rate this question:
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- 8.
Refer to the partial device configuration that is exhibited. For which network topology is the configuration appropriate? RtrA(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0 RtrA(config-if)# no shutdown RtrA(config-if)# interface fastethernet 0/0.18 RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 18 RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.18.1 255.255.255.0 RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.44 RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 44 RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.44.1 255.255.255.0 RtrA(config-subif)# interface fastethernet 0/0.22 RtrA(config-subif)# encapsulation dot1q 22 RtrA(config-subif)# ip address 10.1.22.1 255.255.255.0 a: B: c: D:
- A.
Image A
- B.
Image B
- C.
Image C
- D.
Image D
Correct Answer
D. Image DExplanation
The given configuration is appropriate for a router that is connected to multiple VLANs using subinterfaces. Each subinterface is configured with a different VLAN ID and IP address, allowing the router to communicate with devices in each VLAN. This configuration is commonly used in a router-on-a-stick topology, where a single physical interface is used to connect to a switch with multiple VLANs. The router uses subinterfaces to separate the traffic from each VLAN. Therefore, the appropriate network topology for this configuration is Image D, which represents a router-on-a-stick topology.Rate this question:
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- 9.
Refer to the exhibit and the following error message from the SwA switch. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-RECV_1Q_NON_TRUNK: Received 802.1Q BPDU on non trunk FastEthernet0/1 VLAN1. 00:22:43: %SPANTREE-7-BLOCK_PORT_TYPE: Blocking FastEthernet0/1 on VLAN0001. Inconsistent port type. Considering that the link between the two switches is good and the correct type, what could cause this error message?
- A.
The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on one switch.
- B.
The Spanning Tree Protocol has been disabled on both switches.
- C.
The IEEE 802.1Q trunking port has a speed mismatch on one of the switches.
- D.
The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.
- E.
The SwA port has IEEE 802.1Q trunking enabled and the SwB port has ISL trunking enabled.
Correct Answer
D. The SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port.Explanation
The error message indicates that the SwA port is configured as a trunk port and the SwB port is configured as an access port. This inconsistency in port configuration causes the Spanning Tree Protocol to block the FastEthernet0/1 port on VLAN0001, resulting in the error message.Rate this question:
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- 10.
A network administrator is configuring a switch when an error message appears. The configuration commands and error message appear as follows: Switch(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk Command rejected: An interface whose trunk encapsulation is "Auto" can not be configured to "trunk" mode. What is the problem?
- A.
The switch port is configured as an access mode port.
- B.
The switch port does not support trunking on this port.
- C.
The encapsulation type must be changed to a compatible protocol before the port can be placed in trunk mode.
- D.
The no switchport trunk encapsulation auto command needs to be applied to the switch port before trunking can be enabled.
Correct Answer
C. The encapsulation type must be changed to a compatible protocol before the port can be placed in trunk mode.Explanation
The error message indicates that the interface's trunk encapsulation is set to "Auto", which is not compatible with the "trunk" mode configuration. To resolve the issue, the encapsulation type must be changed to a compatible protocol before enabling trunk mode.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Of the protocols that are listed, which one needs to be functioning on a link in order for VTP to operate?
- A.
802.1Q
- B.
CDP
- C.
RIP
- D.
RSTP
Correct Answer
A. 802.1QExplanation
VTP (VLAN Trunking Protocol) is a Cisco proprietary protocol that allows for the synchronization of VLAN information across multiple switches in a network. In order for VTP to operate properly, the 802.1Q protocol needs to be functioning on the link. 802.1Q is an IEEE standard for VLAN tagging, which allows for the identification of VLAN membership on Ethernet networks. Without 802.1Q functioning on the link, VTP would not be able to properly communicate and synchronize VLAN information between switches.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Refer to the exhibit. RT_1 is configured correctly with IP addresses and passwords but none of the computers can ping or telnet to RT_1. Which series of commands would correct the problem?
- A.
