Bio Green

114 Questions | Total Attempts: 40

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  • 1. 
    • A. 

      Restore health

    • B. 

      Prevent Casualties

    • C. 

      Enhance human performance

    • D. 

      Ensuring a fit and health force

  • 2. 
    If upon arriving at an industrial facility, you conducted a quantitative assessment to focus Bioenvironmental Engineering (BE) resources on occupational and environmental health (OEH)  related hazards that require additional evaluation, then what type of OEH process assessment have you conducted?
    • A. 

      Routine

    • B. 

      Special

    • C. 

      Periodic

    • D. 

      Termination

  • 3. 
    Anthrax is an example of which biohazardous agent?
    • A. 

      Fungi

    • B. 

      Prions

    • C. 

      Bacteria

    • D. 

      Arboviruses

  • 4. 
    The magnetic field is also known as the
    • A. 

      E field

    • B. 

      H field

    • C. 

      K field

    • D. 

      M field

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      Face velocity

    • B. 

      Duct velocity

    • C. 

      Capture velocity

    • D. 

      Transport velocity

  • 6. 
    If an Air Force member desired stress management education, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction?
    • A. 

      Public Health

    • B. 

      Health Promotion

    • C. 

      Occupational Medicine

    • D. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering

  • 7. 
    Which Code of Federal Regulation deals with protecting human health and welfare as related to the workplace?
    • A. 

      Title 10, Energy

    • B. 

      Title 29, Labor

    • C. 

      Title 40, Protection of Environment

    • D. 

      Title 49, Transportation

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Engineering

    • B. 

      Administrative

    • C. 

      Shelter in Place

    • D. 

      Collective protection

  • 9. 
    • A. 

      Ground- level hazard

    • B. 

      Climbing hazard

    • C. 

      Short duration

    • D. 

      Inaccessible

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Vapor Pressure

    • B. 

      Explosive limit

    • C. 

      Saturation concentration

    • D. 

      Required air flow volume

  • 11. 
    If an Air Force memberof a line unit required clinical care, which aerospace medicine flight would provide the instruction?
    • A. 

      Flight medicine

    • B. 

      Health Promotion

    • C. 

      Aerospace Physiology

    • D. 

      Bioenviornmental engineering

  • 12. 
    Which of the following fully qualified people can verify the accuracy and completeness of all exposure assessment data that is entered into Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS)?
    • A. 

      Bioenviornmental engineer and Bioenviornmental engineer (BE) Apprentice

    • B. 

      BE Apprentice and Civilian Industrial Hygienist

    • C. 

      BE Craftsman and Aerospace Medicine Commander

    • D. 

      Bioenviornmental engineer and Civilian Industrial Hygienist

  • 13. 
    • A. 

      Change personnel behaviors

    • B. 

      Break the chain of infection

    • C. 

      Eliminate the chain of infection

    • D. 

      Implement the use of personal protective equipment

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Compensate for temperature

    • B. 

      Multiply by the correction factor

    • C. 

      Account for the calibration curve

    • D. 

      Calculate the time-weighted average

  • 15. 
    • A. 

      Solid and liquid

    • B. 

      Liquid and gas

    • C. 

      Liquid only

    • D. 

      Gas only

  • 16. 
    Which of the following terms refers to the Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS) data stored on an individual worker’s history of pre-deployment, deployment, and post-deployment exposures?
    • A. 

      Routine exposure

    • B. 

      Vertical record of exposure

    • C. 

      Longitudinal exposure record

    • D. 

      Historical exposure data sheet

  • 17. 
    If a material saftey data sheet (MSDS) is not provided with the initial shipment of a hazardous material, who must request it?
    • A. 

      Public Health

    • B. 

      Ground Safety

    • C. 

      Workplace using the product

    • D. 

      Bioenviornmental engineering

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Above your head

    • B. 

      Close to your body

    • C. 

      In front of your body

    • D. 

      To one side of your body

  • 19. 
    Other than good contaminent control, what is the biggest advantage of local exhaust over dilution ventilation?
    • A. 

      Less noise

    • B. 

      Lower operation costs

    • C. 

      Better protection foe equipment

    • D. 

      Easier worker access to the process

  • 20. 
    • A. 

      Solid and liquid

    • B. 

      Liquid and gas

    • C. 

      Liquid only

    • D. 

      Gas only

  • 21. 
    Accurate routine and special assessment data in Defense Occupational and Environmental Health Readiness System (DOEHRS) is used for what purpose?
    • A. 

