Aircraft Maintenance - A10/u2/uav Quiz

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Aircraft Maintenance Quizzes & Trivia

The A10s and U2 have gone through more congressional hearings than just about any senator, surviving at least 5 different hearings to cancel the use of the Hog and replace them with newer jets. How equipped are you to maintain and repair such jets? Take up the quiz below and know for sure.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What type of fuselage construction is used in the A-10 airframe? 
    • A. 

      Monocoque

    • B. 

      Semi-monocoque

    • C. 

      Empennage

    • D. 

      Module

  • 2. 
    What is the name of the shielded and sealed compartments in the cockpit that enclose the pitch and roll flight control system mechanisms?
    • A. 

      The hot area

    • B. 

      The black area

    • C. 

      The white area

    • D. 

      Flight control box

  • 3. 
    Which description details the materials used to make the windshield assembly?
    • A. 

      Bullet- and bird resistant laminated glass center panel, and bird- chip-resistant curved laminated side panels

    • B. 

      Bullet- and bird resistant sheet glass center panel, and bird- chip-resistant curved sheet glass side panels

    • C. 

      Bullet- and bird resistant laminated glass center panel, and bird- chip-resistant curved laminated plexiglass side panels

    • D. 

      Bullet- and bird resistant laminated plexiglass center panel, and bird- chip-resistant curved laminated plexiglass side panels

  • 4. 
    How is windshield de-icing accomplished?
    • A. 

      Isopropyl alcohol sprayed from a heated and pressurized bottle in the nose below the center windscreen

    • B. 

      Hot exhaust gases ducted to the center and side windshields from the third stage bleed air from both engines

    • C. 

      By an energized heater element embedded in the windshield center panel glass and laminated to the inboard side of the panels outer layers

    • D. 

      By a small heater element centered in the lower portion of each windshield panels that is held in place by a spring-clip

  • 5. 
    To which section of the fuselage is the wing attached?
    • A. 

      The empennage

    • B. 

      The center section

    • C. 

      The fuselage wing box

    • D. 

      The fuselage

  • 6. 
    What are the three sections of the wing?
    • A. 

      Center

    • B. 

      Left wing

    • C. 

      Right wing

    • D. 

      Left and right outer panels

  • 7. 
    What airframe section consists of the horizontal aand two vertical stabilizers?
    • A. 

      The empennage

    • B. 

      The center section

    • C. 

      The fuselage wing box

    • D. 

      The fuselage

  • 8. 
    How are access panels and doors designate?
    • A. 

      Numerically, depending on location

    • B. 

      Numerically, depending on size

    • C. 

      Alpha-numerically

    • D. 

      By location

  • 9. 
    Why is the angle-of-attack vane is considered a dangerous component?
    • A. 

      Because the probe extends out from the skin of the airframe

    • B. 

      Because the heat generated can cause serious burn injuries

    • C. 

      Because it can be ingested into an engine intake

    • D. 

      Because of the potential to become a dropped-object

  • 10. 
    How long after engine shutdown are A10 engine exhausts considered hazardous? 
    • A. 

      5 minutes

    • B. 

      10 minutes

    • C. 

      15 minutes

    • D. 

      20 minutes

  • 11. 
    Why must you close the left engine's inboard nacelle door prior to operating the APU?
    • A. 

      Because it forms part of the APU exhaust ducting

    • B. 

      Because it forms part of the APU intake ducting

    • C. 

      Because of the location of the APU exhaust

    • D. 

      Because of the location of the APU intake

  • 12. 
    How can noise levels be reduced during engine runs?
    • A. 

      By installing aircraft engine noise suppression devices

    • B. 

      By shutting down the APU after engine start

    • C. 

      By running in selected open aircraft run-up areas

    • D. 

      By running engines only during daytime hours - from dawn to dusk

  • 13. 
    What are the hazards associated with RF radiation?
    • A. 

      Damage to the human body/tissues

    • B. 

      Ignition of fuel vapors/spark

    • C. 

      Accidental firing of electroexplosive devices/EED

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 14. 
    What type of landing gear arrangement does the A-10 have?
    • A. 

      Conventional tri-cycle arrangement

    • B. 

      Standard nose wheel and truck assembly

    • C. 

      Unconventional crosswing-crab steering tri-cycle arrangement

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 15. 
    When the aircraft is airborne, what keeps the MLG strut piston in the fully extended position?
    • A. 

      By an internal downlock

    • B. 

      By an external downlock

    • C. 

      By left system hydraulic pressure

    • D. 

      By the pressurized nitrogen inside the strut

  • 16. 
    What supports the combined weight of the wheel, brake and pressurized piston assembly when the MLG shock strut is fully extended?
    • A. 

      The shock strut mounts

    • B. 

      The shock strut

    • C. 

      The gland nut

    • D. 

      The trunnion

  • 17. 
    If there is doubt that the drag strut actuator is locked, what can you do to determine whether the actuator lock is fully engaged?
    • A. 

      Jack the aircraft and conduct a landing gear retraction/extension checkout

    • B. 

      Measure the exposed drag strut piston; less than 1/4" is safe

    • C. 

      Measure the exposed drag strut piston; greater than 1/4" is safe

    • D. 

      Using a pry bar, apply pressure to the lower side of the drag strut until the downlock segments engage

  • 18. 
    What prevents rotation of the exposed MLG wheel during flight?
    • A. 

      The parking brake system pressure

    • B. 

      The MLG brake system pressure

    • C. 

      The anti-rotation snubber assembly

    • D. 

      The weight-on-wheels switch

  • 19. 
    What is used to determine the MLG wheel brake wear?
    • A. 

      A brake-wear depth guage

    • B. 

      A squeal indicating pin that connects to the pressure plate

    • C. 

      A self-adjusting return spring that connects to the pressure plate

    • D. 

      A hydraulic pressure safety switch that monitors the amount of fluid pressure required to slow the aircraft

  • 20. 
    How are the NLG centering cams disengaged?
    • A. 

      Automatically when there is weight on the nose wheel

    • B. 

      Mechanically when there is weight on the nose wheel

    • C. 

      Automatically when the gear are lowered

    • D. 

