Abdomen Final Part Deux

103 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Abdomen Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Pancreatic cysts arise in what part of the pancreas?
    • A. 

      Head

    • B. 

      Tail

    • C. 

      Body

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 2. 
    Pancreatic cysts are associated with cystic disease of what two organs?
    • A. 

      Liver

    • B. 

      Pancreas

    • C. 

      Kidney

    • D. 

      Spleen

  • 3. 
    An acquired collection of pancreatic juices that develops into a well-defined, walled-off structure
    • A. 

      Pancreatic pseudocysts

    • B. 

      Pancreatic Phlegmon

    • C. 

      Pancreatic Cysts

    • D. 

      Pancreatic Abscess

  • 4. 
    Pancreatic pseudocysts are not epthelium lined
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 5. 
    What is the gold standard for imaging pancreatic pseudocysts
    • A. 

      Ultrasound

    • B. 

      MRI

    • C. 

      X-Ray

    • D. 

      CT

  • 6. 
    Treatment for pseudocysts is decompression if larger than 5cm or greater than 6 weeks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
    If a patient has a completely "gassed out" pancreas, what can do try to visualize it better?
    • A. 

      Drink Water

    • B. 

      Have patient lie upside down

    • C. 

      Repostion

    • D. 

      Use Spleen as window

  • 8. 
    What is the mortality rate of  acute pancreatitis?
    • A. 

      0-20%

    • B. 

      20-40%

    • C. 

      40-60%

    • D. 

      60-80%

  • 9. 
    Hereditary pancreatitis, alcohol abuse, biliary calculi, and trauma are all causes of chronic pancreatitis.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 10. 
    Acute pancreatitis has an elevated white blood cell count.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 11. 
    A patient with an enlarged, hypoechoic, homogenous pancreas would most likely have what disease?
    • A. 

      Acute pancreatitis

    • B. 

      Chronic pancreatitis

    • C. 

      Hemorrhagic pancreatitis

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 12. 
    A patient with an echogenic, hyperechoic, smaller, heterogenous, and calcifications in the pancreas would most likely have what disease?
    • A. 

      Chronic pancreatitis

    • B. 

      Acute pancreatitis

    • C. 

      Hemorrhagice pancreatitis

    • D. 

      Pancreatic cancer

  • 13. 
    What is/are the main cause(s) for hemorrhagic pancreatitis?
    • A. 

      Alcohol binge

    • B. 

      Excessively large meal

    • C. 

      Obesity

    • D. 

      Smoking

  • 14. 
    Diffuse enzymatic destruction of the pancreas leads to focal areas of fat necrosis in and around the pancreas, leading to vessel rupture:
    • A. 

      Pancreatic phlegmon

    • B. 

      Hemorrhagic pancreatitis

    • C. 

      Pancreatic Abscess

    • D. 

      Pancreatic Cysts

  • 15. 
    Hemorrhagic Pancreatitis is associated with ileus and has a low mortality rate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    A solid mass of non-infected swollen or inflamed pancreatic and retroperitoneal tissue
    • A. 

      Pancreatitis

    • B. 

      Pancreatic Pseudocyst

    • C. 

      Pancreatic Abscess

    • D. 

      Pancreatic Phlegmon

  • 17. 
    Treatment for pancreatic abscess
    • A. 

      Antibiotics

    • B. 

      Drainage

    • C. 

      Decompression

    • D. 

      Surgical Debridement

  • 18. 
    Caused by an infected pseudocyst or a post-op process. May be a complication of pancreatitis.
    • A. 

      Panc. phlegmon

    • B. 

      Panc. Abscess

    • C. 

      Acute pancreatitis

    • D. 

      Hemorrhagic pancreatitis

  • 19. 
    Pancreatic abscess can lead to sepsis and has a high mortality rate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    Ultrasound appearance of a pancreatic abscess
    • A. 

      Thin walled

    • B. 

      Dirty shadow

    • C. 

      Anechoic

    • D. 

      Internal echoes

    • E. 

      Through transmission

  • 21. 
    What is the most common pancreatic malignancy?
    • A. 

      Metastatic disease

    • B. 

      Cystadenocarcinoma

    • C. 

      Adenocarcinoma

    • D. 

      Mucinous Cystadenoma

  • 22. 
    Seventy percent of malignant tumors are found in the body of the pancreas.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Males are at a higher risk for having adenocarcinoma.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    What part of the pancreas will cause painless jaundice from ductal obstruction?
  • 25. 
    In which part(s) of the pancreas will cause weight loss, pain, jaundice, and N/V?
  • 26. 
    U/S appearance for Adenocarcinoma
    • A. 

      Dilation of CBD and pancreatic ducts

    • B. 

      Ill-defined

    • C. 

      Hyperechoic

    • D. 

      Hypoechoic

  • 27. 
    What is the name of the procedure that removes the head of the panc, GB, duodenum, part of CBD, part of stomach and reconnects to jejunum?
  • 28. 
    The best treatment for cystadenocarcinoma is biopsy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    U/S appearance of Cystadenocarcinoma
    • A. 

