ACLS Practice Test

42 Questions

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ACLS Practice Test

This pretest is designed to prepare you for the ACLS certification and re-certification exams. After you have answered the questions and read the comments on each, you will be more than prepared to take and pass the ACLS exams.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which of the following is most likely the result of an untreated arrhythmia?
    • A. 

      Embolic CVA

    • B. 

      Thrombotic CVA

    • C. 

      Hemorrhagic CVA

    • D. 

      Pulmonary Embolus

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is not in the differential for causing this rhythm?
    • A. 

      Fever

    • B. 

      Anemia

    • C. 

      Anxiety

    • D. 

      Dehydration

    • E. 

      Hypoxia

    • F. 

      Pulmonary Embolus

    • G. 

      Response to Medications

    • H. 

      All are in the Differential

  • 3. 
    Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm.  What would be the next appropriate intervention?
    • A. 

      Adenosine 6 mg

    • B. 

      Synchronized Cardioversion

    • C. 

      Agressive Hydration

    • D. 

      A or B

  • 4. 
    Your patient has unstable vital signs and is in the following rhythm.  What would be the next appropriate intervention?
    • A. 

      Synchronized Cardioversion

    • B. 

      Unsynchronized Defibrillation

  • 5. 
    Your patient is in the following rhythm and has no pulse.
    • A. 

      Treat with synchronized Cardioversion

    • B. 

      Treat with unsynchronized Defibrillation

  • 6. 
    Your patient has stable vitals and is in the following rhythm.
    • A. 

      Ask the patient to Valsalva.

    • B. 

      Attempt Carotid Massage

    • C. 

      Treat with Adenosine 6mg Fast IV push

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 7. 
    A patient presents to an Emergency Department unable to speak or to move her right arm.  Her symptoms began approximately 6 hours ago.   This patient is an appropriate candidate for tPA.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 8. 
    A patient presents within 60 minutes of an acute neurologic event.  A CT of her brain reveals an acute hemorrhagic CVA. Is the patient a candidate for tPA?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 9. 
    In a potential stroke patient, what is the NINDS recommendation for the length of time from ED presentation to performing a CT?
    • A. 

      5 Minutes

    • B. 

      25 Minutes

    • C. 

      1 Hour

    • D. 

      As quickly as possible

  • 10. 
    Which of the following is not part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
    • A. 

      Facial Droop (Is the face symmetrical? Have the patient smile)

    • B. 

      Arm Weakness (Have the patient close his eyes and hold out both hands, palms up)

    • C. 

      Abnormal Speech (Have the patient say, "You can't teach an old dog new tricks")

    • D. 

      Poor Balance (Have the patient stand on one foot.)

  • 11. 
    In a patient who presents with new neurologic symptoms, which would not be an absolute contraindication to tPA?
    • A. 

      A history of a GI bleed in the distant past.

    • B. 

      Patient presented with a seizure.

    • C. 

      Patient awakened with symptoms.

    • D. 

      Minor, resolving symptoms.

  • 12. 
    As per most recent BLS guidelines, what is the appropriate order of intervention in an adult victim?
    • A. 

      Airway-Breathing-Chest Compressions (ABC's)

    • B. 

      Chest Compressions-Airway-Breathing (CAB's)

  • 13. 
    An advanced airways is imperative, as per most recent ACLS guidelines.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to breaths in CPR?
    • A. 

      30:2

    • B. 

      It depends on the age of the victim.

    • C. 

      It depends on the size of the victim.

    • D. 

      It depends on the sex of the victim.

  • 15. 
    In post cardiac arrest care, the oxygen saturation should be kept at 100%.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    Hyperventilation during resuscitation can cause and increase in intrathorasic pressure and a decrease in cardiac output.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 17. 
    During CPR, the rate of chest compressions should be approximately 100/minute
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    The naso-pharyngeal airway (NPA) does not active the gag reflex so it does not cause vomiting. Is it more appropriately used in the conscious or unconscious patient?
    • A. 

      Conscious or semi-conscious

    • B. 

      Unconscious

  • 19. 
    The oro-pharyngeal airway (OPA) does trigger the gag reflex.  Is it more appropriately using in conscious or unconscious patients.
    • A. 

      Conscious and semi-conscious patients

    • B. 

      Unconscious

  • 20. 
    Bystander CPR has not been shown to change outcome.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 21. 
    CPR should be begun while the AED is readied for use.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    In defibrillating VT/VF, in a biphasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be between 120 J and 200 J, each subsequent shock at the same or greater energy. In an monophasic defibrillator, the initial shock should be ______.
    • A. 