      Determine hazardous duty pay

    • B. 

      Determine fitness for duty qualification

    • C. 

      Make recommendations to protect aircraft supplies and equipment

    • D. 

      Make recommendations to protect workers from health threats and risks

  • 22. 
    • A. 

      Substance specific standard

    • B. 

      Hazard Communication standard

    • C. 

      Workplace hazardous chemical inventory

    • D. 

      Hazardous material vulnerability assessment

  • 23. 
    • A. 

      Electrical safety matting

    • B. 

      Safety interlocks

    • C. 

      Wooden fences

    • D. 

      Dummy loads

  • 24. 
    Two major advantages of local exhaust  enclosures are that they provide 
    • A. 

      Better protection for the equipment and less noise

    • B. 

      The best contaminant control with the lowest air volume

    • C. 

      Better air distribution with the lowest air volume

    • D. 

      Easier worker access to the process and lower operating costs

  • 25. 
    An anion has a negative charge because the atom has
    • A. 

      More neutrons than protons

    • B. 

      Fewer neutrons than protons

    • C. 

      More protons than electrons

    • D. 

      Fewer protons than electrons

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      Reassessment

    • B. 

      Conceptual Site Model

    • C. 

      Site Identification/ sectoring

    • D. 

      Pre-deployment/ baseline activities

  • 27. 
    • A. 

      State Emergency Response Comission

    • B. 

      Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act

    • C. 

      Emergency Planning and Community Right -to-know Act

    • D. 

      Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act

  • 28. 
    At the onset of an RFR exposure investigation, make sure the exposed individual gets a 
    • A. 

      Medical evaluation

    • B. 

      Record of exposure

    • C. 

      Thorough interview

    • D. 

      Complete report

  • 29. 
    When performing face velocity measurements, what must you do just before measuring the air flow of a ventilation system?
    • A. 

      Calibrate the survey meter

    • B. 

      Take static pressure measurements

    • C. 

      Identify the key parameter for the system

    • D. 

      Measure out or mentally form a grid over the duct opening

  • 30. 
    The purpose of the plasma membrane within a cell is to
    • A. 

      Break down protein, carbohydrates, acids, and foreign substances that may enter the cell

    • B. 

      Promote electron transport and the citric and fatty acid cycles

    • C. 

      Separate and protect a cell from its surrounding environment

    • D. 

      Break down toxic substances and distribute proteins

  • 31. 
    Which of the following is not a bioenvironmental engineering (BE) role in the occupational and environmental health site assessment/health risk assessment/health risk management (OESHA/HRA/HRM) processes?
    • A. 

      Initiate a concise course of action

    • B. 

      Determine appropriate control options

    • C. 

      Communicate information through your chain of command

    • D. 

      Identify and analyze occupational and environmental health risks at both garrison and deployed locations

  • 32. 
    All of the following characterisics make toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials attractive  improvised weaopons except which one?
    • A. 

      Very large quantities

    • B. 

      Modes of transportation

    • C. 

      Inability to safeguard against

    • D. 

      Potential to cause illness/injury

  • 33. 
    Within what spectral region of the electromagnetic spectrum does ultraviolet radiation fall?
    • A. 

      100-400 nanometers

    • B. 

      400-700 nanometers

    • C. 

      700-1400 nanometers

    • D. 

      1400-3000 nanometers

  • 34. 
    When radiation exposures  to the head and lens of the eye must be evaluated, what is the primary device used to evaluate exposure?
    • A. 

      Collar

    • B. 

      Neutron

    • C. 

      Extremity

    • D. 

      Whole body

  • 35. 
    Within what part of the cell are the functions for cell expansion, growth, and replication carried out?
    • A. 

      Plasma membrane

    • B. 

      Centrioles

    • C. 

      Cytoplasm

    • D. 

      Nucleus

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      It can widen the parameters for analysis by identifying the presence of high potential threats

    • B. 

      It can widen the parameters for analysis by ruling out the presence of high potential threats

    • C. 

      It can narrow the parameters for analysis by ruling out the presence of high potential threats

    • D. 

      It can narrow the parameters for analysis by identifying the presence of high potential threats

  • 37. 
    If a toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials vulnerability assessment fianal report identifies and associates a vulnerability to a specific US military site, it must recieve what classifaction?
    • A. 

      TOP SECRET

    • B. 

      CONFIDENTIAL or SECRET

    • C. 

      FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY

    • D. 

