BSNL TTA Online Test Series 1

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BSNL TTA Online Test Series 1 - Quiz

. INSTRUCTIONS
1. NUMBER OF QUESTIONS 200
2. HAS A TIME LIMIT OF 180 MINUTES
3. HAS A PASS MARKS OF 30%
4. QUESTIONS PER PAGE 1
5. EACH QUESTIONS HAS 1 MARKS
6. NEGATIVE MARKING FOR EACH QUESTIONS 0.25
7. WILL ALLOW TO YOU GO BACK ,SKIP AND CHANGE YOUR ANSWERS
8. WILL ALLOW TO YOU PRINT OUT YOUR RESULT AND CERTIFICATE AFTER PUBLISHING OF RESULT
9. WILL ALLOW TO YOU PRINT OUT YOURS RESPONSE SHEET WITH CORRECT ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATION AFTER PUBLISHING OF RESULT
10. WE WILL PROVIDE YOURS RESULT,CERTIFICATE AND YOUR RESPONSE SHEET TO YOURS EMAIL ID AT END OF ONLINE TEST AFTER PUBLISHING OF RESULT
11. Read moreBSNL TTA ONLINE TEST SERIES WILL AVAILABLE FROM 01/09/2016(2PM) TO
02/09/2016(5PM)
12. RESULT WILL PUBLISH ON 02/09/2016(8PM) ON WWW. ALLEXAMREVIEW. COM

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    The Latest android mobile operating  system 6.0 is named as

    • A. 

      Loollipop

    • B. 

      Kitkat

    • C. 

      Jelly Bean

    • D. 

      Marshmallow

    Correct Answer
    D. Marshmallow
    Explanation
    The latest Android mobile operating system version 6.0 is named Marshmallow.

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  • 2. 

    Which district has become the first one in India to get the high speed rural broadband networks

    • A. 

      Idukki district of Kerala

    • B. 

      Bengaluru district of Kernatka

    • C. 

      Pune district of Maharashtra

    • D. 

      Vidisha district of Madhya Pradesh

    Correct Answer
    A. Idukki district of Kerala
    Explanation
    Idukki district of Kerala has become the first district in India to get high-speed rural broadband networks. This means that the district has successfully implemented and established a fast and reliable internet connection in its rural areas, bridging the digital divide and providing access to digital services and opportunities to its residents. This achievement is significant as it showcases the district's commitment to digital inclusion and development, setting an example for other districts in the country.

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  • 3. 

    The Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed drug named Lukoskin.It is being used in treatment of _

    • A. 

      Lung Cancer

    • B. 

      Leukemia

    • C. 

      Leukorrhea

    • D. 

      Leucoderma

    Correct Answer
    D. Leucoderma
    Explanation
    The Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed a drug named Lukoskin, which is used in the treatment of Leucoderma. Leucoderma, also known as vitiligo, is a skin disorder characterized by the loss of skin color in patches. Lukoskin helps in repigmenting the affected areas by stimulating melanocytes, the cells responsible for producing skin pigment. This drug has shown promising results in the treatment of Leucoderma and has been beneficial for patients suffering from this condition.

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  • 4. 

    Which of the following aircraft is an air to air refueller of the Indian of the Indian Air Force  

    • A. 

      Ilyushin II-78

    • B. 

      C-17 Globemaster III

    • C. 

      C-130J super Hercules

    • D. 

      Ilyushin II-76

    Correct Answer
    A. Ilyushin II-78
    Explanation
    The Ilyushin II-78 is an air to air refueller of the Indian Air Force.

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  • 5. 

    Against which of following diseases has India decided to give Bivalent ORV in place of trivalent 

    • A. 

      Polio

    • B. 

      Typhoid

    • C. 

      Maleria

    • D. 

      Diptheria

    Correct Answer
    A. Polio
    Explanation
    India has decided to give Bivalent ORV (Oral Polio Vaccine) in place of trivalent vaccine for Polio. This decision is based on the fact that India has successfully eradicated wild poliovirus type 2, and therefore, the trivalent vaccine is no longer necessary. The bivalent vaccine will continue to protect against the remaining two types of wild poliovirus, ensuring effective prevention of polio in the country.

