CCNA 3 Final 2nov 2010
Full-ccna
- 1.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator documented the output of a CAM table from an Ethernet switch as shown. What action will the switch take when it receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit?
- A.
Discard the frame
- B.
Forward the frame out port 2
- C.
Forward the frame out port 3
- D.
Forward the frame out all ports
- E.
Forward the frame out all ports except port 3
- F.
Add station 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 to port 2 in the forwarding table
Correct Answer
E. Forward the frame out all ports except port 3Explanation
Based on the CAM table provided, the switch has learned the MAC address 00-00-3D-1F-11-05 and associated it with port 2. When the switch receives the frame shown at the bottom of the exhibit, it will forward the frame out all ports except port 3. This means that the frame will be sent to all connected devices except the one connected to port 3.Rate this question:
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- 2.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator issues the commands as shown on SwitchB. What is the result for port Fa0/22?
- A.
The port is disabled.
- B.
Security is enabled on the port.
- C.
The port becomes a trunk port.
- D.
The port is now a member of the default VLAN.
Correct Answer
D. The port is now a member of the default VLAN.Explanation
The commands "switchport mode access" and "switchport access vlan 1" configure the port as an access port and assign it to VLAN 1. Therefore, the result for port Fa0/22 is that it becomes a member of the default VLAN (VLAN 1).Rate this question:
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- 3.
What is one reason that SSID cloaking is not considered an effective security measure for a wireless network?
- A.
The SSID is not required to connect to a wireless network
- B.
The SSID is broadcast in probe messages from clients that are looking for the AP.
- C.
The SSID is the same as the AP MAC address, which is sent in every message.
- D.
An attacker can spoof the SSID simply by using an SSID of NULL in all messages.
Correct Answer
D. An attacker can spoof the SSID simply by using an SSID of NULL in all messages.Explanation
SSID cloaking is not considered an effective security measure for a wireless network because an attacker can easily spoof the SSID by using an SSID of NULL in all messages. This means that even if the SSID is hidden, the attacker can still impersonate the network by sending out messages with a NULL SSID. Therefore, hiding the SSID does not provide any real protection against unauthorized access to the network.Rate this question:
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- 4.
Refer to the exhibit. A new host needs to be connected to VLAN 1. Which IP address should be assigned to this new host?
- A.
192.168.1.11 /28
- B.
192.168.1.22 /28
- C.
192.168.1.33 /28
- D.
192.168.1.44 /28
- E.
192.168.1.55 /28
Correct Answer
B. 192.168.1.22 /28Explanation
The IP address 192.168.1.22 /28 should be assigned to the new host because it falls within the range of the subnet 192.168.1.16/28. The /28 subnet mask indicates that the network portion of the IP address is 28 bits long, leaving 4 bits for host addresses. Therefore, the valid host addresses in this subnet range from 192.168.1.17 to 192.168.1.30. Since 192.168.1.22 falls within this range, it is the correct IP address to assign to the new host.Rate this question:
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- 5.
While configuring a new switch, a network administrator configures the switch as an HTTP server. What benefits does this configuration provide?
- A.
This allows the switch to host web pages for the network.
- B.
This allows remote VPN connections to the switch over the Internet.
- C.
This is required if a web server or web farm is attached to the switch.
- D.
This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.
Correct Answer
D. This allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch.Explanation
Configuring the switch as an HTTP server allows web-based configuration tools to be used with the switch. This means that the network administrator can access and configure the switch's settings through a web browser, making it easier and more convenient to manage the switch. It eliminates the need for specialized software or command-line interfaces, simplifying the configuration process. By enabling web-based configuration tools, the network administrator can efficiently make changes to the switch's settings and optimize its performance.Rate this question:
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- 6.
Refer to the exhibit. What will allow a host on VLAN 40 on switch X to communicate with a host in VLAN 40 on switch Y?
- A.
QoS
- B.
Routing
- C.
Trunking
- D.
VPN
Correct Answer
C. TrunkingExplanation
Trunking is the correct answer because it allows multiple VLANs to be carried over a single physical link between switches. By configuring trunking on switch X and switch Y, the host on VLAN 40 on switch X can communicate with the host in VLAN 40 on switch Y by sending and receiving VLAN tagged frames over the trunk link.Rate this question:
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- 7.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has designed and implemented a hierarchical network. What is the maximum network diameter between any two hosts on the network?
