Can You Pass This Ambulatory Trivia Test?

66 Questions | By Alexlai67 | Last updated: Mar 22, 2022 | Total Attempts: 249

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Can You Pass This Ambulatory Trivia Test? - Quiz

Can you pass this ambulatory trivia test? It is the first in a series of tests that are designed to help a learner pass their main exams at the end of the year. Take it up and consider it as Ambulatory diagnostics practice for the midterm exams. All the best and keep an eye out for others just like it!

Questions and Answers

1.

Specificity (in the context of laboratory testing) refers to
- A.
  
  The ability of a test to be negative in the absence of disease
- B.
  
  The likelihood that a person suffering from a particular disease will have a positive test result
- C.
  
  How often false negative results are encountered
- D.
  
  The ability of a test method to detect small quantities of the measured component
2.

Serial tests are:
- A.
  
  A group of tests done simultaneously to support a diagnosis
- B.
  
  Useful for justifying procedures that involve risks or expense
- C.
  
  Repeated tests done to approach the same value (coefficient of variation)
- D.
  
  Blood tests drawn at specific time intervals
3.

Waived CLIA tests include:
- A.
  
  Western blot test
- B.
  
  Urine sediment microscopy
- C.
  
  Urine dipstick
- D.
  
  Wet prep slides
4.

Which statement is FALSE regarding wellness screening?
- A.
  
  Wellness screening is defined as testing for asymptomatic individuals who are basically healthy according to their risk profile
- B.
  
  There is general consensus for screening recommendations in all age groups
- C.
  
  Insurance companies differ on coverage for screening tests
- D.
  
  Nurse practitioners focus on this aspect of primary care
5.

A new male patient in your office with no reported health problems provides a urine specimen which is positive for protein. Your response to this finding it to:
- A.
  
  Repeat the urine for protein test and check for blood
- B.
  
  Schedule an IVP test
- C.
  
  Treat empirically for a UTI
- D.
  
  Do nothing at this time. Protein is a benign finding
6.

Ideally, urine protein is best measured by a:
- A.
  
  Protein electrophoresis urine test
- B.
  
  24 hour urine for protein and creatinine
- C.
  
  Random specimen collection with calculated protein/creatinine ratio
- D.
  
  Microscopic exam of the urine sediment
7.

Protein in the urine that measures over 3 gm/24 hour is:
- A.
  
  Usually coming from the renal tubules
- B.
  
  Protein immunoglobulin
- C.
  
  Mainly albumin
- D.
  
  Indicative of mild renal insufficiency
8.

Microalbuminuria is a condition that:
- A.
  
  Is not detected by dipstick when
- B.
  
  Indicates end stage nephropathy
- C.
  
  Requires calcium channel blocker therapy to halt progression
- D.
  
  Should be checked every two years in diabetic patients
9.

The diagnosis of urinary tract infection is based on a patient’s symptoms and the result of a urinalysis that includes all the following elements EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  White blood cells
- B.
  
  Nitrite
- C.
  
  Leukocyte esterase
- D.
  
  Urobilinogen
10.

A 62 yo patient presents for a physical examination with no complaints. You instruct him to collects stool specimens using three guaic stool cards. A week later, he returns them to the lab and all three test positive. Your response will be to :
- A.
  
  Schedule him for an air contrast barium enema
- B.
  
  Schedule him for a colonoscopy
- C.
  
  Repeat the stool guiac tests
- D.
  
  Schedule him for an upper endoscopy
11.

A common risk factor for patients who develop infectious diarrhea is:
- A.
  
  Exposure to day care centers
- B.
  
  Drinking contaminated water
- C.
  
  Eating undercooked pork
- D.
  
  Ingesting water from a swimming pool
12.

M.R. is undergoing chemotherapy for breast cancer. Her CBC is as follows: WBC: 2,000 Differential: 10% neutrophils, 85% lymphocytes, 5% monocytes What is her absolute neutrophil count?
- A.
  