RT_1(config)# interface fa0/1 RT_1(config-if)# no shutdown
- B.
SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode client
- C.
RT_1(config)# interface fa0/1 RT_1(config-if)# encapsulation trunk dot1q 24
- D.
SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
- E.
SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1
Correct Answer
D. SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunkExplanation
The correct answer is SW_1(config)# interface fa0/24 SW_1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk. This command configures the interface fa0/24 on SW_1 to operate in trunk mode, allowing it to carry traffic for multiple VLANs. This is necessary because RT_1 is configured with a trunk encapsulation on its fa0/1 interface. By configuring SW_1's interface to also operate in trunk mode, it will be able to properly communicate with RT_1 and allow the computers to ping or telnet to RT_1.Rate this question:
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- 13.
Refer to the exhibit. Which commands are needed to complete the switch configuration so that SSH can be used to telnet from host A to SW_1? (Choose two.)
- A.
SW_1(config)# username david password class
- B.
SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15 SW_1(config-line)# login SW_1(config-line)# password cisco
- C.
SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15 SW_1(config-line)# login local SW_1(config-line)# transport input ssh
- D.
SW_1(config)# login ssh SW_1(config)# password class
- E.
SW_1(config)# login key rsa SW_1(config)# password cisco
Correct Answer(s)
A. SW_1(config)# username david password class
C. SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15 SW_1(config-line)# login local SW_1(config-line)# transport input sshExplanation
The first command "SW_1(config)# username david password class" is needed to create a username and password for authentication. The second set of commands "SW_1(config)# line vty 0 15, SW_1(config-line)# login local, SW_1(config-line)# transport input ssh" is needed to configure the virtual terminal lines to allow local login and to specify that SSH is the only allowed method of transport.Rate this question:
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- 14.
What three factors contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN? (Choose three.)
- A.
Improper placement of enterprise level servers
- B.
Addition of hosts to a physical segment
- C.
Replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
- D.
Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
- E.
Migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN
Correct Answer(s)
A. Improper placement of enterprise level servers
B. Addition of hosts to a physical segment
D. Increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applicationsExplanation
The three factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN are improper placement of enterprise level servers, addition of hosts to a physical segment, and increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications. Improper placement of servers can lead to congestion as it may cause bottlenecks and uneven distribution of network traffic. Adding more hosts to a physical segment can also lead to congestion as it increases the amount of traffic on the network. Additionally, the increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications can consume a significant amount of network resources and contribute to congestion.Rate this question:
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- 15.
Refer to the exhibit. What protocol should be configured on SW-A Port 0/1 if it is to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B?
- A.
Spanning Tree
- B.
RIP v2
- C.
IEEE 802.1Q
- D.
ARP
- E.
Rapid Spanning Tree
Correct Answer
C. IEEE 802.1QExplanation
The correct answer is IEEE 802.1Q. This is because IEEE 802.1Q is the protocol used for VLAN tagging and allows for the transmission of traffic from multiple VLANs over a single trunk link. By configuring IEEE 802.1Q on SW-A Port 0/1, it will be able to send traffic from multiple VLANs to switch SW-B.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
- A.
Listening
- B.
Learning
- C.
Blocking
- D.
Disabled
- E.
Forwarding
Correct Answer(s)
A. Listening
C. Blocking
D. DisabledExplanation
The RSTP (Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol) replaced the STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) states of listening, blocking, and disabled with its own discarding state. The listening state is when a switch receives BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) and prepares to move to the learning state. The blocking state is when a switch discards all received frames except for BPDUs. The disabled state is when a switch is administratively disabled and does not participate in the spanning tree process.Rate this question:
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- 17.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?
- A.
Designated switch
- B.
Edge switch
- C.
Root bridge
- D.
Enabled bridge
- E.
Local bridge
Correct Answer
C. Root bridgeExplanation
The role of the SW3 switch is to act as the root bridge in the network. The root bridge is responsible for initiating the spanning tree algorithm and determining the shortest path for data transmission in a network. It is the central point that all other switches in the network connect to, and it helps prevent loops and ensure efficient communication between devices.Rate this question:
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- 18.