- A.
5
- B.
6
- C.
10
- D.
12
Correct Answer
A. 5Explanation
The maximum network diameter between any two hosts on the network is 5. This means that the maximum number of hops or links that a packet would have to traverse to reach any two hosts on the network is 5.Rate this question:
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- 8.
A wireless client is attempting to establish a connection with a wireless access point. What process does the client use to discover the access points which are available to it?
- A.
Probing
- B.
Beaconing
- C.
Association
- D.
Authentication
Correct Answer
A. ProbingExplanation
The wireless client uses the process of probing to discover the access points that are available to it. During probing, the client sends out broadcast messages to search for nearby access points. These messages are sent on all available channels and the client listens for responses from the access points. This allows the client to identify and establish a connection with the access point that provides the strongest signal and best network conditions.Rate this question:
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- 9.
What is the benefit of the auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch?
- A.
Dynamically assigns a new management VLAN ID
- B.
Autonegotiates IP address information for initial management connections
- C.
Allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device types
- D.
Places a port immediately in the forwarding state to reduce the time for the spanning tree to reconverge
Correct Answer
C. Allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of connected device typesExplanation
The auto-MDIX feature on a Cisco Catalyst switch allows the use of straight-through patch cables regardless of the connected device types. This means that the switch can automatically detect the type of cable being used (straight-through or crossover) and adjust the connection accordingly. This eliminates the need for manual cable swapping or the use of crossover cables, making network setup and maintenance easier and more convenient.Rate this question:
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- 10.
Refer to the exhibit. After the listed commands are entered into router R1 and switch S1, the administrator enters the show interface fa0/1 trunk and gets the results shown. What is the likely problem?
- A.
The trunk is established, but no VLANs have been configured to use it.
- B.
The router is missing the dynamic trunking protocol statements necessary to form a trunk.
- C.
The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.
- D.
The router, the switch, or both must be configured with the dynamic desirable option for dynamic trunking protocol to establish a trunk.
Correct Answer
C. The trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol.Explanation
The likely problem is that the trunk has not been established because the router does not support dynamic trunking protocol. This is indicated by the output of the "show interface fa0/1 trunk" command, which shows that the trunking encapsulation is set to "nonegotiate". This means that the router is not negotiating trunking with the switch, which is necessary for the trunk to be established.Rate this question:
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- 11.
Refer to the exhibit. The hosts connected to switch SW1 are not able to communicate with the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2. What should be done to fix the problem?
- A.
Configure VLANs with different VLAN IDs on switch SW2
- B.
Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.
- C.
Introduce a Layer 3 device or a switch with Layer 3 capability in the topology.
- D.
Apply IP addresses that are in the same subnet to the interfaces used to connect SW1 and SW2.
Correct Answer
B. Reconfigure the trunk port on switch SW2 with static trunk configuration.Explanation
To fix the problem of hosts not being able to communicate between switches SW1 and SW2, the trunk port on switch SW2 needs to be reconfigured with a static trunk configuration. This will ensure that the VLAN information is properly carried across the trunk link, allowing the hosts in the same VLANs connected to switch SW2 to communicate with the hosts connected to switch SW1.Rate this question:
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- 12.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to download a previously saved configuration file from the TFTP server to Switch1. Which command will accomplish this task?
- A.
Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-confg nvram:startup-config
- B.
Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-confg nvram:startup-config
- C.
Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.253/backup-config
- D.
Switch1# copy nvram:startup-config tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-config
Correct Answer
B. Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-confg nvram:startup-configExplanation
The correct command to download a previously saved configuration file from the TFTP server to Switch1 is "Switch1# copy tftp://192.168.0.254/backup-confg nvram:startup-config". This command specifies the source file location as the TFTP server at IP address 192.168.0.254 and the destination file location as the startup configuration in the NVRAM of Switch1.Rate this question:
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- 13.
What happens when the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines?
- A.
A new RSA key pair is created.
- B.
The switch defaults to allowing Telnet connections only.
- C.
The switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client
- D.
The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.
Correct Answer
D. The switch allows remote connections only after a new RSA key pair is generated.Explanation
When the crypto key zeroize rsa command is entered on a switch configured with the transport input ssh command on the vty lines, the switch deletes the current RSA key pair. As a result, the switch is no longer able to make SSH connections as an SSH client. However, after the key pair is deleted, the switch allows remote connections again once a new RSA key pair is generated.Rate this question:
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- 14.