      Mechanically when the gear are lowered

  • 21. 
    What is the difference between the drag strut acutator on the NLG and the actuator on MLG?
    • A. 

      NLG actuator is smaller

    • B. 

      MLG actuator is made from steel

    • C. 

      Nothing - they are identical

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 22. 
    What type of tire is used on the NLG wheel and tire assembly?
    • A. 

      12 x 7.7, Type VII, 14-ply, low-pressure tubeless

    • B. 

      24 x 7.7, Type VII, 14-ply, low-pressure tubeless

    • C. 

      12 x 7.7, Type VII, 14-ply, high-pressure tubeless

    • D. 

      24 x 7.7, Type VII, 14-ply, high-pressure tubeless

  • 23. 
    If the landing gear handle is down and the gear in transit, what is the indication given by the landing gear warning system? 
    • A. 

      Red warning light in handle and an audible warning signal in headset

    • B. 

      No warning light in handle and only an audible warning signal in headset

    • C. 

      Red warning light in handle and no audible warning signal in headset

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 24. 
    What type of hydraulic actuator does teh A-10 nose wheel steering unit use?
    • A. 

      Rotary-type hydraulic steering actuator

    • B. 

      Sliding-pistion hydraulic actuator

    • C. 

      A butterfly-gate hydraulic actuator

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 25. 
    Identify the modes of operation for teh nose wheel steering system.
    • A. 

      Steering

    • B. 

      Fail-safe

    • C. 

      Damper-caster

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 26. 
    What mode does the nose wheel steering operate in when the steering mode is disengaged?
    • A. 

      Steering

    • B. 

      Fail-safe

    • C. 

      Damper-caster

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 27. 
    Why is there a difference between the left and right steering/turning angles?
    • A. 

      Due to the off-set position of the nose wheel to the right to accomodate the 30mm gun

    • B. 

      Due to the off-set position of the nose wheel to the left to accomodate the 30mm gun

    • C. 

      Due to the off-set position of the nose wheel to accomodate the crew entry ladder

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 28. 
    What must be done to prevent free-swivel of the nose gear during nose gear jacking?
    • A. 

      The nose gear wheel assembly must be removed

    • B. 

      Install the nose gear jacking lock-pin into the hole in the collar assembly

    • C. 

      Install the nose gear wheel lock-out bar between the nose gear wheel and the mount bolts on the strut

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 29. 
    What component of the normal wheel brake system ports metered hydraulic pressure from the landing gear down line to the anti-skid control valve during braking?
    • A. 

      The brake control valve

    • B. 

      The brake system pressure switches

    • C. 

      The brake system metering valve

    • D. 

      The dual power brake valve

  • 30. 
    How is the emergency brake system activated?
    • A. 

      Automatically, once primary brake system pressure is lost

    • B. 

      Pulling the EMER BRAKE handle aft, and then depressing the brake pedals

    • C. 

      Pulling the EMER BRAKE handle aft and depressing the brake pedals simultaneously

    • D. 

      Pulling the EMER BRAKE handle aft

  • 31. 
    The emergency brake system is fully independent of the normal brake system except for what components?
    • A. 

      Dual-power brake valve

    • B. 

      Brake shuttle valve

    • C. 

      Brake assembly

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 32. 
    What provides emergency braking power if the left and right hydraulic systems fail?
    • A. 

      The left and right hydraulic system accumulators

    • B. 

      The emergency brake accumulator

    • C. 

      The left hydraulic system accumulator only

    • D. 

      The right hydraulic system accumulator only

  • 33. 
    Which condition(s) would cause the anti-skid circuits to be inoperative?
    • A. 

      Anti-skid system is not manually engaged

    • B. 

      System fail-safe malfunction occurs

    • C. 

      No weight on wheels

    • D. 

      Aircraft speed less than 10 kts

  • 34. 
    What part of the A-10 drag strut actuators retains the gears in the down position?
    • A. 

      The downlock segments in the drag strut actuators

    • B. 

      The downlock hook on the drag strut actuator

    • C. 

      The uplock roller on the MLG strut

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 35. 
    What prevents inadvertant landing gear retraction by preventing landing gear UP power from reaching the landing gear control vlave while the aircarft is on the gound?
    • A. 

      Weight on wheels switches

    • B. 

      Landing gear system control valve

    • C. 

      Landing gear system selector valve

    • D. 

      Landing gear check valve

  • 36. 
    What are the sources of hydraulic pressure for the auxiliary landing gear extension system?
    • A. 

      Left hydraulic system

    • B. 

      Right hydraulic system

    • C. 

      Auxiliary landing gear accumulator

    • D. 

      Airstream and gravity

  • 37. 
    Where is the AUX LG EXT handle located?
    • A. 

      Left side of the pedestal

    • B. 

      Right side of the pedestal

    • C. 

      Below the LG EXT handle

    • D. 

      Next to the ejection seat handle

  • 38. 
    During auxiliary landing gear extension, what causes the gear to extend to the down and locked position?
    • A. 

      Left hydraulic system

    • B. 

      Right hydraulic system

    • C. 

      Auxiliary landing gear accumulator

    • D. 

      Airstream and gravity

  • 39. 
    What system allows the A-10 to maneuver about its lateral axis?
    • A. 

      Pitch (elevators) control system

    • B. 

      Yaw (rudder) control system

    • C. 

      Roll (aileron) control system

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 40. 
    What causes the A-10 elevator trailing edges to move down and up?
    • A. 

      Elevator control acutators

    • B. 

      Forward and aft stick movements

    • C. 

      Manually operating the elevator trim control wheel

    • D. 

      The autopilot control box

  • 41. 
    What do the A-10 pitch disconnectors do?
    • A. 

      Disengage the elevators from autopilot system control

    • B. 

      Free the control stick from a control path jam

    • C. 

      Remove all trim inputs and return the elevators to neutral

    • D. 

      Set the elevators to 2% nose up for landing

  • 42. 
    What components make up the decelerons?
    • A. 

      Elevators

    • B. 

      Decelerons

    • C. 

      Ailerons

    • D. 

      Stablizers

  • 43. 
    How are the A-10 rudders moved by the pilot?
    • A. 