      100 J

    • B. 

      200 J

    • C. 

      300 J

    • D. 

      360 J

  • 23. 
    Which of the following does not appear in the algorithm for ventricular fibrillation?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine 1 mg

    • B. 

      Atropine 1 mg

    • C. 

      Defibrillation

    • D. 

      Vasopressin 40 units

    • E. 

      All appear

  • 24. 
    In which rhythm is escalating doses of epinephrine (1 mg, followed by 3 mg, followed but 5 mg q 5 minutes) indicated?
    • A. 

      Pulseless VT

    • B. 

      VF

    • C. 

      Asystole

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 25. 
    Identify this rhythm.
    • A. 

      First Degree Heart Block

    • B. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)

    • C. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2

    • D. 

      Third Degree Heart Block

  • 26. 
    Identify this rhythm.
    • A. 

      First Degree Heart Block

    • B. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)

    • C. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2

    • D. 

      Third Degree Heart Block

  • 27. 
    Identify this rhythm.
    • A. 

      First Degree Heart Block

    • B. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)

    • C. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2

    • D. 

      Third Degree Heart Block

  • 28. 
    Identify this rhythm.
    • A. 

      First Degree Heart Block

    • B. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 1 (Wenckebach)

    • C. 

      Second Degree Heart Block, Mobitz 2

    • D. 

      Third Degree Heart Block

  • 29. 
    Identify this ryhthm.
    • A. 

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Atrial Flutter

    • C. 

      SVT

    • D. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E. 

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

  • 30. 
    Identify this ryhthm.
    • A. 

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Atrial Flutter

    • C. 

      SVT

    • D. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E. 

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

  • 31. 
    Identify this ryhthm.
    • A. 

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Atrial Flutter

    • C. 

      SVT

    • D. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E. 

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

  • 32. 
    Identify this ryhthm.
    • A. 

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Atrial Flutter

    • C. 

      SVT

    • D. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E. 

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

  • 33. 
    Identify this ryhthm.
    • A. 

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Atrial Flutter

    • C. 

      SVT

    • D. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E. 

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

  • 34. 
    Identify this ryhthm.
    • A. 

      Atrial Fibrillation

    • B. 

      Atrial Flutter

    • C. 

      SVT

    • D. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia

    • E. 

      Ventricular Fibrillation

    • F. 

      Ventricular Tachycardia (Torsades de Points)

  • 35. 
    Your patient is in the following rhythm but has no pulse. Which are possible causes for this Pulseless Electrical Activity?
    • A. 

      HyperKalemia

    • B. 

      Hypoxia

    • C. 

      Hypothermia

    • D. 

      Hydrogen Ions (Acidosis)

    • E. 

      Hypothermia

    • F. 

      Hypoglycemia

    • G. 

      Tamponade

    • H. 

      Tension Pneumothorax

    • I. 

      Thrombosis (PE)

    • J. 

      Thrombosis (MI)

    • K. 

      Toxins

    • L. 

      Trauma

  • 36. 
    The recommended length of time for a Rhythm Check is <10 seconds.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    Your patient is very lightheaded.  Her Blood pressure = 62/40 mmHg.  HR=38 BPM Her rhythm is below: While awaiting cardiology to place a pacemaker, appropriate interventions include
    • A. 

      Transcutaneous Pacing

    • B. 

      Dopamine 2-10 mcg/kg/minute

    • C. 

      Epinephrine 2-10 mcg/minute

    • D. 

      Atropine 1 mg

  • 38. 
    In a patient with a suspected C-spine injury, the recommended technique for airway opening is the chin-lift/head-tilt
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    During a resuscitation, with an ET tube in place, chest compressions should be paused to give a breath?
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    A patient arrests near a pool and is partially submerged in water, the AED may be safely and effectively discharged with moving the patient.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 41. 
    During CPR, chest compressions should NOT be interrupted for _____.
    • A. 

      Ventilation

    • B. 

      To intubate a patient who is being ventilated by BVM.

    • C. 

      Rhythm checks in an unchanged rhythm.

    • D. 

      Charging the defibrillator.

    • E. 

      Defibrillation

  • 42. 
    Following defibrillation, when should chest compressions resume?
    • A. 

      Following a pulse check.

    • B. 

      After a 10 second pulse check, and giving 2 breaths.

    • C. 

      After evaluating the post-defibrillation rhythm.

    • D. 

      Immediately.