Which statement about STP network diameter is correct?
- A.
STP diameters are restricted by convergence times.
- B.
Layer 2 root elections should be optimized by adjusting BPDU timers to match network diameter.
- C.
Using lower bandwidth connections between switches will allow STP to have a larger network diameter.
- D.
Portfast can be used to increase the allowable switched network diameter because it disables the forward delay and maximum age timers.
Correct Answer
A. STP diameters are restricted by convergence times.Explanation
The correct answer is that STP diameters are restricted by convergence times. This means that the size of an STP network is limited by how quickly the network can converge after a change in the network topology. If the convergence time is too long, it can lead to network instability and potential disruptions. Therefore, it is important to consider convergence times when designing and implementing STP networks.Rate this question:
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- 15.
In the implementation of PVST+ in a specific VLAN where all switches have default
- A.
Root primary
- B.
Priority 8192
- C.
Priority 2048
- D.
Spanning-tree mode rapid pvst
Correct Answer
A. Root primaryExplanation
The given answer "root primary" suggests that the switch with this configuration will become the root bridge for the specific VLAN in the PVST+ implementation. This is because the "root primary" command is used to manually set a switch as the root bridge with the highest priority. In this case, the switch with this configuration will have a priority of 8192, which is higher than the priority of 2048 set on the other switches. Therefore, it will become the root bridge for the VLAN.Rate this question:
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- 16.
Refer to the exhibit. A new switch, SW3, has been added to the network. The network administrator determines that VLAN information is not propagating to SW3. Which command will remedy the problem?
- A.
SW1(config)# vtp version 1
- B.
SW2(config)# vtp mode client
- C.
SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1
- D.
SW3(config)# vtp mode transparent
Correct Answer
C. SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1Explanation
The command "SW3(config)# vtp domain Cisco1" will remedy the problem because it sets the VTP domain name on SW3 to "Cisco1". This ensures that SW3 is in the same VTP domain as SW1 and SW2, allowing VLAN information to propagate properly.Rate this question:
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- 17.
In an attempt to improve switch performance, a network administrator changes the MAC aging time to ten seconds. What is a likely result of this decision?
- A.
The MAC table will fill with unused addresses.
- B.
Address conflicts will cause retransmission errors
- C.
Unnecessary flooding will slow network performance.
- D.
Timely MAC address updates will ensure rapid delivery of frames.
Correct Answer
C. Unnecessary flooding will slow network performance.Explanation
By reducing the MAC aging time to ten seconds, the switch will remove MAC addresses from its table after only ten seconds of inactivity. This means that if a device becomes inactive for more than ten seconds, its MAC address will be removed from the table. As a result, when a frame arrives for that device, the switch will flood the frame to all ports, causing unnecessary flooding. This flooding will consume network bandwidth and slow down network performance.Rate this question:
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- 18.
What is an efficient and cost effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN?
- A.
Connect each PC directly to a router port.
- B.
Use access control lists to filter broadcasts from the network.
- C.
Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.
- D.
Divide the computers into separate workgroups using different physical switches.
Correct Answer
C. Divide the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches.Explanation
Dividing the computers into separate VLANs on the existing switches is an efficient and cost-effective way to minimize the frequency and effects of broadcast storms on an Ethernet LAN. By creating separate VLANs, broadcast traffic is contained within each VLAN, reducing the overall broadcast traffic on the network. This helps to prevent broadcast storms from occurring and spreading throughout the network, which can lead to network congestion and performance issues. Additionally, dividing the computers into separate VLANs allows for better network segmentation and control, as different VLANs can have different access control policies and configurations.Rate this question:
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- 19.
Which value determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology?
- A.
Lowest bridge ID
- B.
Highest revision number
- C.
Lowest numeric IP address
- D.
Highest numeric MAC address
Correct Answer
A. Lowest bridge IDExplanation
The value that determines if a switch becomes the central point of reference in the spanning tree topology is the lowest bridge ID. In the spanning tree protocol, each switch is assigned a unique bridge ID that consists of a priority value and the switch's MAC address. The switch with the lowest bridge ID is selected as the root bridge, which becomes the central point of reference for the spanning tree topology.Rate this question:
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- 20.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted from the Switch as it is configured?
- A.
0
- B.
4
- C.