      With YAW control inputs using the flight control stick

    • B. 

      With YAW control inputs using the rudder pedals

    • C. 

      With PITCH control inputs using the flight control stick

    • D. 

      With PITCH control inputs using the fudder pedals

  • 44. 
    What are the A-10 flaps used for?
    • A. 

      Provide additional lift during take-off, landing and maneuvering

    • B. 

      Provide additional drag during take-off and during maneuvering

    • C. 

      Provide additional lift on landing

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 45. 
    Where is the A-10 flap lever located
    • A. 

      Below the landing gear control lever

    • B. 

      On the right control console

    • C. 

      On the throttle quadrant

    • D. 

      On the left control console

  • 46. 
    What are the A-10 flap settings?
    • A. 

      Up

    • B. 

      Down

    • C. 

      MVR

    • D. 

      Hold

  • 47. 
    What position do the A-10 slats go to when there is a loss of hydraulic and electrical power?
    • A. 

      They return to the stowed position

    • B. 

      They extend to the full-open position

    • C. 

      They extend/retract to the half open position

    • D. 

      They extend/retract to the three-quarter open position

  • 48. 
    What is the purpose of the A-10 speedbrakes?
    • A. 

      Increase drag on landing

    • B. 

      Reduce the aircarft speed in flight

    • C. 

      Reduce drag on landing

    • D. 

      Increase the aircraft manuevering speed in flight

  • 49. 
    What are the rubber strips on the A-10 speed brake used for?
    • A. 

      To reduce the chaffing caused by out-of-trim speed brakes when stowed

    • B. 

      To prevent prevent the panels from slamming together when closing

    • C. 

      To act as lightweight trim shims for the speed brakes

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 50. 
    What components make up the hydraulic power supply package?
    • A. 

      Bootstrap hydraulic reservoir

    • B. 

      Hydraulic accumulator

    • C. 

      Hydraulic supply module

    • D. 

      Bootstrap accumulator

  • 51. 
    What is the purpose of the bootstrap hydraulic reservoir?
    • A. 

      Stores hydraulic fluid for system use

    • B. 

      Stores hydraulic fluid for emergency use

    • C. 

      Supplies hydraulic fluid to the engine driven hydraulic pumps

    • D. 

      Supplies hydraulic fluid to the APU-driven hydraulic pump

  • 52. 
    What component stabilizes the bootstrap pressure?
    • A. 

      The bootstrap pressure regulator

    • B. 

      The bootstrap accumulator

    • C. 

      The bootstrap pressure relief valve

    • D. 

      The bootstrap pressure bleed valve

  • 53. 
    What component provides an outlet for bleeding air and relieving excess fluid from the bootstrap reservoir?
    • A. 

      The hydraulic system snubber

    • B. 

      The balanced relief valve

    • C. 

      The relief/bleed valve

    • D. 

      The fluid sampling valve

  • 54. 
    How is the system shutoff cartridge valve closed?
    • A. 

      When the FLT CONT switch on the EMER FLT control panel is set to MAN REV

    • B. 

      When the FLT CONT switch on the EMR FLT control panel is set to OFF

    • C. 

      When the FLT CONT switch on the EMR FLT control panel is set to ON

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 55. 
    What component reduces hydraulic fluid pressure impulses to the hydraulic low-pressure switch?
    • A. 

      Balanced relief valve

    • B. 

      Dump valve

    • C. 

      Snubber

    • D. 

      Accumulator

  • 56. 
    How many GPM is the engine-driven hydraulic pump capable of delivering?
    • A. 

      43 (+/- 0.2) GPM

    • B. 

      45 (+/- 0.3) GPM

    • C. 

      47 (+/- 0.5) GPM

    • D. 

      49 (+/- 0.7) GPM

  • 57. 
    How is hydraulic fluid temperature controlled?
    • A. 

      A fuel/hydraulic oil cooler installed in the right wing fuel tank

    • B. 

      A hydraulic oil cooler that uses bypass air as a coolant

    • C. 

      A fuel/hydraulic oil cooler installed in the bypass duct

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 58. 
    What is the purpose of the APU hydraulic system?
    • A. 

      To provide hydraulic pressure to the left or right hydraulic system for limited ground use

    • B. 

      To provide hydraulic pressure to the left or right hydraulic system for limited flight use

    • C. 

      To provide hydraulic pressure to the left system only for limited ground use

    • D. 

      To provide hydraulic pressure to the left system only for emergency use

  • 59. 
    What is the rated capacity of the APU hydraulic pump?
    • A. 

      3,000 psi @ 10 GPM

    • B. 

      3,200 psi @ 15 GPM

    • C. 

      3,500 psi @ 17 GPM

    • D. 

      3,700 psi @ 20 GPM

  • 60. 
    Why is the operating time for the APU limited to five (5) minutes if the APU generator switch is not set to PWR?
    • A. 

      The cooling fan is not operating

    • B. 

      The cooling fan will only operate for five (5) minutes without the switch set to PWR

    • C. 

      The APU battery will drain with the fan running without electrical power

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 61. 
    What prevents the possibility of the A-10 aircraft flying with the manual transfer valve in the left or right system (L SYS or R SYS) selected position? 
    • A. 

      The selector handle must be in the STOWED/FLT position in order for the access panel to be closed for flight

    • B. 

      There is no way to select L SYS or R SYS, the transfer valve only has OPEN or CLOSE detents

    • C. 

      There is no manual transfer valve selector handle, transfer is automatic when a pressure differential exists

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 62. 
    Which hydraulic reservoir supplies hydraulic fluid to cool and lubricate the APU hydraulic pump when the APU is operating, but not supplying hydraulic pressure?
    • A. 

      The left hydraulic rerservoir

    • B. 

      The right hydraulic reservoir

    • C. 

      The APU hydraulic reservoir

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 63. 
    What percentage of A-10 engine thrust does the bypass stream from the fan account for?
    • A. 

      65%

    • B. 

      75%

    • C. 

      85%

    • D. 

      95%

  • 64. 
    What type of compressor does the TF34-GE-100A use?
    • A. 

      14 stage, axial-flow

    • B. 

      12 stage, direct-flow

    • C. 

      14 stage, direct-flow

    • D. 