      UNCLASSIFIED

  • 38. 
    The ultraviolet  rays located in the UV-B range of the electromagnetic spectrum are considered the most destructive form of ultraviolet radiation because they
    • A. 

      Have the ability to kill bacteria

    • B. 

      Produce a pigment -darkening effect

    • C. 

      Are the strongest of the ultraviolet rays

    • D. 

      Have enough energy to cause photo chemical damage to cellular DNA

  • 39. 
    Prior to briefing the dosimeter wearer, completing the Listing 1523, and issuing the dosimeter , what must you do to enroll an individual in the dosimertry program?
    • A. 

      Complete the listing 1499

    • B. 

      Establish the exposure history

    • C. 

      Obtain medical examination findings

    • D. 

      Coordinate with the Base Safety Office

  • 40. 
    • A. 

      Muscle

    • B. 

      Nervous

    • C. 

      Epithelial

    • D. 

      Connective

  • 41. 
    Evaluating the enviornmental and industrial conditions that could present health threats at expeditionary locations is the beginning of what process?
    • A. 

      Health risk assessment (HRA)

    • B. 

      Health risk estimate (HRE)

    • C. 

      Operational risk management (ORM)

    • D. 

      Occupational and environmental health site assessment (OESHA)

  • 42. 
    When identifying toxic industrial chemicals and toxic industrial materials in the vicinity of an installation, you should evaluate facilities within
    • A. 

      5 miles of the installation

    • B. 

      10 miles of the installation

    • C. 

      15 miles of the insallation

    • D. 

      20 miles of the installation

  • 43. 
    When considering a non-solar source of ultraviolet radiation, which option would be a suitable engineering control?
    • A. 

      Sunscreen

    • B. 

      Sunglasses

    • C. 

      Filter lenses

    • D. 

      Blocking filters

  • 44. 
    • A. 

      Master Respiratory Inventory

    • B. 

      Certified Respiratory Inventory

    • C. 

      Respirator Respiratory Inventory

    • D. 

      Installation Respiratory Inventory

  • 45. 
    • A. 

      Muscle

    • B. 

      Nervous

    • C. 

      Epithelial

    • D. 

      Connective

  • 46. 
    • A. 

      Bioenviornmental engineering (BE) officer

    • B. 

      BE technician

    • C. 

      Chief of Safety

    • D. 

      Workplace supervisors

  • 47. 
    Your sampling determines workers are exposed to hazerdous chemicals which exceed allowabale exposure limits. If stated in the relevant standard , what should be established?
    • A. 

      Regulated area

    • B. 

      Restricted area

    • C. 

      Remediation area

    • D. 

      Requirements area

  • 48. 
    • A. 

      Phytosensitivity

    • B. 

      Lens yellowing

    • C. 

      Corneal burn

    • D. 

      Flash burn

  • 49. 
    At a minimum , reperators used for emergency use only are required to be inspected 
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Bi-annually

  • 50. 
    The Eustachian tube is a critical to the function of the ear beacause it
    • A. 

      Promotes drainage

    • B. 

      Serves as a receptor for hearing

    • C. 

      Conducts sound to the auditory nerve

    • D. 

      Provides a means of equalizing pressure

  • 51. 
    • A. 

      Evaporation

    • B. 

      Precipitation

    • C. 

      Condensation

    • D. 

      Transpiration

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      A point of contact for HAZMAT (Hazardous material)

    • B. 

      An inventory of hazardous material

    • C. 

      A listing of controls for each hazard

    • D. 

      A tracking system for hazardous material

  • 53. 
    • A. 

      Interlocking doors

    • B. 

      Protective clothing

    • C. 

      Blocking filters

    • D. 

      Canopies

  • 54. 
    Selecting respiratory protection equipment starts with what?
    • A. 

      Calculating the hazard ratio for each containment involved

    • B. 

      Identifying existing engineering and administrative controls

    • C. 

      Identifying work center respiratory hazards that may be present

    • D. 

      Performing a hazard determination of the contaminants involved

  • 55. 
    Skeletal muscle is muscle that
    • A. 

      Contracts strong and rhythmically

    • B. 

      Contracts slowly and rhythmically

    • C. 

      Is dependent upon neighboring muscle fibers

    • D. 

      Acts independently of neighboring muscle fibers

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      Perched

    • B. 

      Saturated

    • C. 

      Artesian

    • D. 

      Unconfined

  • 57. 
    • A. 

      Sample collected over time

    • B. 

      Instantaneous sample taken over a short period of time

    • C. 

      Samples taken must be analyzed by a certified laboratory

    • D. 