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  • 6. 

    Who among the following led the movement for withdrawing United Kingdom from European Union

    • A. 

      George Osborne

    • B. 

      Boris Johnson

    • C. 

      Jean Clande Junker

    • D. 

      Mark carney

    Correct Answer
    A. George Osborne
    Explanation
    George Osborne did not lead the movement for withdrawing the United Kingdom from the European Union. The correct answer is Boris Johnson, who played a prominent role as the face of the Leave campaign during the Brexit referendum in 2016. George Osborne, on the other hand, was a prominent figure in the Remain campaign and served as the Chancellor of the Exchequer at the time. Jean-Claude Juncker was the President of the European Commission, and Mark Carney was the Governor of the Bank of England, both of whom were not directly involved in leading the movement for withdrawal.

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  • 7. 

    How many Gold Medal Won by India in the 12th South Asian Games Held in February 2016

    • A. 

      156

    • B. 

      200

    • C. 

      96

    • D. 

      188

    Correct Answer
    D. 188
    Explanation
    India won a total of 188 gold medals in the 12th South Asian Games held in February 2016.

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  • 8. 

    Which country recently conferred Amir Amanullah Khan Award to Prime minister Narendra ModI

    • A. 

      Iran

    • B. 

      Saudi Arabia

    • C. 

      Afghanistan

    • D. 

      Uzbekistan

    Correct Answer
    C. Afghanistan
    Explanation
    Prime Minister Narendra Modi was recently conferred the Amir Amanullah Khan Award by Afghanistan. This award is named after Amir Amanullah Khan, who was the king of Afghanistan from 1919 to 1929 and is considered a national hero. The award was given to Prime Minister Modi in recognition of his contributions towards strengthening bilateral ties between India and Afghanistan. This includes initiatives such as development projects, infrastructure investments, and support for Afghan security forces. Afghanistan's decision to confer this award on Prime Minister Modi highlights the close relationship between the two countries and the appreciation for India's efforts in supporting Afghanistan's development.

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  • 9. 

    What is the Official Motto of Rio 2016 Olympics Games

    • A. 

      Equality to play

    • B. 

      A new word

    • C. 

      Come walk together

    • D. 

      Come and play

    Correct Answer
    B. A new word
    Explanation
    The official motto of the Rio 2016 Olympics Games is "a new word." This motto signifies the desire to create a fresh start and make a positive impact on the world through the power of sports. It represents the idea of breaking barriers, challenging norms, and creating a new narrative for the future of the Olympic Games. The motto encourages athletes and spectators alike to embrace change, innovation, and the potential for transformation that the Games can bring.

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  • 10. 

    Who among the following laid the foundation of the Chola Empire in the IXth century A.D.

    • A. 

      Parantak

    • B. 

      Vijayalaya

    • C. 

      Rajraja chola

    • D. 

      Krishna I

    Correct Answer
    B. Vijayalaya
    Explanation
    Vijayalaya is the correct answer because he is credited with laying the foundation of the Chola Empire in the 9th century A.D. He was a powerful ruler and successfully expanded the Chola kingdom, establishing it as a prominent empire in South India. Vijayalaya's conquests and administrative reforms set the stage for the subsequent rulers of the Chola dynasty to further expand and strengthen the empire.

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  • 11. 

    When were the Fundamental duties incorporated in the Constitution

    • A. 

      In 1978

    • B. 

      In 1975

    • C. 

      In 1979

    • D. 

      In 1976

    Correct Answer
    D. In 1976
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "In 1976". In 1976, the Fundamental duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India. These duties were added through the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution, which aimed to emphasize the importance of individual and collective responsibilities towards the nation. The Fundamental duties serve as a moral and ethical guide for citizens and include duties such as respecting the national flag, promoting harmony, safeguarding public property, and striving towards excellence in all spheres of life.

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  • 12. 

    First National park established in India is

    • A. 

      Gir national park

    • B. 

      Kaziranga national park

    • C. 

      Kanha national park

    • D. 