5
- D.
8
- E.
9
Correct Answer
B. 4Explanation
Based on the exhibit, the switch is configured with a total of 9 VLANs. However, the question asks for the maximum number of VLANs that can be deleted. Since the switch must always have at least one default VLAN, a maximum of 8 VLANs can be deleted, leaving the default VLAN intact. Therefore, the correct answer is 8.Rate this question:
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- 21.
Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW2 was tested in a lab environment and then inserted into a production network without reloading its configuration. After the trunk link between SW1 and SW2 was brought up, all users lost connectivity to the network. What could be the source of the problem?
- A.
All the VLANs were pruned from the trunk port between SW1 and SW2.
- B.
SW1 and SW2 cannot be both set as VTP servers in the same VTP domain.
- C.
VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.
- D.
The additional VLANs from SW2 created more VLANs than the VLAN database of SW1 could contain.
Correct Answer
C. VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1.Explanation
The source of the problem could be that the VTP configuration revision number of SW2 was higher than the configuration revision number of SW1. This indicates that SW2 has a more recent VTP configuration, which would overwrite the configuration on SW1 when they are connected. This could result in the loss of connectivity for all users.Rate this question:
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- 22.
Refer to the exhibit. All edge ports are configured with the spanning-tree portfast command. Host1 is recently connected to port Fa0/1 on switch SW1 . Which statement is true about the status of port Fa0/1?
- A.
The port will transition into blocking state
- B.
The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.
- C.
The port will transition into blocking state and immediately transition through the listening and learning states.
- D.
The port will transition into blocking state and then immediately into forwarding state.
Correct Answer
B. The port will transition immediately into forwarding state.Explanation
The correct answer is that the port will transition immediately into the forwarding state. This is because the port is configured with the "spanning-tree portfast" command, which allows the port to bypass the listening and learning states and go straight into the forwarding state. This command is typically used for ports connected to end devices, such as hosts, to minimize the time it takes for the device to become operational on the network.Rate this question:
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- 23.
Refer to the exhibit. What does the term DYNAMIC indicate in the output that is shown?
- A.
This entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.
- B.
When forwarding a frame to the device with address 0060.5c5b.cd23, the switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port.
- C.
Only the device with MAC address 0060.5c5b.cd23 will be allowed to connect to port Fa0/18.
- D.
The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.
Correct Answer
D. The switch learned this MAC address from the source address in a frame received on Fa0/18.Explanation
The term "DYNAMIC" in the output indicates that the MAC address entry was dynamically learned by the switch. This means that the switch learned the MAC address from the source address in a frame received on port Fa0/18. The switch does not have to perform a lookup to determine the final destination port when forwarding a frame to the device with this MAC address. The entry can only be removed from the MAC address table by a network administrator.Rate this question:
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- 24.
Which type of traffic can still be received on a switch interface that is in STP blocking mode?
- A.
BPDU frames
- B.
Multicast frames
- C.
Broadcast frames
- D.
Layer 3 packets
Correct Answer
A. BPDU framesExplanation
In STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) blocking mode, the switch interface still allows BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) frames to be received. BPDU frames are used by switches to exchange information and maintain the spanning tree topology. The blocking mode is a state in STP where the switch interface does not forward any user data frames, including multicast frames, broadcast frames, and Layer 3 packets. However, it still receives and processes BPDU frames to ensure the stability and redundancy of the network.Rate this question:
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- 25.
Refer to the exhibit. Hosts B and C attempt to transmit a frame at the same time, but a collision occurs. Which hosts will receive the collision jamming signal?
- A.
All hosts that are shown
- B.
Only hosts B and C
- C.
Only hosts A, B, and C
- D.
Only hosts A, B, C, and D
- E.
Only hosts A, D, E, and F
- F.
Only hosts D, E, and F
Correct Answer
C. Only hosts A, B, and CExplanation
Hosts A, B, and C will receive the collision jamming signal. This is because all hosts that attempt to transmit a frame at the same time will detect the collision and receive the jamming signal. Hosts D, E, and F are not involved in the collision and will not receive the jamming signal.Rate this question:
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- 26.
Which security protocol or measure would provide the greatest protection for a wireless LAN?
- A.
WPA2
- B.
Cloaking SSIDs
- C.
Shared WEP key
- D.