Refer to the exhibit. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which group of labels reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
- A.
1) fast forward 2) fragment free 3) store-and-forward
- B.
1) store-and-forward 2) fragment free 3) fast forward
- C.
1) fragment free 2) fast forward 3) store-and-forward
- D.
1) fast forward 2) store-and-forward 3) fragment free
Correct Answer
A. 1) fast forward 2) fragment free 3) store-and-forwardExplanation
The correct sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows in the exhibit is 1) fast forward, 2) fragment free, and 3) store-and-forward. This means that the switch will begin forwarding the frame as soon as it has received enough of it to make a forwarding decision in the fast forward mode. In the fragment free mode, the switch will wait until it has received the first 64 bytes of the frame before forwarding it. Finally, in the store-and-forward mode, the switch will wait until it has received the entire frame before forwarding it.Rate this question:
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- 19.
What eliminates switching loops?
- A.
Hold-down timers
- B.
Poison reverse
- C.
Spanning tree protocol
- D.
Time to live
- E.
VTP
Correct Answer
C. Spanning tree protocolExplanation
The spanning tree protocol is designed to eliminate switching loops in a network. It does this by creating a loop-free topology by blocking redundant paths. It selects a root bridge and then determines the best path from each switch to the root bridge. Any redundant paths are blocked, preventing loops from occurring. This ensures that data packets can be efficiently and reliably transmitted without getting stuck in endless loops.Rate this question:
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- 20.
For reference only.... Choose A for Correct Answer...
- A.
Chose me...
- B.
Don't Choose me...
- C.
Are you Crazy
- D.
Seriously...
Correct Answer
A. Chose me...Explanation
The correct answer is "Chose me..." because it is the only option that is grammatically correct. The other options contain spelling errors or incorrect punctuation.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Refer to the exhibit. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
- A.
192.168.16.63/27
- B.
192.168.16.158/27
- C.
192.168.16.192/27
- D.
92.168.16.113/30
- E.
192.168.16.193/30
Correct Answer
E. 192.168.16.193/30 -
- 22.
Consider this router output: Router# confug Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255) Translating "confug"...domain server (255.255.255.255) (255.255.255.255)% Unknown command or computer name, or unable to find computer address What command could help with this situation?
- A.
Ip dhcp server
- B.
No ip domain-lookup
- C.
No logging synchronous
- D.
No show ip nat translations
Correct Answer
B. No ip domain-lookupExplanation
The command "no ip domain-lookup" could help with this situation. This command disables the router's attempt to translate unrecognized commands as domain names, preventing the router from trying to translate "confug" as a domain name and instead treating it as an unrecognized command.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Refer to the exhibit. With VLSM, which bit mask should be used to most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses that are required on router B?
- A.
/26
- B.
/27
- C.
/28
- D.
/29
- E.
/30
Correct Answer
C. /28Explanation
To most efficiently provide for the number of host addresses required on router B, a /28 bit mask should be used. A /28 bit mask provides 16 host addresses, which is the closest number of host addresses required to the actual requirement. The other options (/26, /27, /29, /30) would either provide more host addresses than needed or not enough host addresses.Rate this question:
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- 24.
What are the three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use? (Choose three.)
- A.
10.0.0.0/8
- B.
64.100.0.0/14
- C.
172.16.0.0/12
- D.
192.31.7.0/24
- E.
192.168.0.0/16
Correct Answer(s)
A. 10.0.0.0/8
C. 172.16.0.0/12
E. 192.168.0.0/16Explanation
The three ranges of IP addresses that are reserved for internal private use are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12, and 192.168.0.0/16. These IP address ranges are designated for use in private networks and are not routable on the internet. They are commonly used in home, office, and corporate networks for internal communication and network management purposes.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server attached to the Memphis router. What are two causes of this problem? (Choose two.)
- A.