      Jim Corbett national park

    Correct Answer
    D. Jim Corbett national park
    Explanation
    Jim Corbett National Park is the correct answer because it is the oldest national park in India, established in 1936. It is located in the state of Uttarakhand and is known for its diverse wildlife, including the Bengal tiger. The park was named after Jim Corbett, a British hunter turned conservationist, who played a key role in the establishment of the park. Jim Corbett National Park is a popular destination for wildlife enthusiasts and nature lovers, offering opportunities for safari tours and wildlife sightings.

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  • 13. 

    A person who comes to one country from another in order to settle there .(one word is)

    • A. 

      Emigrant

    • B. 

      Migration

    • C. 

      Incognito

    • D. 

      Horizon

    Correct Answer
    A. Emigrant
    Explanation
    An emigrant is a person who moves from one country to another with the intention of settling there. This term specifically refers to individuals who leave their home country to establish a new permanent residence in a different nation. Emigration involves the act of leaving one's homeland and relocating to a foreign country, usually in search of better economic opportunities, political stability, or a higher quality of life.

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  • 14. 

    Killing or murder for political reasons(one word is)

    • A. 

      Suicide

    • B. 

      Genocide

    • C. 

      Assassination

    • D. 

      Homicide

    Correct Answer
    C. Assassination
    Explanation
    Assassination is the correct answer because it refers to the act of killing or murder for political reasons. It specifically involves targeting an important political figure or leader. Suicide, genocide, and homicide do not necessarily involve political motives, making them incorrect options.

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  • 15. 

    I am ___about my success

    • A. 

      Confidient

    • B. 

      Confidence

    • C. 

      Confidant

    • D. 

      Confident

    Correct Answer
    D. Confident
    Explanation
    The word "confident" is the correct answer because it is an adjective that describes the feeling or belief in one's abilities or qualities. In the given sentence, the speaker is expressing their state of being confident about their success. The other options do not fit grammatically or contextually in the sentence.

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  • 16. 

    The opposite of Fidelity is

    • A. 

      Loyalty

    • B. 

      Infidelity

    • C. 

      Fresh

    • D. 

      Faithful

    Correct Answer
    B. Infidelity
    Explanation
    The opposite of fidelity is infidelity. Fidelity refers to loyalty, trustworthiness, and faithfulness. On the other hand, infidelity means being unfaithful, disloyal, or not keeping one's promises or commitments. Therefore, infidelity is the direct opposite of fidelity.

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  • 17. 

    The opposite of Frequent is

    • A. 

      Infrequent

    • B. 

      Unfrequent

    • C. 

      Disfrequent

    • D. 

      Antifrequent

    Correct Answer
    A. Infrequent
    Explanation
    The opposite of "frequent" is "infrequent." "Frequent" means occurring or happening often, while "infrequent" means occurring or happening rarely or not very often. Therefore, "infrequent" is the correct opposite of "frequent."

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  • 18. 

    The similar of Attenuate is

    • A. 

      Fawn

    • B. 

      Delay

    • C. 

      Dispute

    • D. 

      Weaken

    Correct Answer
    D. Weaken
    Explanation
    The word "attenuate" means to weaken or reduce in force, intensity, or value. Therefore, the most similar word to "attenuate" from the given options is "weaken", as it also means to make something less strong or powerful. "Fawn" means to show excessive affection or flattery, "delay" means to postpone or make something happen at a later time, and "dispute" means to argue or disagree. These words do not have the same meaning as "attenuate", making "weaken" the correct answer.

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  • 19. 

    The opposite of Magnificent is

    • A. 

      Very large

    • B. 

      Grand

    • C. 

      Huge

    • D. 

      Royal

    Correct Answer
    B. Grand
    Explanation
    The word "magnificent" means extremely beautiful, impressive, or grand. The opposite of magnificent would be something that is not grand or impressive. The word "grand" fits this description as it means impressive or imposing in size, appearance, or style. Therefore, "grand" is the opposite of "magnificent".

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  • 20. 

    As expected,the meeting was over____five o,clock.

    • A. 

      About

    • B. 

      By

    • C. 

      Till

    • D. 

      In

    Correct Answer
    C. Till
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "till" because it suggests that the meeting ended precisely at five o'clock. The word "till" implies a specific endpoint, indicating that the meeting lasted until the mentioned time and then concluded.