MAC address filtering
Correct Answer
A. WPA2Explanation
WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is the correct answer because it is the most secure security protocol for wireless LANs. It provides strong encryption and authentication, making it difficult for unauthorized users to access the network. Cloaking SSIDs, shared WEP key, and MAC address filtering are all security measures, but they are not as effective as WPA2 in providing protection against potential threats.Rate this question:
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- 27.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about the status of interface Fa0/1?
- A.
The interface is not configured to transmit data.
- B.
The interface is configured to transmit data at 10 Mb/s speed.
- C.
The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode
- D.
The interface is configured to use HDLC encapsulation to transmit data.
Correct Answer
C. The interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex modeExplanation
The correct answer is that the interface is configured to transmit data in half-duplex mode. This means that the interface can either transmit or receive data, but not both simultaneously. In half-duplex mode, the interface must wait for a signal to finish transmitting before it can start receiving data. This mode is commonly used in Ethernet networks where collisions can occur if multiple devices try to transmit data at the same time. By configuring the interface in half-duplex mode, collisions can be avoided.Rate this question:
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- 28.
What is the purpose of configuring a switch port as a trunk port?
- A.
To control the broadcast domain size
- B.
To eliminate the collisions that result from multiple VLANs
- C.
To transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single port
- D.
To increase the bandwidth between the switch and its upstream device
Correct Answer
C. To transmit data from multiple VLANs through a single portExplanation
Configuring a switch port as a trunk port allows the transmission of data from multiple VLANs through a single port. This is useful in scenarios where there are multiple VLANs in a network and the switch needs to communicate with devices on different VLANs. By using a trunk port, the switch can tag the data packets with VLAN information, allowing the devices on the other end of the connection to correctly identify and process the data from different VLANs. This simplifies network configuration and management by reducing the number of physical connections required between switches and devices on different VLANs.Rate this question:
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- 29.
In which mode is a VTP switch operating if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements?
- A.
CLIENT
- B.
ROOT
- C.
SERVER
- D.
TRANSPARENT
Correct Answer
D. TRANSPARENTExplanation
A VTP switch is operating in transparent mode if it has been configured to only forward VTP advertisements. In transparent mode, the switch does not participate in VTP updates or advertise its VLAN configuration. It simply forwards VTP advertisements received from other switches to ensure that VLAN information is propagated throughout the network. This mode is commonly used when you want to maintain VLAN consistency across the network but do not want the switch to actively participate in VTP updates.Rate this question:
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- 30.
When implementing a router-on-a-stick, what must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs?
- A.
Subinterfaces
- B.
Routing protocol
- C.
Switched virtual circuits
- D.
Dynamic trunking protocol
Correct Answer
A. SubinterfacesExplanation
When implementing a router-on-a-stick, subinterfaces must be configured on the router to ensure connectivity between different VLANs. Subinterfaces allow the router to divide a physical interface into multiple logical interfaces, each associated with a different VLAN. This enables the router to process and route traffic between the VLANs effectively. By configuring subinterfaces, the router can properly tag and route traffic between the VLANs, allowing devices in different VLANs to communicate with each other.Rate this question:
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- 31.
Refer to the exhibit. VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain that is shown. How will switch ST-1 handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C?
- A.
It will be dropped.
- B.
It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.
- C.
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5 and Fa0/10.
- D.
It will be forwarded out ports Fa0/5, Fa0/10, and Fa0/15.
Correct Answer
B. It will be forwarded out port Fa0/5 only.Explanation
Switch ST-1 will handle Layer 2 broadcast traffic originating from host A on switch ST-C by forwarding it out port Fa0/5 only. This is because VTP pruning is enabled in the VTP domain, which allows the switch to dynamically remove unnecessary broadcast traffic from trunk links. As host A is not located on the same VLAN as switch ST-1, the broadcast traffic from host A will be pruned and only forwarded out the access port Fa0/5.Rate this question:
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- 32.
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to add IP phones to the network. To which devices should the IP phones connect?
- A.
AS1 and AS2
- B.
DS1 and DS2
- C.
DS1, DS2, and CS1
- D.
AS1, AS2, DS1, and DS2
Correct Answer
A. AS1 and AS2Explanation
The IP phones should connect to AS1 and AS2. This is because AS1 and AS2 are the access switches in the network, which are responsible for connecting end devices such as IP phones. DS1 and DS2 are distribution switches, which connect different access switches together. CS1 is the core switch, which is responsible for routing traffic between different networks. Since the IP phones are end devices, they should connect to the access switches.Rate this question:
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- 33.
Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
- A.
SW A
- B.
SW B
- C.
SW C
- D.
SW D
- E.
SW E
- F.
SW F
Correct Answer
F. SW F -
- 34.
Why is MAC address filtering considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN?
- A.
Available bandwidth is reduced.
- B.
MAC addresses are easily spoofed.
- C.
APs are more susceptible to DoS attacks
- D.
The payload encryption is easily broken.
Correct Answer
B. MAC addresses are easily spoofed.Explanation
MAC address filtering is considered a poor choice in securing a WLAN because MAC addresses can be easily spoofed. MAC spoofing involves changing the MAC address of a device to mimic the MAC address of an authorized device. This allows unauthorized devices to bypass the filtering mechanism and gain access to the WLAN. Since MAC addresses are not encrypted or authenticated, they can be easily manipulated, making the filtering method ineffective in preventing unauthorized access. Therefore, relying solely on MAC address filtering for WLAN security is not recommended.Rate this question:
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- 35.
Refer to the exhibit. What are two reasons for the Fa0/24 port being placed in the blocking state? (Choose two.)
- A.
This switch is not the root bridge.
- B.
The Fa0/24 port is administratively down.
- C.
STP has detected links that create a loop.
- D.
There is a change in the VTP configuration.
- E.
The Fa0/24 port is overloaded with too much traffic for its configured bandwidth
Correct Answer(s)
A. This switch is not the root bridge.
C. STP has detected links that create a loop.Explanation
The Fa0/24 port is placed in the blocking state because the switch is not the root bridge and STP has detected links that create a loop. When a switch is not the root bridge, it needs to determine the best path to reach the root bridge. STP detects links that create a loop and places them in the blocking state to prevent network loops and ensure a loop-free topology.Rate this question:
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- 36.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two settings show the default value of VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch? (Choose two.)
- A.
Revision number
- B.
Existing VLANs
- C.
Operating mode
- D.
Domain name
- E.
Pruning mode
Correct Answer(s)
A. Revision number
E. Pruning modeExplanation
The default value of the VTP configuration on a Cisco 2960 switch includes the revision number and the pruning mode. The revision number represents the version of the VTP database, and the default value is usually 0. The pruning mode determines whether the switch will prune unnecessary VLAN traffic, and the default value is usually disabled.Rate this question:
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- 37.
Company policy requires disabling the command history buffer on network devices. An administrator enters terminal no history size at the command prompt on a Cisco Catalyst switch and receives no error messages back, but the command history buffer is still available. What is the problem?
- A.
The command contained a syntax error.
- B.
The Cisco IOS version does not support disabling the command history buffer.
- C.
The command history can only be disabled on a router, not a switch.
- D.
The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.
Correct Answer
D. The size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.Explanation
The command "terminal no history size" was entered correctly without any syntax errors, as there were no error messages received. However, the command did not disable access to the command history buffer on the Cisco Catalyst switch. Instead, it only reset the buffer size to its default value. Therefore, the problem is that the size parameter reset the default buffer size but did not disable access to the buffer.Rate this question:
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- 38.
Refer to the exhibit. Which Spanning Tree Protocol version is in effect?
- A.
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)
- B.
Per VLAN Spanning Tree + (PVST+)
- C.
Common Spanning Tree (CST)
- D.
Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)
- E.
Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP)
Correct Answer
D. Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)Explanation
The correct answer is Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP). This can be determined by looking at the exhibit, which shows a switch with the "RSTP" label. RSTP is an IEEE standard protocol that provides rapid convergence of the spanning tree in a network. It improves upon the original Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) by reducing the convergence time after a topology change occurs. RSTP is backward compatible with STP and can be used in networks where both protocols are present.Rate this question:
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- 39.
Refer to the exhibit. All switch interfaces are members of the same VLAN. What information is used by Switch1 to determine if incoming frames from the hosts should be forwarded to Router1?
- A.
The source address field in the IP header
- B.
The destination port number in the TCP header
- C.
The destination address field in the Layer 3 header
- D.
The destination address field in the Ethernet header
Correct Answer
D. The destination address field in the Ethernet headerExplanation
je NE SUIS PAS CERTAIN DE CETTE REPONSE !!!!Rate this question:
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- 40.