  100
- B.
  
  200
- C.
  
  1000
- D.
  
  1700
13.

An 80 yo male patient has the following CBC: Hematocrit 29.2 Hemoglobin: 12.8 Platelets 150,000 WBC 83,000 PMN 12% Lymph 83% Mono 4% Eos 1%What is the diagnosis?
- A.
  
  Anemia of chronic disease
- B.
  
  Thrombocytopenia
- C.
  
  Microcytic anemia
- D.
  
  Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
14.

Macrocytes can be seen on the peripheral smear of patients with all of the following EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Iron deficiency
- B.
  
  Vitamin B deficiency
- C.
  
  Folate deficiency
- D.
  
  Liver disease
15.

After migration into tissues, basophils undergo transformation into:
- A.
  
  Macrophages
- B.
  
  Mast cells
- C.
  
  Kuppfer cells
- D.
  
  Monocytes
16.

CD4 and CD8 markers are found on:
- A.
  
  T-lymphocytes
- B.
  
  B-cells
- C.
  
  Eosinophils
- D.
  
  Basophils
17.

All of the following statements regarding WBC’s are true EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Monocytes become macrophages
- B.
  
  Lymphocytes are the most numerous cells
- C.
  
  Eosinophils may be associated with pararsitic infections
- D.
  
  Neutrophils are phagocytic
18.

All of the following are characteristic findings in a patient with iron-deficiency anemia EXCEPT:
- A.
  
  Microcytic, hypochromic red cell morphology
- B.
  
  Elevated reticulocyte count
- C.
  
  Elevated platelet count along with small platelets
- D.
  
  Decreased ferrritin
19.

Your patient’s labs reveal Hgb 10 (12-16), Hct 30 (37-47), MCV 88 (80-100), MCH 30 (27-31) and MCHC 34 (33-37). The RBC’s on the peripheral smear would appear:
- A.
  
  Hypochromic, microcytic
- B.
  
  Normochromic, microcytic
- C.
  
  Normochromic, normocytic
- D.
  
  Hypochromic, normocytic
20.

Which of the following tests is NOT usually included in a routine CBC?
- A.
  
  Reticulocyte count
- B.
  
  Total erythrocyte count
- C.
  
  Platelet count
- D.
  
  Total leukocyte count
21.

When the body is invaded by pyogenic bacteria, a dramatic increase in the number of what type of white cell occurs?
- A.
  
  Circulating eosinophils
- B.
  
  Circulating neutrophils
- C.
  
  Large lymphocytes
- D.
  
  Monocytes
22.

An acutely ill, mildly febrile patient presents with the following CBC: WBC 5,100 (5,000-10,000) Neutrophils 25% (60-70%) Bands 7% (<5%) Lymphs 54% (20-40%) Atypical lymphs 14% This is most likely consistent with infection caused by:
- A.
  
  Protozoans
- B.
  
  Viruses
- C.
  
  Encapsulated bacteria
- D.
  
  Mycobacterium
23.

Mrs. J is a 48 yo woman who developed iron deficiency anemia secondary to perimenopausal bleeding successfully treated by endometrial ablation. Her hematocrit is 25% and she was started on iron therapy. At five days into therapy, you wish to check the efficacy of the treatment. The best laboratory test would be:
- A.
  
  FE/TIBC
- B.
  
  Hematocrit
- C.
  
  Reticulocyte count
- D.
  
  Ferritin
24.

One month into therapy you wish to check the efficacy of the intervention. The best laboratory test is:
- A.
  
  FE/TIBC
- B.
  
  Hematocrit
- C.
  
  Reticulocyte count
- D.
  
  Ferritin
25.

The majority of the body’s iron is obtained from:
- A.
  
  Food sources
- B.
  
  Water supply
- C.
  
  Endoplasmic reticulum production
- D.
  
  Recycled iron content from aged RBC’s