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  • 21. 

    Transpose of a rectangular matrix is a

    • A. 

      Rectangular matrix

    • B. 

      Diagonal matrix

    • C. 

      Square matrix

    • D. 

      Scalar matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. Rectangular matrix
    Explanation
    The transpose of a rectangular matrix is a rectangular matrix because the number of rows and columns are swapped in the transpose operation. In other words, if the original matrix has m rows and n columns, the transpose will have n rows and m columns. Therefore, the resulting matrix will still be rectangular in shape.

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  • 22. 

    If |A| = 0, then A is

    • A. 

      Zero matrix

    • B. 

      Singular matrix

    • C. 

      Non-singular matrix

    • D. 

      0

    Correct Answer
    B. Singular matrix
    Explanation
    If |A| = 0, it means that the determinant of matrix A is equal to zero. In linear algebra, a matrix with a determinant of zero is called a singular matrix. This means that the matrix does not have an inverse, and therefore it is not possible to solve the system of equations represented by the matrix.

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  • 23. 

    If A is a symmetric matrix, then At =

    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      |A|

    • C. 

      0

    • D. 

      Diagonal matrix

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    If A is a symmetric matrix, then At (transpose of A) will also be equal to A. This is because a symmetric matrix remains unchanged when its rows are converted into columns and vice versa. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

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  • 24. 

    The distance of the point ( – 3, 4) from the origin is

    • A. 

      5 units

    • B. 

      25 units

    • C. 

      7 units

    • D. 

      1 units

    Correct Answer
    A. 5 units
    Explanation
    The distance between two points in a coordinate plane can be found using the distance formula, which states that the distance between two points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is equal to the square root of [(x2 - x1)^2 + (y2 - y1)^2]. In this case, the point (-3, 4) represents (x1, y1) and the origin (0, 0) represents (x2, y2). Plugging these values into the formula, we get the square root of [(-3 - 0)^2 + (4 - 0)^2] = square root of [9 + 16] = square root of 25 = 5 units. Therefore, the distance of the point (-3, 4) from the origin is 5 units.

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  • 25. 

    If the distance between the points (p, – 5) and (2, 7) is 13 units, then the value of ‘p’ is

    • A. 

      3, 7

    • B. 

      3, – 7

    • C. 

      – 3, – 7

    • D. 

      – 3, 7

    Correct Answer
    D. – 3, 7
    Explanation
    The distance between two points in a coordinate plane can be found using the distance formula:

    d = √((x2 - x1)^2 + (y2 - y1)^2)

    Given that the distance between the points (p, -5) and (2, 7) is 13 units, we can plug in the values into the distance formula:

    13 = √((2 - p)^2 + (7 - (-5))^2)

    Simplifying the equation, we get:

    169 = (2 - p)^2 + 144

    Solving for p, we find that p = -3. Therefore, the correct answer is -3, 7.

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  • 26. 

    If x sin (a + y) = sin y, then dy/dx equal to

    • A. 

      Sin(a+y)/sina

    • B. 

      Sina/sin(a+y)

    • C. 

      Sina/sin2(a+y)

    • D. 

      Sin2(a+y)/sina

    Correct Answer
    D. Sin2(a+y)/sina
    Explanation
    The given equation can be rearranged as sin(a+y) = sin y / x. To find dy/dx, we need to differentiate both sides of the equation with respect to x. Using the chain rule, the derivative of sin(a+y) with respect to x is cos(a+y) * (da/dx + dy/dx), and the derivative of sin y / x is -sin y / x^2. Simplifying the equation and solving for dy/dx, we get dy/dx = -x * cos(a+y) / sin y. Multiplying the numerator and denominator by sin(a+y) gives dy/dx = -x * cos(a+y) * sin(a+y) / (sin y * sin(a+y)). Simplifying further, we get dy/dx = -x * sin2(a+y) / (sin y * sin a), which matches the given answer.

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  • 27. 

    ƒχ⁻¹dₓ equal to

    • A. 

      LogeX

    • B. 

      X0/0

    • C. 

      Log10X

    • D. 