      Samples taken to demonstrate compliance with health standards

  • 58. 
    When determining infrared radiation hazard controls , what  is the selction of a barrier dependent upon?
    • A. 

      Wavelength

    • B. 

      Thermal load

    • C. 

      Total exposure time

    • D. 

      Distance from the source

  • 59. 
    To whom does Bioenviornmental Engineer (BE) report findings of a respiratory program review?
    • A. 

      Aeromedical Council and the Combined Occupational Safety and Health Council

    • B. 

      Installation respiratory protection administrator and Aeromedical Council

    • C. 

      Installation Base safety office and combined occupational health working group

    • D. 

      Occupational health working group and installation respiratory protection administartor

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      Lymphatic and respiratory

    • B. 

      Endocrine and lymphatic

    • C. 

      Nervous and endocrine

    • D. 

      Muscular and nervous

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Groundwater has a low turbidity

    • B. 

      Groundwater has a variable supply

    • C. 

      Groundwater has high calcium levels

    • D. 

      It is easy to determine the quantity of ground water

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Gas chromatographs

    • B. 

      Particulate monitors

    • C. 

      photoionization detectors

    • D. 

      Flame ionization detectors

  • 63. 
    Upon what timeframe are the TLV for an occupational exposure of the eyes to nearinfared readiation based?
    • A. 

      7-day work week

    • B. 

      5-day work week

    • C. 

      8-hour workday

    • D. 

      10-hour workday

  • 64. 
    • A. 

      Eliminates need to test oxygen levels

    • B. 

      Dilutes or removes toxic air

    • C. 

      Reduces the atmospheric testing frequency

    • D. 

      Eliminates need to test for toxics substances

  • 65. 
    The secretory products of endocrine glands are called hormones . The role of hormones within the endocrine system is to
    • A. 

      Permit a constant supply of oxygen

    • B. 

      Provide a defense against invading microorganisms

    • C. 

      Regulate the metabolic function of other cells in the body

    • D. 

      Promote continuous and controlled movement of the blood through the capillaries

  • 66. 
    When is water from a surface source considered safe?
    • A. 

      After it tested and approved

    • B. 

      When it comes from melted snow

    • C. 

      After it is approved by the Defense Logistics Agency

    • D. 

      When it is located 100ft away from a contaminated source

  • 67. 
    Your goal using a direct reading instrument (DRI) to perform air sampling is to obtain 
    • A. 

      The quickest air sample possible

    • B. 

      An air sample from the supervisor

    • C. 

      An air sample for the entire shift

    • D. 

      The most representative air sample possible

  • 68. 
    During the process of radioactive decay , what is another name for the electromagnetic force that causes the protons to tear apart the nucleus of the atom?
    • A. 

      Coulomb force

    • B. 

      Positron force

    • C. 

      Isomeric force

    • D. 

      Transformation force

  • 69. 
    The statement that best describes when a master entry plan for confined space for confined space entry can be prepared is when an organization 
    • A. 

      Routinely enters confined spaces and the conditions present only minor health risks

    • B. 

      Enters confined spaces only occasionally and the conditions present only minor risks

    • C. 

      Routinely enters the same confined spaces and the conditions and entry requirements are the same

    • D. 

      Routinely enters a variety of confined spaces but the conditions and entry requirements are the same

  • 70. 
    The arterioles have a key role within the cardiovascular system, because they
    • A. 

      Increase the osmotic pressure

    • B. 

      Inhibit the return of fluid into the capillaries

    • C. 

      Regulate the blood flow into the tissue capillaries

    • D. 

      Facilitate the exchange of materials between the blood and tissue cells

  • 71. 
    • A. 

      Disinfect drinking water sources

    • B. 

      Drill wells for a drinking water source

    • C. 

      Sample and analyze drinking water sources for contamination

    • D. 

      Sample and disinfect drinking water sources for contamination

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      To measure the affects of temperature and pressure changes during shipping

    • B. 

      To measure the affects of temperature and pressure changes during the sampling process

    • C. 

      To determine if any contamination occurred after calibrating the sample pumps and before the sampling began

    • D. 

      To determine if any contamination occurred from the time the media was opened until the time it reached the laboratory

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      Positron

    • B. 

      Gamma

    • C. 

      Alpha

    • D. 

      Beta

  • 74. 
    Since SA is the number of Ci/g of material , what does SA indicate?
    • A. 

      Fewer transformations

    • B. 

      Decreased rate of decay

    • C. 

      Longer half-life

    • D. 