Refer to the exhibit. The configuration steps that are listed in the exhibit have been entered in switch S1 via the console. Subsequent attempts to telnet to the switch are not successful. What is causing the problem?
- A.
The switch must be configured with SSH version 1.
- B.
The transport input command must specify Telnet access.
- C.
The RSA keys must be returned to zero before SSH will permit Telnet access.
- D.
The ip domain-name command must also be entered in line configuration mode for the vty lines.
Correct Answer
B. The transport input command must specify Telnet access.Explanation
The problem is caused by the fact that the "transport input" command does not specify Telnet access. This command determines which protocols are allowed for remote access to the switch. By not including Telnet in the list of allowed protocols, the switch is not permitting Telnet access, which is why subsequent telnet attempts are not successful.Rate this question:
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- 41.
What provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks?
- A.
DSSS
- B.
OFDM
- C.
SSID
- D.
WPA
Correct Answer
D. WPAExplanation
WPA (Wi-Fi Protected Access) provides an authentication mechanism for 802.11-based wireless networks. It is a security protocol that ensures secure access and data transmission over Wi-Fi networks. WPA uses encryption and authentication methods to protect the network from unauthorized access and attacks. It provides a stronger and more secure alternative to the previous security protocol, WEP (Wired Equivalent Privacy).Rate this question:
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- 42.
How does a switch that is configured for 802.1Q trunking handle untagged frames that are received on a trunk port?
- A.
The frames are dropped.
- B.
The frames are assigned to the native VLAN.
- C.
The frames are assigned to the default VLAN.
- D.
The frames are assigned to the management VLAN.
Correct Answer
B. The frames are assigned to the native VLAN.Explanation
When a switch configured for 802.1Q trunking receives untagged frames on a trunk port, it assigns them to the native VLAN. The native VLAN is a default VLAN that carries untagged traffic. This allows the switch to handle frames that are not tagged with a VLAN identifier. By assigning these frames to the native VLAN, the switch ensures that they are treated as part of the correct VLAN and can be forwarded appropriately within the network.Rate this question:
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- 43.
Why is it advisable that a network administrator use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches?
- A.
SSH uses TCP whereas Telnet does not.
- B.
SSH encrypts only the username and password when logging in.
- C.
SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.
- D.
SSH sends a clear text message steam which reduces the bandwidth use for management.
Correct Answer
C. SSH encrypts all remote management communications whereas Telnet does not.Explanation
It is advisable for a network administrator to use SSH instead of Telnet when managing switches because SSH encrypts all remote management communications, providing a secure way to access and manage the switches. On the other hand, Telnet does not encrypt any data, making it vulnerable to eavesdropping and unauthorized access. By using SSH, sensitive information such as login credentials and commands are protected from being intercepted and compromised. This ensures the confidentiality and integrity of the remote management communications.Rate this question:
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- 44.
What are two requirements for configuring inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model? (Choose two.)
- A.
Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
- B.
The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.
- C.
The number of physical interfaces on the router should match the number of VLANs.
- D.
Different static VLANs should be assigned to different interfaces of the router.
- E.
The router should be configured as the VTP server.
Correct Answer(s)
A. Each subinterface should be configured with its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment.
B. The physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch.Explanation
To configure inter-VLAN routing using the router-on-a-stick model, two requirements must be met. Firstly, each subinterface should have its own IP address, subnet mask, and unique VLAN assignment. This allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs. Secondly, the physical interface of the router must be connected to a trunk link on the adjacent switch. This is necessary to carry traffic from multiple VLANs over a single physical connection. By meeting these requirements, the router can effectively route traffic between different VLANs using the router-on-a-stick model.Rate this question:
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- 45.
Refer to the exhibit. Users A and B are reporting intermittent connectivity problems. Pre-installation surveys showed strong signal strength from the AP locations to the client locations. Outside electrical interference has been eliminated. What will fix the problem?
- A.
Relocate the APs closer to each other.
- B.
Increase the distance between the clients.
- C.
Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11
- D.
Place AP-A and AP-B on the same wireless channel.
Correct Answer
C. Change the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11Explanation
Changing the channel on AP-B to 6 or 11 will fix the connectivity problem. This is because AP-A and AP-B should be on different channels to avoid interference. By changing the channel on AP-B to either 6 or 11, it will ensure that there is no overlap in the wireless channels being used by the access points, improving the overall connectivity for users A and B.Rate this question:
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- 46.