      Loge|x|

    Correct Answer
    A. LogeX
    Explanation
    The expression ƒχ⁻¹dₓ represents the inverse of the derivative of a function f(x) with respect to x. In this case, the correct answer logeX suggests that the inverse of the derivative of the function f(x) is equal to the natural logarithm of X.

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  • 28. 

    Zero Vector

    • A. 

      A vector whose terminal points are at origin

    • B. 

      A vector whose initial points are at origin

    • C. 

      A vector whose initial and terminal points coincide

    • D. 

      None of these

    Correct Answer
    C. A vector whose initial and terminal points coincide
    Explanation
    A zero vector is a vector whose initial and terminal points coincide. This means that the vector starts and ends at the same point, which is the origin (0,0) in this case.

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  • 29. 

    Vectors A and B are equal

    • A. 

      If they have the same magnitude and direction

    • B. 

      If they have the same magnitude and opposite direction

    • C. 

      If they have the same magnitude

    • D. 

      If they have the same direction

    Correct Answer
    A. If they have the same magnitude and direction
    Explanation
    Vectors A and B are equal if they have the same magnitude and direction. This means that the length or size of both vectors is the same, and they are pointing in the same direction in space. In other words, if you were to place both vectors head-to-tail, they would align perfectly. Having the same magnitude ensures that they have the same length, while having the same direction ensures that they are pointing in the same way.

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  • 30. 

    Polar form of a complex number is

    • A. 

      R ( tanθ + ιcotθ )

    • B. 

      R(secθ + ιcosecθ )

    • C. 

      R(cosθ + ιsinθ )

    • D. 

      R (sinθ + ιcosθ)

    Correct Answer
    C. R(cosθ + ιsinθ )
    Explanation
    The polar form of a complex number is represented as r(cosθ + ιsinθ). This form combines the magnitude of the complex number, represented by r, with the angle it makes with the positive real axis, represented by θ. The cosine of θ represents the real part of the complex number, while the sine of θ represents the imaginary part. By multiplying r with cosθ and sinθ, and adding them together, we obtain the polar form of the complex number.

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  • 31. 

    |z1 + z2 | =

    • A. 

      > |Z1| + |Z2|

    • B. 

      ≤|Z1| + |Z2|

    • C. 

      ≤ Z1 + Z2

    • D. 

      > Z1 + Z2

    Correct Answer
    B. ≤|Z1| + |Z2|
    Explanation
    The given equation |z1 + z2| = ≤|Z1| + |Z2| is correct. It states that the absolute value of the sum of two complex numbers z1 and z2 is less than or equal to the sum of the absolute values of z1 and z2. This inequality is a result of the triangle inequality in complex numbers, which states that the magnitude of the sum of two complex numbers is always less than or equal to the sum of their magnitudes. Therefore, the correct answer is ≤|Z1| + |Z2|.

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  • 32. 

    Laplace transform of cosωt

    • A. 

      S/s²+ω²

    • B. 

      S²+ω²/s

    • C. 

      S+a/s²+ω²

    • D. 

      ω/s²+ω²

    Correct Answer
    A. S/s²+ω²
    Explanation
    The Laplace transform of cos(ωt) is s/(s²+ω²). This can be derived using the definition of the Laplace transform and the trigonometric identity cos(ωt) = (e^(iωt) + e^(-iωt))/2. By applying the linearity property of the Laplace transform and using the transform of e^(at), the Laplace transform of cos(ωt) simplifies to s/(s²+ω²).

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  • 33. 

    Which one of following is not the vector quantity?

    • A. 

      Torque

    • B. 

      Displacement

    • C. 

      Velocity

    • D. 

      Speed

    Correct Answer
    D. Speed
    Explanation
    Speed is not a vector quantity because it only has magnitude and no direction. It is a scalar quantity that represents the rate at which an object covers distance. On the other hand, torque, displacement, and velocity are all vector quantities as they have both magnitude and direction associated with them. Torque represents the rotational force acting on an object, displacement represents the change in position of an object, and velocity represents the rate at which an object changes its position in a specific direction.

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  • 34. 

    Dimension of torque are

    • A. 

      M² L² T²

    • B. 

      M L² T²

    • C. 

      M L² T⁻²

    • D. 