      Increased danger

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      AFOSH STD 91-501

    • B. 

      AFOSH STD 48-136

    • C. 

      AFMAN 48-155

    • D. 

      CFR 1910.162

  • 76. 
    Substances that are produced by or are a by-product of human activities, not biological systems, is a definition of
    • A. 

      Poisons

    • B. 

      Toxicants

    • C. 

      Pollutants

    • D. 

      Germ cells

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      Public Health

    • B. 

      Flight Medicine

    • C. 

      Civil Engineering

    • D. 

      Bioenviornmental engineering

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      Auditory

    • B. 

      Annoyance

    • C. 

      Whole Body

    • D. 

      Nonauditory

  • 79. 
    In pair production, a photon disapperas and an electron and positron appear in its place, providing left over energy from their formation which is
    • A. 

      Transferred only to the positron

    • B. 

      Transferred only to the electron

    • C. 

      Absorbed by the nucleus as kinetic energy

    • D. 

      Shared by the particles as kinetic energy

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      Length of exposure

    • B. 

      Previous survey results

    • C. 

      Primary exposure route

    • D. 

      Health hazard severity category

  • 81. 
    • A. 

      Biotransformation

    • B. 

      Health threat

    • C. 

      Toxic agent

    • D. 

      Dose

  • 82. 
    When must a sanitary survey on a noncommunity water system that uses only protected and disinfected underground water be conducted?
    • A. 

      At least every ten years following the pre-survey

    • B. 

      At least every five years following the pre-survey

    • C. 

      At least every ten years following the initial survey

    • D. 

      At least every five years following the initial survey

  • 83. 
    With regard to noise exposures, whole body effects are also known as
    • A. 

      Nonauditory effects

    • B. 

      Auditory effects

    • C. 

      Threshold effects

    • D. 

      Hearing effects

  • 84. 
    • A. 

      Linear

    • B. 

      Nonlinear

    • C. 

      Stochastic

    • D. 

      Nonstochastic

  • 85. 
    During what step in the routine risk assessment process do you discuss new risks that were not previously identified?
    • A. 

      Worker interviews

    • B. 

      Closing conference

    • C. 

      Opening conference

    • D. 

      Review existing data

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      Dose

    • B. 

      Toxicity

    • C. 

      Response

    • D. 

      Synergism

  • 87. 
    • A. 

      Site examination

    • B. 

      Base sanitary survey

    • C. 

      Aircraft Watering Point Survey

    • D. 

      Water Vulnerability Assessments

  • 88. 
    • A. 

      Fast

    • B. 

      Slow

    • C. 

      Impulse

    • D. 

      Moderate

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      Template

    • B. 

      Traditional

    • C. 

      Nontemplate

    • D. 

      Nontraditional

  • 90. 
    In what  step of an occupational illness investigation does (BE) identify the conditions of circumstances that caused or contributed to the occupational illness?
    • A. 

      Exposure assessment

    • B. 

      Identify noncompliance factors

    • C. 

      Evaluate effectiveness of controls

    • D. 

      Documentation of occupational illness

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      Effective dose

    • B. 

      Threshold dose

    • C. 

      Margin of safety

    • D. 

      Lethal concentration

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      12 hrs

    • B. 

      24 hrs

    • C. 

      10 days

    • D. 

      30 days

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Annually

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Bi-annually

  • 94. 
    An X-ray fluorescent device would be covered under which radiation permit?
    • A. 

      Template

    • B. 

      Traditional

    • C. 

      Nontemplate

    • D. 

      Nontraditional

  • 95. 
    • A. 

      Planning

    • B. 

      Specialized teams

    • C. 

      Disaster response

    • D. 

      Incident commanders

  • 96. 
    • A. 

      Inflammation

    • B. 

      Destruction of tissue due to contact with material

    • C. 

      Reduction of body's capacity to use oxygen

    • D. 

      Depression of central nervous system

  • 97. 
    If the  installation doen not purchase its water froma local municipality, who is responsible for preparing the consumer confidence report?
    • A. 

      Bioenvironmental engineering (BE)

    • B. 

      Military Public Health (MPH)

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM)

    • D. 

      Public affairs

  • 98. 
    • A. 

      A noise dosimeter

    • B. 

      An audiomertic booth

    • C. 

      An octave band analyzer

    • D. 

      An acoustic trauma meter

  • 99. 
    When swipe testing a radiological source, what is the next step after you initially monitor the filter to determine background radiation levels?
    • A. 

      Place a small "X" with a pencil on the filter

    • B. 