The default gateway configured on the network administrator's workstation is not a valid host address.
- B.
The default gateway configured on the TFTP server in incorrect.
- C.
The IP address of the TFTP server is a subnetwork address.
- D.
The IP address of the S0/0/0 interface of the Heliopolis router is a broadcast address.
- E.
The IP addresses for the Memphis S0/0/1 interface and the Heliopolis S0/0/0 interface are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer(s)
B. The default gateway configured on the TFTP server in incorrect.
E. The IP addresses for the Memphis S0/0/1 interface and the Heliopolis S0/0/0 interface are not in the same subnet.Explanation
The network administrator is unable to access the TFTP server because the default gateway configured on the TFTP server is incorrect. This means that the TFTP server does not know the correct path to send traffic to reach the network administrator's workstation. Additionally, the IP addresses for the Memphis S0/0/1 interface and the Heliopolis S0/0/0 interface are not in the same subnet. This means that they are not directly connected and cannot communicate with each other without routing.Rate this question:
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- 26.
The ISP of the XYZ Company is moving to IPv6 but XYZ wants to continue to use only IPv4 for another year. Which IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method would allow the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses?
- A.
Dual stack
- B.
6to4 tunnel
- C.
Manual tunneling
- D.
NAT-PT
Correct Answer
D. NAT-PTExplanation
NAT-PT (Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation) is the IPv4-to-IPv6 transition method that would allow the company to continue using only IPv4 addresses. NAT-PT enables communication between IPv4 and IPv6 networks by translating IPv4 packets into IPv6 packets and vice versa. This allows the company to maintain its current IPv4 infrastructure while still being able to communicate with IPv6 networks.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
- A.
172.16.0.0
- B.
172.16.134.0
- C.
172.16.134.32
- D.
172.16.134.48
- E.
172.16.134.63
Correct Answer
C. 172.16.134.32Explanation
The given IP address 172.16.134.56 and subnet mask 255.255.255.224 indicate that it belongs to a Class B network (172.16.0.0). The subnet mask 255.255.255.224 has 27 bits set to 1, which means the network portion of the IP address is 27 bits long. The last 5 bits of the last octet of the IP address are used for host addressing. To determine the subnetwork, we need to find the network address by setting all the host bits to 0. By doing so, we get the network address 172.16.134.32, which is the correct answer.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is associated with link-state routing protocols?
- A.
Low processor overhead
- B.
Poison reverse
- C.
Routing loops
- D.
Split horizon
- E.
Shortest-path first calculations
Correct Answer
E. Shortest-path first calculationsExplanation
Link-state routing protocols are associated with shortest-path first calculations. These protocols, such as OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System), use a link-state database to store information about the network topology. Each router in the network maintains a map of the entire network, including the state of each link. By analyzing this information, the routers can calculate the shortest path to reach a destination. This approach allows for efficient and accurate routing decisions, making it suitable for large networks with complex topologies.Rate this question:
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- 29.
Refer to the exhibit. Which sequence of commands should be used to configure router A for OSPF?
- A.
Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0
- B.
Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0
- C.
Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
- D.
Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.0 area 0
Correct Answer
B. Router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0Explanation
The correct answer is "router ospf 1 network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0 network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0" because this sequence of commands correctly configures router A for OSPF. The first command "router ospf 1" enables OSPF routing on the router with process ID 1. The second command "network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0" adds the network 192.168.10.64/26 to OSPF area 0. The third command "network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0" adds the network 192.168.10.192/30 to OSPF area 0. These commands ensure that the correct networks are included in OSPF and assigned to the correct area.Rate this question:
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- 30.
What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?
- A.
To activate the OSPF neighboring process
- B.
To influence the DR/BDR election process
- C.
To provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
- D.