What is a function or characteristic of the native VLAN?
- A.
It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.
- B.
It is always assigned to VLAN 1 for backward compatibility.
- C.
It is always the same VLAN number for all trunks within an organization.
- D.
It is used as the management VLAN throughout the entire switched network.
Correct Answer
A. It is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk.Explanation
The native VLAN is the VLAN that supports untagged traffic on an 802.1Q trunk. This means that any traffic that is not tagged with a VLAN ID will be treated as belonging to the native VLAN. This allows devices that do not support VLAN tagging to communicate on the trunk. It is important to configure the native VLAN consistently on both ends of the trunk to ensure proper communication.Rate this question:
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- 47.
Refer to the exhibit. Which three options correctly describe the router configuration that is shown? (Choose three.)
- A.
An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use.
- B.
Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces
- C.
The shutdown command has been applied to interface Fa0/1.
- D.
Interface Fa0/1.3 is mapped to the default management VLAN.
- E.
The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.
- F.
An IP address should be applied to interface Fa0/1 for routing to occur.
Correct Answer(s)
A. An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use.
B. Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces
E. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design.Explanation
The correct answer options are:
1. An IEEE standard trunking protocol is in use: This is indicated by the presence of the "switchport mode trunk" command in the configuration, which enables trunking on the interface.
2. Interface Fa0/1 has been configured with subinterfaces: This is indicated by the presence of the "interface Fa0/1.3" command, which creates a subinterface on Fa0/1.
3. The configuration is appropriate for a router-on-a-stick network design: This can be inferred from the presence of the subinterface and the trunking protocol, which are commonly used in router-on-a-stick setups.Rate this question:
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- 48.
Refer to the exhibit. All hosts are in listen mode. Host 1 and Host 4 both transmit data at the same time. How do the hosts respond on the network? (Choose two.)
- A.
After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
- B.
Hosts 1 and 4 are operating full duplex so no collision will exist.
- C.
The hub will block the port connected to Host 4 to prevent a collision
- D.
Hosts 1 and 4 are assigned shorter backoff values to provide them priority to access the media.
- E.
If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.
Correct Answer(s)
A. After the end of the jam signal, a backoff algorithm is invoked.
E. If a host has data to transmit after the backoff period of that host, the host checks to determine if the line is idle before transmitting.Explanation
When Host 1 and Host 4 transmit data at the same time, a collision will occur on the network. After the collision, a jam signal is sent to notify all hosts on the network. After the jam signal ends, a backoff algorithm is invoked. This algorithm randomly selects a backoff time for each host involved in the collision. The hosts then wait for their backoff time to expire before attempting to transmit again. If a host has data to transmit after its backoff period, it will check to determine if the line is idle before transmitting to avoid another collision. This process helps to manage the network and prevent further collisions.Rate this question:
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- 49.
What is the purpose of VTP pruning?
- A.
To restrict traffic on specified trunk lines
- B.
To designate switches that do not participate in VTP
- C.
To advertise VTP domain information to specified switches only
- D.
To reduce the propagation of VTP advertisements in the switched network
Correct Answer
A. To restrict traffic on specified trunk linesExplanation
VTP pruning is used to restrict traffic on specified trunk lines. By enabling VTP pruning, unnecessary broadcast and multicast traffic is prevented from being sent across trunk links to switches that do not require it. This helps to optimize network bandwidth and improve network performance by reducing the amount of unnecessary traffic on trunk lines.Rate this question:
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- 50.
What operational change will occur if an 802.11b client associates with an access point that is currently supporting clients utilizing 802.11g?
- A.
The 802.11g clients will disassociate from the AP
- B.
The 802.11g clients will operate at reduced speeds.
- C.
The 802.11b client will never gain access to the channel
- D.
The 802.11b client will not be able to establish an IP session with any of the other 802.11g clients
Correct Answer
B. The 802.11g clients will operate at reduced speeds.Explanation
When an 802.11b client associates with an access point that is currently supporting clients utilizing 802.11g, the operational change that will occur is that the 802.11g clients will operate at reduced speeds. This is because the access point will need to support the slower 802.11b standard in order to accommodate the 802.11b client. As a result, the overall network performance will be impacted, causing the 802.11g clients to experience reduced speeds.Rate this question:
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