      12-stage, axial-flow

  • 65. 
    What drives the TF34-GE-100A compressor?
    • A. 

      The low-pressure turbine (LPT) using a splined shaft

    • B. 

      The high-pressure turbine (HPT) using a splined shaft

    • C. 

      Bypass air

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 66. 
    What configuartion is utilized by the combustor of the TF34-GE-100A?
    • A. 

      Can

    • B. 

      Can-annular

    • C. 

      Annular

    • D. 

      None of the aobve

  • 67. 
    What part of the turbine section funnels hot gases from the HPT to the LPT rotor?
    • A. 

      The bypass duct

    • B. 

      A splined shadft

    • C. 

      The transition assembly

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 68. 
    Select the components that make up the TF34-GE-100A accessory drive section.
    • A. 

      Internal power takeoff (PTO) shaft

    • B. 

      Splined transfer shaft

    • C. 

      Radial drive shaft

    • D. 

      Accessory gear box

  • 69. 
    What type of oil system does the A-10's IDG have?
    • A. 

      Self-contained, dry sump

    • B. 

      Self-contained, wet sump

    • C. 

      Seperate lubrication and cooling loops

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 70. 
    What air sources can the A-10 engine starting system utilize?
    • A. 

      APU

    • B. 

      External air cart

    • C. 

      Operating engine

    • D. 

      Starter cartridge

  • 71. 
    What core RPM can the air turbine starter system capable of motoring an A-10 engine?
    • A. 

      18%

    • B. 

      28%

    • C. 

      38%

    • D. 

      48%

  • 72. 
    When three times do the TF34-GE-100A igniters produce a spark?
    • A. 

      During engine start

    • B. 

      During gun fire

    • C. 

      During engine stall

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 73. 
    What oil tank component captures ferrous metal chips in the oil system for the TF34-GE-100A?
    • A. 

      A drain valve

    • B. 

      A magnetic chip detector

    • C. 

      A combination magnetic chip detector / drain valve

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 74. 
    What is the pourpose of the auxiliary lubrication system?
    • A. 

      Supplies continuous oil flow to the AGB during zero- or negative-G manuevers

    • B. 

      Supplies continuous oil flow to the #1 and #2 engines duing zero- or negative-G manuevers

    • C. 

      Supplies continuous oil flow to the APU during zero- or negative-G manuevers

    • D. 

      Supplies continuous oil flow to the #3 bearing during zero- or negative-G manuevers

  • 75. 
    How does the TF34-GE-100A engine oil cooler operate?
    • A. 

      Using engine bypass air that passes over the externally mounted oil cooler box

    • B. 

      By passing oil over baffles several times before exiting the oil cooler

    • C. 

      By using a heat transfer between the oil and fuel lines that are routed side by side in the oil cooler box

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 76. 
    Select the indications provided by the A-10 engine indication system.
    • A. 

      Fuel flow

    • B. 

      Fan and core speed (RPM)

    • C. 

      Oil pressure

    • D. 

      Interstage turbine temperature (ITT)

  • 77. 
    How does the A-10 turbine engine monitoring systems (TEMS) save the Air Force time, money and man-hours?
    • A. 

      Replaces the need for troubleshooting engine malfunctions

    • B. 

      Replaces the concept of removing engines after a specified number of operating hours

    • C. 

      Replaces the engine operating parameters with electronic system monitoring and adjustment

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 78. 
    What is the purpose of the color-coded identification markers on the wires and discharge tubes of the A-10 fire extinguishing system?
    • A. 

      To ensure correct electrical connection of power wires

    • B. 

      To ensure the proper sequence of disconnection to prevent inadvertant dishcarge

    • C. 

      To ensure correct mechanical connection of tubing

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 79. 
    What events take place when the A-10 fire extinguisher handle is pulled?
    • A. 

      The fire extinghuisher system is armed

    • B. 

      Fuel flow is cut-off to affected engine or APU

    • C. 

      10th stage bleed air is shut-off

    • D. 

      Fire retardant is discharged

  • 80. 
    How does the A-10 fire extinguishing system indicate to the user which container has been previously selected and dishcarged?
    • A. 

      The discharge switch remains in the last position selected

    • B. 

      A discharge indicator light remains illuminated on the fire control panel

    • C. 

      By a visual indicator on the affected engine pylon or the APU access door panel

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
    How many fire extinguisher containers are on the A-10?
    • A. 

      Each aircraft has only 1 container located in the AFT fuselage

    • B. 

      Each aircraft has 2 containers located in the AFT fuselage

    • C. 

      Each aircraft has 3 containers located in the AFT fuselage

    • D. 

      Each aircraft has 3 containers and 1 back-up in the AFT fuselage

  • 82. 
    What is the purpose of the two-way check valves in the A-10 fire extinguishing system?
    • A. 

      The check valves are part of the distribution manifolds

    • B. 

      The check valves prevent the flow of agent to the unselected container

    • C. 

      Serve as a common outflow port with flow direction indicated by arrows

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 83. 
    How do the TF34-GE-100A engines get fuel if al the fuel boost pumps fail?
    • A. 

      An emergency RAM air scoop powers reserve boost pumps installed in each tank

    • B. 

      The engine driven pumps suction feed fuel to the engines at altitudes up to 10,000 feet

    • C. 

      Fuel is gravity fed from the center wing reserve tank once the fuel selector knob has been place to GRAV

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 84. 
    What type of fuel tanks are the A-10 main fuel tanks?
    • A. 

      Bladder

    • B. 

      Integral

    • C. 

      Combination integral-bladder

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 85. 
    What is the purpose of teh A-10's anti-flowering backing board installed between the fuel tank cavity structure and the fuel tank?
    • A. 

      To absorb the impact of projectiles and prevent tearing of the tank structure

    • B. 

      To prevent chaffing of the tank and the structure

    • C. 

      To prevent the growth of microbial organisms in the fuel if water is present in the fuel

    • D. 

      To serve as a connection point for the bladder during installation

  • 86. 
    What components of the A-10's internal fuel system are unique to the left main tank?
    • A. 

      DC starting fuel pump

    • B. 