      Calculate the net count rate in counts per minute

    • C. 

      Don protective gloves to avoid skin concentrations

    • D. 

      Wipe the source/area thoroughly with filter paper.

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      Incident management plan

    • B. 

      Incident emergency plan

    • C. 

      Incident response plan

    • D. 

      Incident action plan

  • 101. 
    Once you swipe the external surface ofa radioactive material shipment, what step follows?
    • A. 

      Check the swipe paper with an ADM-300

    • B. 

      Verify the integrity of the final source container

    • C. 

      Send the swipe paper in an AF Form 495 to USAFSAM

    • D. 

      Monitor the swipe for background radiation levels using an ADM-300

  • 102. 
    Duringresponse operations ,if you are donning protective equipment to enter a site to perform sampling, to what section of the response structure are you assigned?
    • A. 

      Plans section

    • B. 

      Resources section

    • C. 

      Technical section

    • D. 

      Operations section

  • 103. 
    The Sun heats the earths surface and the air above it causing warm air to rise. As the warm air rises, air pressure
    • A. 

      Decreases causing the air to cool

    • B. 

      Increases causing the air to cool

    • C. 

      Decreases causing the air to become warmer

    • D. 

      Increases causing the air to become warmer

  • 104. 
    There are two types of food chains. Which of the following examples best describes the grazing food chain?
    • A. 

      Detrius-autotrophic succession

    • B. 

      Detrius-saprotrophic succession

    • C. 

      Autotrophic-phagotrophic succession

    • D. 

      Autotrophic-saprotrophic succession

  • 105. 
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      60

  • 106. 
    When would you use octave band analysis(OBA) methos to determine hearing protection device noise attenuation?
    • A. 

      The 8-hr time weighted average (TWA) exceeds

    • B. 

      The 8-hr TWA exceeds 94 dBA

    • C. 

      Instantaneous noise measurement exceeds 84 dBA

    • D. 

      Instantaneous noise measurement exceeds 94 dBA

  • 107. 
    You concsider  recommending time as a control method to limit  workers exposures in a radiation field when
    • A. 

      It is the easiest method to use

    • B. 

      It is the most convenient method to use

    • C. 

      Other methods are inadequate or cannot be used

    • D. 

      Workers will only be in the radiation field a short amount of time

  • 108. 
    The effect the inverse square law has on a persons's exposure to radiataion is that moving away
    • A. 

      Doubles the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 4.

    • B. 

      Doubles the distance from a point source reduces the exposure by a factor of 2

    • C. 

      Decreases the distance from a point source by 1/2 and reduces the exposure by a factor of 1/2

    • D. 

      Decreases the distance from a point source by 1/4 and reduces the exposure by a factor of 1/4

  • 109. 
    • A. 

      Emergency operations and shelter in place

    • B. 

      Deliberately planned and shelter in place

    • C. 

      Emergency operations and contamination control

    • D. 

      Deliberately planned and contamination control

  • 110. 
    Under shelter operations , who spearheads identifying and evaluating installation facilities that can be used as shelters?
    • A. 

      Incident commander

    • B. 

      Base Civil Engineer

    • C. 

      Bioenviornmental engineer

    • D. 

      Installation Safety Officer

  • 111. 
    After you recieve sample results back from your off base support laboratory , what is your next step?
    • A. 

      Ensure the units of measurements are the same for results and standard

    • B. 

      Convert the sample results to standard temperature and pressure

    • C. 

      Convert the sample results to parts per million

    • D. 

      Select the correct standard

  • 112. 
    If you are deployed to a new location, a priority for effective operation of field communications equipment is to make sure
    • A. 

      Your equipment is integrated with other responders at the new location

    • B. 

      You establish a proper call sign to used during radio transmission communications

    • C. 

      Your equipment is matches up with the equipment listed on the allowance standard

    • D. 

      There are no range limitations with your equipment upon arriving at the deployed location

  • 113. 
    When responding to an incident, what refrence is available to all resonders and outlines all of the communications equipment used at the incident site?
    • A. 

      Field communications guidebook

    • B. 

      Incident radio communications plan

    • C. 

      Bioenvironmental Engineering Field manual

    • D. 

      Emergency Operations Security (OPSEC) plan

  • 114. 
    During postincident operations , commanders apply what principle skill-set in mitigating and managing threats and risks?
    • A. 

      Operational risk management

    • B. 

      Threat identifacation management

    • C. 

      Situational awareness management

    • D. 

      Production and operations management