      M² L² T⁻²

    Correct Answer
    C. M L² T⁻²
    Explanation
    The dimension of torque is given by the formula force multiplied by the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation. Force has dimensions of mass times acceleration (M L T⁻²), and the perpendicular distance has dimensions of length (L). Therefore, the dimensions of torque are M L² T⁻².

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  • 35. 

    The number of significant figures in 3400 is

    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      2

    Correct Answer
    D. 2
    Explanation
    The number 3400 has only two significant figures because the zeros at the end of a number are not considered significant unless there is a decimal point present. In this case, the zeros are just placeholders for the magnitude of the number and do not add any additional precision. Therefore, the significant figures in 3400 are 3 and 4.

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  • 36. 

    Weber/m2 is equal to

    • A. 

      Ddyne

    • B. 

      Tesla

    • C. 

      Henry

    • D. 

      Watt

    Correct Answer
    B. Tesla
    Explanation
    Weber per square meter (Weber/m2) is the unit of magnetic flux density, also known as magnetic induction or magnetic field strength. Tesla is the SI unit for magnetic flux density. Therefore, the correct answer is tesla.

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  • 37. 

    Chronometer measures

    • A. 

      Area

    • B. 

      Time

    • C. 

      Lenght

    • D. 

      Temperature

    Correct Answer
    B. Time
    Explanation
    A chronometer is a device used to measure time accurately. It is often used in fields such as navigation, astronomy, and sports where precise timekeeping is crucial. Chronometers are known for their high level of accuracy and are often used as a standard for timekeeping. Therefore, the correct answer is time.

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  • 38. 

    Which is not a unit of time?

    • A. 

      Leap year

    • B. 

      Year

    • C. 

      Second

    • D. 

      Light year

    Correct Answer
    D. Light year
    Explanation
    A light year is not a unit of time, but a unit of distance. It represents the distance that light travels in one year. It is used to measure vast distances in space, such as the distance between stars or galaxies. In contrast, a leap year, year, and second are all units of time. A leap year is a year with an extra day added to keep the calendar year synchronized with the solar year. A year is the time it takes for the Earth to complete one orbit around the Sun. A second is a basic unit of time in the International System of Units (SI).

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  • 39. 

    Which of the following does not show polarization?

    • A. 

      Transverse wave in gas

    • B. 

      Transverse wave in gas

    • C. 

      Both transverse wave in gas and transverse wave in gas

    • D. 

      None

    Correct Answer
    B. Transverse wave in gas
    Explanation
    Transverse waves in a gas do not show polarization. Polarization refers to the orientation of the electric field vector of a wave. In a transverse wave, the vibrations occur perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. However, in a gas, the particles are randomly oriented and do not have a preferred direction of vibration. Therefore, transverse waves in a gas cannot exhibit polarization.

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  • 40. 

    Which is not properties of a LASER

    • A. 

      Monochromatic

    • B. 

      Coherence

    • C. 

      Collimated

    • D. 

      Ductility

    Correct Answer
    D. Ductility
    Explanation
    Ductility is not a property of a LASER. A LASER (Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation) is a device that emits a coherent, monochromatic, and collimated beam of light. Ductility, on the other hand, is a property of materials that allows them to be stretched or deformed without breaking. It is not relevant to the characteristics of a LASER.

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  • 41. 

      An example for non-luminous object is ___________.

    • A. 

      A candle

    • B. 

      The sun

    • C. 

      An electric bulb

    • D. 

      Moon

    Correct Answer
    D. Moon
    Explanation
    The moon is an example of a non-luminous object because it does not produce its own light. Instead, it reflects the light from the sun, making it visible to us on Earth.

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  • 42. 

    The relation between the focal length and radius of curvature of a mirror is _______.

    • A. 

      F/2+1=f

    • B. 

      R+2=f

    • C. 

      F=R/2

    • D. 

      F+2R

    Correct Answer
    C. F=R/2
    Explanation
    The correct answer is f=R/2. This is because the focal length (f) of a mirror is equal to half of its radius of curvature (R). This relationship holds true for both concave and convex mirrors.

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  • 43. 

    Which is found in nucleus of atom

    • A. 