      Five (5) motor operated valves and a tank gate motor operated shutoff valve

    • C. 

      Centerline external tank refueling shutoff valve

    • D. 

      Fuel vent tank assembly

  • 87. 
    What is the purpose of the polyurethane foam installed in the wing tanks?
    • A. 

      To serve as ballast as fuel is consumed in flight and displace fuel vapors

    • B. 

      To prevent accumulation of fuel vapors above fuel level and to support the bladders

    • C. 

      To absorb projectiles that access the fuel storage area in the wing and to prevent cavitation of the tank during zero- and negative-G manuevers

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 88. 
    What part of teh A-10 main tank fuel boost pumps traps fuel to allow 10 seconds of normal engine operation during negative-G or inverted flight?
    • A. 

      Flapper valve

    • B. 

      Polyurethane foam

    • C. 

      Dump valve

    • D. 

      The UARRSI shutoff valve

  • 89. 
    What is the purpose of the dual check valve assembly on the A-10 wing tank boost pump?
    • A. 

      Allows fuel to gravity feed

    • B. 

      Allows fuel to gravity feed from the wing tanks to the external fuel tanks during flight

    • C. 

      Allows fuel to gravity feed from the wing tanks to the main tanks at any point during flight

    • D. 

      Allows fuel to gravity feed from the wing tanks to the main tanks when fuel level in main tanks drops below the fuel level in the wings

  • 90. 
    What A-10 fuel system component's primary function is to provide fuel for starting the APU and the left engine?
    • A. 

      DC starting fuel pump

    • B. 

      Motor-operated valve

    • C. 

      Centerline external tank refueling shutoff valve

    • D. 

      Tank gate motor-actuated fuel shutoff valve

  • 91. 
    If external tanks are installed on the A-10, why does fuel feed from them first?
    • A. 

      They contain the amount of fuel necessary to complete engine start and takeoff

    • B. 

      To allow for jettisoning them, if necessary

    • C. 

      They have override pumps installed in them, strongest fuel pump in the system

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 92. 
    Which of the A-10 external pylons can carry external fuel tanks?
    • A. 

      4, 5 and 6

    • B. 

      5, 6 and 7

    • C. 

      4, 6 and 8

    • D. 

      1, 3 and 5

  • 93. 
    What component of the A-10 external fuel tank prevents the tank from collasping if the air pressure within the tank is less than ambient pressure?
    • A. 

      Negative pressure relief valve

    • B. 

      Pressure relief valve

    • C. 

      Dump valve

    • D. 

      Anti-flowing valve

  • 94. 
    What determines the operational mode of the A-10 external tank refueling shutoff valves?
    • A. 

      The placement of the selector switch

    • B. 

      The direction of fuel flow

    • C. 

      The weight-on-wheels switch

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 95. 
    What is the purpose of the A-10 fuel vent system?
    • A. 

      Allows the aircraft to emergency dump fuel during combat or prior to an emergency landing

    • B. 

      Allows the aircraft to breakaway from the tanker during mid-air refueling when fuel capacity is reached

    • C. 

      Allows ambient air to flow into and out of the internal fuel system through the vent tank assembly

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 96. 
    What component of the A-10 fuel vent system serves as a reservoir for fuel overfill during refueling and for fuel entering the vent lines during abrupt flight maneuvers? 
    • A. 

      Fuel vent tank assembly

    • B. 

      Center wing reserve tank

    • C. 

      Center wing tank

    • D. 

      #6 pylon center-line external fuel tank

  • 97. 
    What A-10 fuel quantity indicating component monitors all fuel tank units and generates signals that drive the fuel quantity indicator?
    • A. 

      Fuel tank probe control box

    • B. 

      Fuel tank potentiometer(s)

    • C. 

      Fuel quantity intermediate device

    • D. 

      Fuel quantity guage

  • 98. 
    Besides providing the capability to refuel all tanks by a means of a single-point ground refueling receptacle, what else does the A-10 refueling manifold provide?
    • A. 

      The capability to dump fuel

    • B. 

      The capability to transfer fuel between tanks

    • C. 

      The capability to mid-air refuel other A-10s in flight

    • D. 

      The capability to mid-air refuel

  • 99. 
    How can the A-10 fuel system test box be disabled with the access door open?
    • A. 

      Manually by disconnecting the power supply canon plug

    • B. 

      Manually turning the test box selector know to the OFF position

    • C. 

      Manually pulling refueling door interlock actuator plunger to the locked and fully extended position

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 100. 
    When do the A-10 main tank refueling pilot valves close to prevent overflowing of fuel?
    • A. 

      When the tank reaches 90% capacity

    • B. 

      When the tank reaches 93% capacity

    • C. 

      When the tank reaches 95% capacity

    • D. 

      When the tank reaches 97% capacity

  • 101. 
    What provides protection to the A-10 slipway door assembly from constant scraping and damage from the refueling nozzle of the tanker boom?
    • A. 

      A phenolic scuff plate

    • B. 

      A stainless steel scuff plate

    • C. 

      A titanium scuff plate

    • D. 

      A brass scuff plate

  • 102. 
    In the event of a loss of hydraulic pressure, how is the A-10 slipway door opened?
    • A. 

      The slipway door locks are released by the pull cable located in the cockpit

    • B. 

      The slipway door is spring-loaded to open when unlocked by the RCVR control cable in the receptacle area

    • C. 

      The slipway door is spring-loaded to open when unlocked by the RCVR control lever in the cockpit

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 103. 
    What A-10 electrical component supplies the aircarft with AC power?
    • A. 

      The aircraft battery

    • B. 

      The APU generator

    • C. 

      The engine driven integrated drive generator

    • D. 

      The constant speed drive

  • 104. 
    What happens to the A-10s AC power system if one AC generator drive system fails?
    • A. 

      A ram air scoop deploys from the side of the fuselage to power an air driven generator that compensates for the failed system

    • B. 

      The power load of the failed system automatically transfers to the operating system

    • C. 

      The APU starts and the APU generator automatically energizes to supply the power load of the failed system

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 105. 
    What component of the A-10 AC power system consists of a CSD and a generator assembly?
    • A. 

      The integrated drive generator (IDG)

    • B. 