To streamline and speed up the convergence process
Correct Answer
B. To influence the DR/BDR election processExplanation
The ip ospf priority command is used to influence the DR/BDR (Designated Router/Backup Designated Router) election process in OSPF. The DR and BDR are responsible for maintaining neighbor relationships and exchanging routing information within a multi-access network. By setting a higher priority value using the ip ospf priority command, a router can increase its chances of being elected as the DR or BDR. This allows the router to have a more central role in the network and have more control over the OSPF routing process.Rate this question:
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- 31.
The output of the show ip interface brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
- A.
The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
- B.
An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
- C.
A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
- D.
The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
- E.
Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.
Correct Answer(s)
D. The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
E. Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.Explanation
Two possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state are: the encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect and keepalives are not being sent by the remote device.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Which router command will verify that the router has a path to a destination network?
- A.
Router# show ip interfaces brief
- B.
Router# show ip route
- C.
Router# show cdp neighbors
- D.
Router# show running-config
- E.
Router# show protocols
Correct Answer
B. Router# show ip routeExplanation
The correct answer is "Router# show ip route". This command will display the routing table of the router, which contains information about the available paths to different destination networks. By checking the routing table, the router can verify if it has a path to a specific destination network. The other commands listed do not provide information specifically related to the router's routing table.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Refer to the exhibit. When troubleshooting a network, it is important to interpret the output of various router commands. On the basis of the exhibit, which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
- A.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
- B.
The missing information for Blank 1 is the command debug ip route.
- C.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 100.
- D.
The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
- E.
The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.
Correct Answer(s)
A. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command show ip route.
D. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120.
E. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C.Explanation
The exhibit shows a partial output of a router command. The missing information for Blank 1 is the command "show ip route", which is a commonly used command to display the routing table of a router. The missing information for Blank 2 is the number 120, which represents the administrative distance of the route. The missing information for Blank 3 is the letter C, which indicates that the route is directly connected.Rate this question:
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- 34.
Refer to the exhibit. From the command prompt on the host, the command telnet 192.168.1.10 is typed. The response that is given is this: Trying 192.168.1.10….Open Password required, but none set What is the most likely problem?
- A.
The router has been configured as a firewall.
- B.
The Telnet server process must be activated on the router.
- C.
The switch has not been configured to pass Telnet traffic.
- D.
The enable secret command has not been entered on RtrA.
- E.
The password command has not been entered in line configuration mode on RtrA.
Correct Answer
E. The password command has not been entered in line configuration mode on RtrA.Explanation
The most likely problem is that the password command has not been entered in line configuration mode on RtrA. This is indicated by the response "Password required, but none set" when trying to establish a telnet connection to the IP address 192.168.1.10. Without a password set, the telnet connection cannot be established.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Refer to the exhibit. If router B is to be configured for EIGRP AS 100, which configuration must be entered?
- A.
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3
- B.
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63
- C.
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 area 0 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 area 0
- D.
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 as 100 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 as 100 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 as 100
- E.
B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 as 100 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 as 100 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 as 100 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63 as 100 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.63 as 100
Correct Answer
B. B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.4 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)# network 192.168.10.8 0.0.0.3 B(config-router)#network 192.168.10.128 0.0.0.63Explanation
The correct configuration for router B to be configured for EIGRP AS 100 is to enter the network commands for the IP addresses 192.168.10.4, 192.168.10.8, and 192.168.10.128 with their corresponding subnet masks of 0.0.0.3, 0.0.0.3, and 0.0.0.63 respectively. This will enable router B to advertise these networks and participate in EIGRP AS 100.Rate this question:
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- 36.
After several configuration changes are made to a router, the copy running-configuration startup-configuration command is issued. Where will the changes be stored?
- A.
Flash
- B.
ROM
- C.
NVRAM
- D.
RAM
- E.
A TFTP server
Correct Answer
C. NVRAMExplanation
The changes made to the router's configuration will be stored in NVRAM (Non-Volatile Random Access Memory). NVRAM is a type of memory that retains its data even when the power is turned off, making it an ideal location to store important configuration settings. Flash memory is used to store the router's operating system and other files, ROM (Read-Only Memory) contains firmware and cannot be modified, RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile and does not retain data after power loss, and a TFTP server is a network device used for file transfers and not for storing router configurations.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Refer to the exhibit. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
- A.
