1.
-
Which of the the following is not caused by an unstable tachyarrythmia?
2.
A patient presents to an Emergency Department complaining of a cough productive of green sputum. Her T=102.2. HR=170 bpm. BP= 110/70.
Her EKG reveals a regular, narrow complex tachycardia.
Regarding her heart rate...
A.
It is reasonable to assume that her tachycardia is secondary to her fever, and presumed pneumonia.
B.
A heart rate > 150 bpm is an inappropriate response to physiologic stress.
3.
An ED patient presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia at 140 BPM, BP=110/70 mmHg. During your assessment, the patient begins to complain of lightheadedness and shortness of breath, SaO2=88% on room air, BP=58/40. Her EKG rhythm is unchanged.
Your next intervention should be:
A.
B.
C.
D.
Synchronized Cardioversion
E.
4.
A patient in the ER is hypotensive with a wide complex tachycardia. On your evaluation of the EKG, it is unclear if the patient has a monomorphic or polymorphic VT. How do you proceed?
A.
Treat it as polymorphic VT with unsynchronized , high-energy shocks.
B.
Treat it as monomorphic VT with synchronized shocks.
C.
D.
5.
In which of these rhythms is a synchronized cardioversion NOT indicated?
A.
B.
Unstable Atrial Fibrillation
C.
Unstable monomorphic VT with pulses
D.
6.
For a stable patient in SVT, what is the first line therapy?
7.
How long after the onset of symptoms is a patient having an acute ischemic CVA eligible to receive tPA?
A.
B.
C.
Within 3 hours for most patients and 4.5 hours in selected patients.
D.
It depends on their heart rhythm.
8.
Ischemic stoke are more common then hemorrhagic strokes.
9.
In a potential stroke patient, what is the NINDS recommendation for the length of time from ED presentation to performing a CT?
10.
Which of the following is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
A.
Poor Balance (Have the patient stand on one foot.)
B.
Facial Droop (Have the patient smile and show his teeth)
C.
Arm Weakness (Have the patient close his eyes and hold out both hands, palms up)
D.
Abnormal Speech (Have the patient say, "You can't teach an old dog new tricks")
11.
A patient awakens from sleep with a new dense hemiparesis. Which of the following would be an absolute contraindication to tPA?
A.
Her blood pressure on arrival was 160/90 mmHg.
B.
She has s strong family history of GI bleeding.
C.
She is in atrial fibrillation.
D.
The time of onset cannot be established because she awakened with symptoms.
12.
As per most recent BLS guidelines, what is the appropriate order of intervention in an adult victim?
A.
Airway-Breathing-Chest Compressions (ABC's)
B.
Chest Compressions-Airway-Breathing (CAB's)
13.
During 2-man CPR, the patient is being ventilated with a BVM (Bag-Valve-Mask). You have an adequate seal and the chest seems to be rising appropriately with each breath, you should...
A.
Immediately place an advanced airway, such as an ET tube.
B.
Continue to ventilate with the BVM.
14.
In CPR, the correct ratio of chest compressions to breaths is:
15.
In post cardiac arrest patients, the amount of oxygen inspired should be titrated to an SaO2...
16.
During resuscitation, the appropriate rate of ventilation should be ____.
A.
As quickly as possible to correct the suspected respiratory and metabolic acidosis.
B.
10-12 breaths per minutes as not to increase intrathoracic pressure and therefore decrease cardiac output.
17.
During CPR, the appropriate rate of chest compressions is approximately:
18.
Regarding the NPA (Nasopharyngeal Airway).
A.
An estimate of the appropriate size is the diameter of the patient's smallest finger.
B.
The NPA should be used in conscious and semi-conscious patients who have an intact gag-reflex.
C.
The NPA should be avoided in patients with severe facial trauma.
D.
19.
The oropharyngeal airway (OPA) should only be used in unconscious patients because it can excite the gag reflex and lead to vomiting and aspiration.
20.
For every minute that passes between a witnessed VF arrest and defibrillation, the chance of survival decreased by 7-10%. With bystander CPR, the decline is more gradual and falls by 3-4% per minute.
21.
The AHA strongly recommends delaying CPR while the AED is readied for use.
22.
In defibrillating VT/VF, in a biphasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be between 120 J and 200 J, each subsequent shock at the same or greater energy. In an monophasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be ______.
23.
Which if the following is NOT indicated for VT/VF?
24.
In treating VT/VF, what would be appropriate to use for vasoconstriction?
A.
Epinephine 1 mg q 5 minutes
B.
Epinephine, beginning at 1 mg, in escalating doses q 5 minutes
C.
D.
E.
25.
What would be the first line therapy for this rhythm?
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