      The transformer rectifier (TR)

    • C. 

      The electrical power monitor (EPM)

    • D. 

      The generator control unit (GCU)

  • 106. 
    What A-10 electrical unit controls and protects the AC power system?
    • A. 

      The integrated drive generator (IDG)

    • B. 

      The transformer rectifier (TR)

    • C. 

      The electrical power monitor (EPM)

    • D. 

      The generator control unit (GCU)

  • 107. 
    What A-10 AC power system component determines whether external AC power is compatible with the aircarft electrical system?  
    • A. 

      The integrated drive generator (IDG)

    • B. 

      The transformer rectifier (TR)

    • C. 

      The electrical power monitor (EPM)

    • D. 

      The generator control unit (GCU)

  • 108. 
    What is the purpose of the A-10s converters in the DC power system?
    • A. 

      To convert 115 volts AC, 400 hz into 28 volts, 100 amps

    • B. 

      To convert 220 volts AC, 405 hz into 28 volts, 110 amps

    • C. 

      To convert 115 volts AC, 405 hz into 12 volts, 200 amps

    • D. 

      To convert 220 volts AC, 400 hz into 12 volts, 200 amps

  • 109. 
    How is the A-10s external battery switch held in the OFF position?
    • A. 

      With .032 safety wire

    • B. 

      With .020 copper safety wire

    • C. 

      With a ground safety pin

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 110. 
    What type of aircarft battery is used on the A-10?
    • A. 

      Gel-cell

    • B. 

      Nickle-cadmium

    • C. 

      Lead-acid

    • D. 

      Dry-cell

  • 111. 
    Which component supplies the A-10 with 24-VDC power if primary DC power is not available?
    • A. 

      The APU generator

    • B. 

      The engine driven IDG

    • C. 

      The battery

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 112. 
    What is the purpose of the A-10 inverter?
    • A. 

      To supply 28-VDC, 100 amp electrical power to the aircraft converters

    • B. 

      To supply power to the essential and instrument buses when no other AC power is available

    • C. 

      To invert 115 VAC, 400 hz to 28 VDC, 100 amp electrical power to the aircraft systems

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 113. 
    What lights ensure that the A-10 pilot retains normal vision in teh event of exposure to lightning flashes?
    • A. 

      Slipway lights

    • B. 

      External floodlights

    • C. 

      Thunderstorm lights

    • D. 

      C-4 lights

  • 114. 
    How many high-intensity thunderstorm lights are installed on the A-10 instrument panel and consoles?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 115. 
    What is the purpose of the A-10 master caution system?
    • A. 

      To provide test-reset capability of system fault sensors

    • B. 

      To provide a visual indication of ground or air threats

    • C. 

      To provide a visual indication of system faults

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 116. 
    When does the A-10's caution light on the caution annunciator panel that identifies the fault stop flashing?
    • A. 

      When the caution light is reset

    • B. 

      When the system affected is reset

    • C. 

      When the circuit breaker for the affected system has been opened and reset

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 117. 
    Which of the A-10's exterior lights uses a strobe power supply?
    • A. 

      Wing and tail anti-collision lights

    • B. 

      Right and left nose illumination lights

    • C. 

      All the formation light assemblies

    • D. 

      All the thunderstorm lights

  • 118. 
    What is the capacity of the A-10 LOX converter? 
    • A. 

      5 liters

    • B. 

      10 liters

    • C. 

      15 liters

    • D. 

      20 liters

  • 119. 
    What components of the A-10 LOX converter act as shutoff valves toprevent oxygen loss when the converter is removed from the aircraft?
    • A. 

      The fill/vent/build-up valve

    • B. 

      The LOX converter bypass valve

    • C. 

      The quick-disconnect couplings

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 120. 
    What color is the pressure demand regulator FLOW indicator during aircrew exhale?
    • A. 

      Black

    • B. 

      Black-white barber pole

    • C. 

      White

    • D. 

      Green

  • 121. 
    What is the function of the supply line and heat exchanger in the A-10 LOX system?
    • A. 

      Ensures the converter does not freeze up during LOX system servicing

    • B. 

      Ensures the warm-up of gaseous oxygen to within +10F of cabin ambient temperature

    • C. 

      Ensures the converter does not freeze up during LOX system operation

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 122. 
    What component in the A-10 LOX system interrupts the LOX quantity indicator operation to produce the equivalent of an empty signal from the LOX converter?
    • A. 

      The LOX indicator test switch

    • B. 

      The LOX low caution light

    • C. 

      The oxygen supply pressure indicator

    • D. 

      The LOX heat exchanger and supply line sensor

  • 123. 
    What is the quantity of LOX remaining when teh A10's OXY LOW caution light comes on?
    • A. 

      0.2 liters

    • B. 

      0.5 liters

    • C. 

      0.7 liters

    • D. 

      1.0 liters

  • 124. 
    What material is the U-2's MLG strut made of?
    • A. 

      Steel

    • B. 

      Aluminum

    • C. 

      Titanium

    • D. 

      Aluminum-alloy

  • 125. 
    Select the three (3) sections of the U-2's fuselage.
    • A. 

      Tail

    • B. 

      Removable nose

    • C. 

      Center

    • D. 

      Aft

  • 126. 
    When the U-2 nose is removed, who is responsible for verifying the exact ballast weight installed in the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Quality Assurance

    • B. 

      Crew Chief

    • C. 

      Aircraft Structural Maintenance

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 127. 
    What removable nose cone is the standard nose assembly installed on the U-2?
    • A. 

      RX434

    • B. 

      RX1125

    • C. 

      RX246

    • D. 

      RX64

  • 128. 
    What areas on the U-2 contain inflatable seals?
    • A. 

      The pressurized fuselage compartments

    • B. 

      The canopy alignment area along the fuselage

    • C. 

      The wing root area along the fuselage

    • D. 

      The wheel wells

  • 129. 
    Why is it important to support the U-2 canopy through its full travel?
    • A. 

      To avoid personal injury by ensuring the roll lock pins engage

    • B. 

      To avoid damaging the canopy's lightweight mounts

    • C. 

      To avoid damaging the canopy by wind gusts

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 130. 
    What type of engine is installed in the U-2 aircraft?
    • A. 