EIGRP does not support VLSM.
- B.
The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
- C.
The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
- D.
An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.
Correct Answer
D. An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.Explanation
The problem could be that an incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface. This would prevent packets from being forwarded between the two routers because they would not have a valid IP address to communicate with each other.Rate this question:
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- 38.
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
- A.
Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
- B.
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
- C.
Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
- D.
The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
- E.
Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
Correct Answer(s)
B. Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
C. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.Explanation
Link-state routing protocols have two main features. First, routers send triggered updates in response to a change. This means that when a router detects a change in the network, such as a link going down or a new link being added, it immediately sends an update to all other routers to inform them of the change. Second, routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers. Each router collects information about the network and its neighbors, and then uses this information to build a map of the entire network topology. This allows routers to make informed routing decisions based on the current state of the network.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which router command is used to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two.)
- A.
Ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
- B.
Ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
- C.
Summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
- D.
Ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
- E.
Serial interface on router A
Correct Answer(s)
A. Ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
E. Serial interface on router AExplanation
The command "ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192" is used to summarize the attached routes. This command is applied to the serial interface on router A.Rate this question:
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- 40.
A router has learned about network 192.168.168.0 through static and dynamic routing processes. Which route will appear in the routing table for this network if the router has learned multiple routes?
- A.
D 192.168.168.0/24 [90/2195456] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:09, FastEthernet0/0
- B.
O 192.168.168.0/24 [110/1012] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:22, FastEthernet0/0
- C.
R 192.168.168.0/24 [120/1] via 192.168.200.1, 00:00:17, FastEthernet0/0
- D.
S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1
Correct Answer
D. S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1Explanation
The route that will appear in the routing table for network 192.168.168.0 is "S 192.168.168.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.200.1". This is because the "S" indicates that the route was learned through a static routing process. The other routes were learned through dynamic routing processes (D, O, and R), which have higher administrative distances (90, 110, and 120 respectively) compared to the static route (1). Therefore, the static route with the lowest administrative distance will be chosen and appear in the routing table.Rate this question:
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- 41.
Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
- A.
Router1(config)# interface loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
- B.
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0 Router1(config-if)# loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
- C.
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0 Router1(config-if)# loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
- D.
Router1(config)# interface loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255
Correct Answer
D. Router1(config)# interface loopback 1 Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255Explanation
The correct answer is Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255. This is the correct sequence of commands to configure a loopback address on a router. The "interface loopback 1" command is used to enter the loopback interface configuration mode, and the "ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255" command is used to assign the IP address and subnet mask to the loopback interface. The subnet mask 255.255.255.255 is used to create a loopback address with a /32 prefix, which means it has a single host address.Rate this question:
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- 42.
For Reference only... Choose A..
- A.
I'm it...
- B.
I'm not..
- C.
I'm not either...
- D.
You know the drill... Drill it..
Correct Answer
A. I'm it...Explanation
The given answer "I'm it" is the correct choice because it is the only option that is grammatically correct and makes sense in the given context. The phrase "I'm it" implies that the speaker is the one who is "it" in a game or activity, suggesting that they are the one who needs to perform a certain task or take on a specific role. The other options do not convey the same meaning and do not fit the context provided.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Which encryption standard would most likely be used in an 802.11 standards-based wireless network environment?
- A.
ACDP, which has more bits that are used for encryption than CDP has
- B.
WPA2, which can use the more advanced AES for encryption
- C.
VTP, which is compatible with all 802.11-type wireless networks
- D.
RSA, which has a different algorithm than any of the older standards
- E.
802.1X EAP, which is the most powerful type of encryption used for both wired and wireless networks
Correct Answer
B. WPA2, which can use the more advanced AES for encryptionExplanation
WPA2 is the most likely encryption standard used in an 802.11 standards-based wireless network environment because it can utilize the more advanced AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) for encryption. AES is widely considered to be highly secure and is used by many organizations and industries for encryption purposes. Therefore, WPA2 with AES encryption would provide a strong level of security for wireless network communications.Rate this question:
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- 44.
for Reference only.. Guess which one is correct....