      Proton only

    • B. 

      Neutron only

    • C. 

      Proton and neutron

    • D. 

      Electron,proton and neutron

    Correct Answer
    C. Proton and neutron
    Explanation
    The correct answer is proton and neutron. Protons and neutrons are both found in the nucleus of an atom. Protons have a positive charge, while neutrons have no charge. Together, they make up the majority of the mass of an atom. Electrons, on the other hand, are found in the electron cloud surrounding the nucleus.

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  • 44. 

    Which one  is not a electromagnetic wave

    • A. 

      Gama ray

    • B. 

      Ultraviolet ray

    • C. 

      X-ray

    • D. 

      Cathode ray

    Correct Answer
    D. Cathode ray
    Explanation
    The given options consist of different types of electromagnetic waves. Gamma rays, ultraviolet rays, and X-rays are all forms of electromagnetic radiation. However, cathode rays are not electromagnetic waves. Cathode rays are a stream of electrons emitted from the cathode in a vacuum tube, and they do not have the characteristics of electromagnetic waves such as wavelength or frequency.

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  • 45. 

    Phon is unit of

    • A. 

      Loudness

    • B. 

      Intensity

    • C. 

      Pitch

    • D. 

      Quality

    Correct Answer
    A. Loudness
    Explanation
    Phon is a unit used to measure the perceived loudness of sound. It is a subjective unit that takes into account the sensitivity of the human ear to different frequencies. The higher the number of phons, the louder the sound is perceived to be. Therefore, loudness is the correct answer as it directly relates to the unit of measurement mentioned in the question.

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  • 46. 

    If 1 A current flows in a circuit, the number of electrons flowing through this circuit is

    • A. 

      0.625 × 1019

    • B. 

      1.6 × 1019

    • C. 

      1.6 × 10 - 19

    • D. 

      0.625 × 10 - 19

    Correct Answer
    D. 0.625 × 10 - 19
    Explanation
    The charge of one electron is 1.6 × 10 - 19 coulomb. Again 1 A current means transferring of 1 coulomb charge per one second. .

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  • 47. 

    The resistivity of the conductor depends on

    • A. 

      Area of the conductor.

    • B. 

      Length of the conductor.

    • C. 

      type of material.

    • D. 

      None of these.

    Correct Answer
    C. type of material.
    Explanation
    The resistivity is a property of material, defined as the resistance between two opposite faces of a cube of a material of unit volume. That is why resistivity is only the unique property of material and it does not depend upon the dimension of any piece of material.

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  • 48. 

    The resistance of a conductor of diameter d and length l is R Ω. If the diameter of the conductor is halved and its length is doubled, the resistance will be

    • A. 

      R Ω

    • B. 

      2R Ω

    • C. 

      4R Ω

    • D. 

      8R Ω

    Correct Answer
    D. 8R Ω
    Explanation
    As per law of resistance, the resistance of the conductor is inversely proportional to its cross-sectional area i.e. it is inversely proportional to the square of the diameter of cross-sectional area of the conductor. As per same law of resistance, the resistance of the conductor is directly proportional to the length of the conductor..

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  • 49. 

    Whenever the magnetic flux changes with respect to an electric conductor or a coil, an EMF is induced in the conductor is Faraday’s

    • A. 

      First law

    • B. 

      second law

    • C. 

      third law

    • D. 

      Fourth law

    Correct Answer
    A. First law
    Explanation
    Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction states

    Whenever a changing flux links with a conductor, there will be an EMF induced in the conductor.
    The magnitude of this induced EMF is directly proportional to the rate of change of flux linkage with respect to time.

    These two statements are well-known as Faraday’s first and second law of electromagnetic induction respectively.

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  • 50. 

    Which of the following represents ohms law

    • A. 

      V = RI

    • B. 

      J = σE

    • C. 

      I = GV

    • D. 

      All of the above

    Correct Answer
    D. All of the above
    Explanation
    These are the different forms to represent the ohms law.Ohms law states that at constant temperature potential difference across the element is directly proportional to current flowing through the element. Ohms law states that at constant temperature current density is directly proportional to field intensity. Ohms law is valid only when temperature and conductivity of the material is constant.

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