      TF34-GE-100A turbofan

    • B. 

      TF33-PW-100 turbofan

    • C. 

      GE-101-F118 turbofan

    • D. 

      GE-100-F108 turbofan

  • 131. 
    Why is it critical to install the correct length screws in the U-2's wings?
    • A. 

      To avoid puncturing the flaps

    • B. 

      To avoid puncturing the ailerons

    • C. 

      To avoid puncturing the engine bays

    • D. 

      To avoid puncturing the fuel tanks

  • 132. 
    What U-2 components are removed to facilitate the installation of the super pods?
    • A. 

      Wheel well doors

    • B. 

      The nose section

    • C. 

      The tail section

    • D. 

      The fixed flaps

  • 133. 
    What U-2 component on the wingtip protects the assembly whent the wingtip drags on the ground after landing?
    • A. 

      The pogo sockets

    • B. 

      The tail landing gear assembly

    • C. 

      A skid with replacable liner

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 134. 
    What is located at the open end of each of the U-2's fuel dump chutes?
    • A. 

      A drain plug

    • B. 

      A spring-loaded check valve

    • C. 

      A flame arrestor

    • D. 

      A bonding strap attached to the airframe

  • 135. 
    What is the U-2's auxilary landing gear called?
    • A. 

      Auxilary landing gear

    • B. 

      Pogos

    • C. 

      Secondary landing gear

    • D. 

      Super pods

  • 136. 
    Where is the U-2's GPS pod located?
    • A. 

      Below the nose radome installation

    • B. 

      Below the tail section

    • C. 

      Right wing on the aft pairing mount

    • D. 

      Left wing near the dump chute

  • 137. 
    What is the most significant difference between the U-2S and U-2T aircraft?
    • A. 

      The wingspan of the U-2T is wider to accomodate longer missions

    • B. 

      The U-2T landing gear is made of steel to accomodate heavier payloads

    • C. 

      The U-2T has an accomodation for an instructor in the Q-bay area

    • D. 

      No difference - aircarft are the same

  • 138. 
    What two things should you check before leaving the U-2 after performing maintenance?
    • A. 

      The aircraft forms to ensure the status is accurately documented

    • B. 

      Ensure that two fire extinguishers have been properly positioned near the aircraft

    • C. 

      Remove one inboard fuel cap and leave it over the filler well to allow for fuel expansion

    • D. 

      Recheck the wing stands to ensure they were not affected by the maintenance performed

  • 139. 
    What is the primary source document for U-2 weight and balance?
    • A. 

      TO 00-20-1

    • B. 

      TM 1U-2S-5, Volume 2

    • C. 

      TO 1-1B-50

    • D. 

      WR-ALC/LR Form 52

  • 140. 
    What form is used to document weight and balance for the U-2 manually?
    • A. 

      TO 00-20-1

    • B. 

      TM 1U-2S-5, Volume 2

    • C. 

      TO 1-1B-50

    • D. 

      WR/ALC-LR Form 52

  • 141. 
    What form is used to document (load) all items not part of the U-2's basic aircraft weight?
    • A. 

      AFTO Form 781-C

    • B. 

      WR/ALC-LR Form 52

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 781-D

    • D. 

      WR/ALC-LR Form 51

  • 142. 
    How often are you required to document weight and balance on the manual and automated forms to maintain your certification as a weight and balance technician?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semi-annually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 143. 
    What type of landing gear does the U-2 utilize?
    • A. 

      Bicycle type

    • B. 

      Tri-cycle type

    • C. 

      Nose landing gear and truck main landing gear

    • D. 

      Crosswing crab, slave steer

  • 144. 
    Where is the nitrogen charging valve located on the U-2 MLG strut?
    • A. 

      Inboard side of the strut

    • B. 

      Aft side of the strut

    • C. 

      Top of the strut

    • D. 

      Outboard side of the strut

  • 145. 
    When installing the U-2 MLG wheel assembly, why is it critical that the six keyways are engaged?
    • A. 

      The wheel bearings will not set properly once installation torque is applied

    • B. 

      The brakes could malfunction and cause damage to equipment

    • C. 

      The pilot will experience severe vibrations during landing gear retraction

    • D. 

      The pilot's steering commands will not be transmitted properly to the MLG wheels

  • 146. 
    How many thermal relief plugs are installed on each of the U-2 MLG wheels?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      6

  • 147. 
    What are the U-2 TLG (tail landing gear) tires made out of?
    • A. 

      Molded industrial rubber

    • B. 

      Molded steel-belted radials

    • C. 

      Molded polyurethane

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 148. 
    What happens to the auxiliary landing gear pogos during takeoff?
    • A. 

      They drop free during takeoff provided runway team removes safety pins

    • B. 

      They retract into the auxiliary LG wheel well in the wingtip

    • C. 

      They raise into an aft swept position faired with the lower wing

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 149. 
    What type of brake assembly is installed on the U-2?
    • A. 

      Hydraulically-operated, self-adjusting, multiple disc brake assembly

    • B. 

      Mechanically-operated, non-adjusting, single disc brake assembly

    • C. 

      Hydraulically-operated, non-adjusting, multiple disc brake assembly

    • D. 

      Mechanically-operated, self-adjusting, multiple disc brake assembly

  • 150. 
    Where do you measure the brake wear indicator pins on the U-2?
    • A. 

      Measure the pins against the adjuster housing

    • B. 

      Measure the gap between the brake rotor and disc without the brakes applied

    • C. 

      Measure the pins against the brake housing

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 151. 
    Where is the U-2s brake control valve located?
    • A. 

      Left wheel well

    • B. 

      Right wheel well

    • C. 

      Left side of the cockpit, above and outboard the left brake handle

    • D. 

      Right side of the cockpit, above and outboard the right brake handle

  • 152. 
    What controls fluid-flow to the U-2 emergency brake system?
    • A. 

      Brake manifold

    • B. 

      Brake control valve

    • C. 

      Emergency brake shutoff valve

    • D. 

      Emergency brake accumulator

  • 153. 
    Why is it important to check the U-2 emergency brake accumulator precharge between flights?
    • A. 