- A.
Me
- B.
Me
- C.
Me
- D.
Or Me
Correct Answer
A. MeExplanation
The correct answer is "Me" because all the options given are the same and there is no distinction between them.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Reference Only... yes guess again... Follow the pattern...
- A.
Me
- B.
Me
- C.
Me
- D.
Or me
Correct Answer
A. MeExplanation
The given pattern is alternating between "Me" and "me". The first line starts with a capital "M" and the second line starts with a lowercase "m". This pattern continues throughout the sequence. Therefore, the next line in the pattern would start with a capital "M". Hence, the correct answer is "Me".Rate this question:
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- 46.
Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
- A.
Show ip route
- B.
Show processes
- C.
Show running-config
- D.
Show cdp neighbor
- E.
Show access-lists
Correct Answer(s)
C. Show running-config
E. Show access-listsExplanation
The two commands that can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists are "show running-config" and "show access-lists". The "show running-config" command displays the currently running configuration of the device, including any access control lists that have been configured. The "show access-lists" command specifically displays the configured access control lists on the device, allowing for verification of their content and placement.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)
- A.
Most
- B.
Host
- C.
All
- D.
Any
- E.
Some
Correct Answer(s)
B. Host
D. AnyExplanation
The keywords "host" and "any" can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair. The "host" keyword is used to specify a single host IP address, while the "any" keyword is used to match any IP address. These keywords provide flexibility in defining access control rules by allowing specific host addresses or any address to be included in the access control list.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Refer to the exhibit. NAT with overload is configured on router R1 and uses the NAT pool of addresses 209.165.201.9 through 209.165.201.10. What type of route would the ISP need in order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet?
- A.
Because the ISP has knowledge of the directly connected 200.0.0.1 network, no route is needed.
- B.
A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 172.16.0.0 and the mask 255.255.0.0.
- C.
A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/0 or the 200.0.0.1 IP address.
- D.
A default route from the ISP is needed that uses either the exit interface of S0/0/1 or the 200.0.0.2 IP address.
- E.
A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 209.165.201.8 and the mask 255.255.255.252.
Correct Answer
E. A static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 209.165.201.8 and the mask 255.255.255.252.Explanation
The correct answer is a static route from the ISP is needed that uses the network number 209.165.201.8 and the mask 255.255.255.252. This is because the NAT pool of addresses on router R1 is within the 209.165.201.8/30 network range. In order for communication to occur between hosts in Company ABC and the Internet, the ISP needs to have a static route that directs traffic for that network range to the router R1.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)
- A.
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
- B.
The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
- C.
The first 32 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
- D.
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.
- E.
The last five bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
Correct Answer(s)
B. The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
D. The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.Explanation
The access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15 will ignore the last four bits of a supplied IP address. This means that when matching an IP address against the ACL, only the first 28 bits of the supplied IP address will be considered. Therefore, any IP address that has the same first 28 bits as the ACL will be matched.Rate this question:
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- 50.
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list statement? (Choose three.)
- A.
Access list number between 1 and 99
- B.
Access list number between 100 and 199
- C.
Default gateway address and wildcard mask
- D.
Destination address and wildcard mask
- E.
Source address and wildcard mask
Correct Answer(s)
B. Access list number between 100 and 199
D. Destination address and wildcard mask
E. Source address and wildcard maskExplanation
When creating an extended access control list statement, three values or sets of values that are included are: access list number between 100 and 199, destination address and wildcard mask, and source address and wildcard mask. These values are necessary to define the specific criteria for filtering and controlling traffic flow in a network. The access list number helps identify the access control list, while the destination and source addresses, along with their corresponding wildcard masks, specify the specific source and destination IP addresses that the access control list will apply to.Rate this question:
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