      The accumulator pressure must be bled on every thru-flight

    • B. 

      The accumulator supplies the brakes with enough hydraulic pressure for five (5) full applications without hydraulic power

    • C. 

      The accumulator pressure is located in a high vibration area and is negatively affected by the varying temperatures during flight

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 154. 
    After the U-2 main and tail landing gear uplock switches are actuated, what holds the MLG up?
    • A. 

      MLG uplock hook

    • B. 

      MLG actuator

    • C. 

      MLG drag strut

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 155. 
    How does the U-2s tail landing gear remain in the up and locked position?
    • A. 

      By the tail landing gear uplock hook

    • B. 

      By the MLG actuator's pressure

    • C. 

      By the over-center position of the drag rod crank resting on a stop

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 156. 
    How does the U-2 landing gear extend if hydraulic and electrical power is lost?
    • A. 

      The mechanical landing gear release system permits manualy release of the MLG and TLG

    • B. 

      The emergency landing gear jettison handle

    • C. 

      A cable-operated handle located on the left side of the instrument panel

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 157. 
    During EGR, why does the U-2s tail landing gear release first?
    • A. 

      EGR sequence valve directs accumulator pressure to the TLG first

    • B. 

      To prevent the MLG from blocking airflow to the TLG

    • C. 

      Because this is a goofy answer seeing if you are paying attention

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 158. 
    When performing U-2 landing gear operational checks, what is essential about the indication system?
    • A. 

      Do not reset the master CAUTION to silence the audio warning horn while the gear are in transit

    • B. 

      Ensure that the landing gear indicators are operating properly

    • C. 

      Ensure that landing gear ground safety pins are installed

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 159. 
    Where are the U-2s landing gear control and warning system circuit breakers located?
    • A. 

      Left center instrument panel

    • B. 

      Right center instrument panel

    • C. 

      Left console

    • D. 

      Right console

  • 160. 
    How is the aileron, elevator and rudder movement controlled on the U-2?
    • A. 

      Aileron/elevator controlled by flight control sitck; rudder controlled by pedals

    • B. 

      Aileron/elevator controlled by control column; rudder controlled by pedals

    • C. 

      Aileron/elevator controlled by pilot thoughts; rudder controlled by head movement

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 161. 
    Besides rudder control, what other function do the U-2 rudder cables provide?
    • A. 

      Nose wheel steering

    • B. 

      Tail wheel steering

    • C. 

      Parking brake

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 162. 
    What is the difference between the U-2s left and right aileron trim tabs?
    • A. 

      The left trim tabs can be electrically trimmed

    • B. 

      The right trim tabs can be electrically trimmed

    • C. 

      Nothing, they are identical in size, shape and function

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 163. 
    What is the purpose of the U-2s elevator hinged balance tabs?
    • A. 

      To reduce the control force required to move the surface

    • B. 

      To reduce the drag on the flight control surface during flight

    • C. 

      To increase the manueverability of the elevator during takeoff phase

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 164. 
    What part of the U-2 rudder pedals do crew chiefs inspect?
    • A. 

      The rudder pedal non-slip coating

    • B. 

      The rudder pedal spring-loaded levers

    • C. 

      The rearview mirror for rudder centering

    • D. 

      The rudder pedal linkage

  • 165. 
    Where are the U-2s wing flaps mounted?
    • A. 

      On piano-hinges at the trailing edge of the wings

    • B. 

      On jack-screws mounted to gearboxes in the wing

    • C. 

      On the upper surface of the wing

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 166. 
    What are the U-2 flaps used for?
    • A. 

      Used to produce high lift and high drag

    • B. 

      Used to add wing surface during takeoff

    • C. 

      Used to slow the aircarft's speed on landing

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 167. 
    How are the U-2s flaps controlled and operated?
    • A. 

      Electrically controlled; hydraulically operated

    • B. 

      Electrically controlled; hydraulically and mechanically operated

    • C. 

      Electrically controlled and operated

    • D. 

      Electrically controlled; mechanically operated

  • 168. 
    What must you ensure when inspecting the U-2s flap drive tubes?
    • A. 

      Ensure that screws and locknuts that travel through the universal joints and drive tubes are installed and secure

    • B. 

      Ensure that the flap drive gearboxes are properly serviced by checking the sight glasses on each gearbox

    • C. 

      Ensure that the bolts and wingnuts that travel through the universal joints and drive tubes are installed and secure

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 169. 
    Which wing contains the U-2 flap position transmitter?
    • A. 

      Left wing

    • B. 

      Right wing

    • C. 

      Neither, the flap transmitter is located in the right MLG wheel well

    • D. 

      Neither, the flap transmitter is located in the left MLG wheel well

  • 170. 
    What is the prurpose of the U-2 flap gust control system?
    • A. 

      To ensure proper alignment of the inboard and outboard ailerons in high speed flight

    • B. 

      To prevent damage to the rudder and elevators from damaging winds on the ground

    • C. 

      To relieve wing and tail structural loading during high speed or rough air operation

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 171. 
    What are the two (2) positions of the U-2s GUST CONTROL switch?
    • A. 

      ON

    • B. 

      FAIRED

    • C. 

      UP

    • D. 

      OFF

  • 172. 
    What U-2 primary flight control is affected with the flap during the gust control operation? 
    • A. 

      Rudder

    • B. 

      Elevator

    • C. 

      Aileron

    • D. 

      Flaps only

  • 173. 
    Where are the U-2s lift spoilers located?
    • A. 

      The upper surface of each wing

    • B. 

      The lower surface of each wing

    • C. 

      The trailing edge of each wing

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 174. 
    What components make up the U-2 the emergency lift spoiler system?
    • A. 

      Emergency lift spoiler pump

    • B. 

      Emergency lift spoiler

    • C. 

      Emergency lift spoiler actuator

    • D. 

      Emergency lift spoiler reservoir

  • 175. 
    How are the U-2s roll (assist) spoilers activated?
    • A. 

      When the control wheel is moved approximately 42 degrees from neutral

    • B. 

      When the control wheel is moved approximately 40 degress from neutral

    • C. 

      When the control wheel is moved approximately 38 degress from neutral

    • D. 

      None of the above