      Anechoic

    • B. 

      Solid components

    • C. 

      Echogenic with through transmission

    • D. 

      Complex

  • 30. 
    Most common Islet Cell tumor that is usually benign and found in the body or tail
    • A. 

      G Cell Tumor

    • B. 

      B Cell Tumor

    • C. 

      Vipoma

    • D. 

      Glucagonoma

  • 31. 
    What islet-cell tumor is benign or malignant, typically multiple and removed if possible due to malignant potential
    • A. 

      G Cell

    • B. 

      B Cell

    • C. 

      Vipoma

    • D. 

      Glucagonoma

  • 32. 
    What is the length of the spleen
    • A. 

      12 mm

    • B. 

      12 cm

    • C. 

      15 mm

    • D. 

      15 cm

  • 33. 
    If splenic varices rupture, they are life-threatening.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
    Red blood cells live for how many days?
  • 35. 
    Capsule in the spleen that has not ruptured and is containing  a hematoma
    • A. 

      Ruptured spleen

    • B. 

      Infarct

    • C. 

      Subcapsular hematoma

    • D. 

      Tuberculosis

  • 36. 
    The capsule in the spleen has ruptured. Fluid may spread through abdomen and may be life threatening.
    • A. 

      Intraperitoneal hematoma

    • B. 

      Splenic infarct

    • C. 

      Tuberculosis

    • D. 

      Subcapsular hematoma

  • 37. 
    A wedged shaped hypoechoic structure around the periphery of the spleen
    • A. 

      Splenic Infarct

    • B. 

      Splenic Abscess

    • C. 

      Tuberculosis

    • D. 

      Subcapsular hematoma

  • 38. 
    Tiny innumerable echogenic foci seen diffusely through spleen. Travels from lungs to spleen.
    • A. 

      TB

    • B. 

      Histoplasmosis

    • C. 

      Sarcoidosis

    • D. 

      Rupture

  • 39. 
    The spleen is a common site for involvement with lymphoma and is difficult to detect with u/s
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    Metastasis primary sites for the spleen
    • A. 

      Breast

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Lung

    • D. 

      Ovary

    • E. 

      Stomach

    • F. 

      Kidney

    • G. 

      Prostate

    • H. 

      Thyroid

  • 41. 
    A rare primary tumor of the spleen. Appearance has mixed cystic components or hyperechoic and can look similar to a hemangioma?
  • 42. 
    Low diastolic wave form with some forward flow and is highly resistant
    • A. 

      Suprarenal

    • B. 

      Infrarenal

    • C. 

      Iliacs

  • 43. 
    What is the best description of an Infrarenal waveform?
    • A. 

      Below the baseline, triphasic, and highly resistive

    • B. 

      Continuous flow

    • C. 

      Above the baseline and low resistance

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 44. 
    Iliacs are low resistive
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    A male over 60 years of age and is a smoker with high cholesterol, HTN, and is obese is mostly likely to have what disease?
    • A. 

      Coarctation of the Aorta

    • B. 

      Mesenteric Ischemia

    • C. 

      Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

    • D. 

      Celiac Compression

  • 46. 
    Weakening of the vessel wall allows it to enlarge
    • A. 

      Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

    • B. 

      Coarctation of the Aorta

    • C. 

      Celiac Compression

    • D. 

      Mesenteric Ischemia

  • 47. 
    A patient presents with severe pain and shock, N/V, dizziness, rapid heart rate, and bruit is most likely diagnosed with
    • A. 

      Ruptured AAA

    • B. 

      Coarct. of Aorta

    • C. 

      Mesenteric Ischemia

    • D. 

      Celiac Compression

  • 48. 
    Treatment for Abdominal Aorta Aneurysm would be surgery if it is greater than
    • A. 

      8-10cm

    • B. 

      2-3cm

    • C. 

      5-7cm

    • D. 

      11-13cm

  • 49. 
    What other arteries would you Doppler to look for inolvement with AAA
    • A. 

      Renal

    • B. 

      Hepatic

    • C. 

      Splenic

    • D. 

      Iliac

  • 50. 
    Coarctation of the Aorta takes on the appearance of a venous, tardus parvus waveform.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    The SMA and IMA feed what organs
    • A. 

      Bowel

    • B. 

      Kidneys

    • C. 

      Liver

    • D. 

      Spleen

    • E. 

      Uterus

  • 52. 
    A stenosis in 2 of the 3 arteries and is often misdiagnosed.
    • A. 

      Celiac compression

    • B. 

      Mesenteric Ischemia

    • C. 

      Coarcation of the Aorta

    • D. 

      AAA

  • 53. 
    Indications of Mesenteric Ischemia
    • A. 

      Pre-prandial

    • B. 

      Post-prandial

    • C. 

      Weight Loss

    • D. 

      Weight Gain

    • E. 

      Pain

    • F. 

      Abd bruit

  • 54. 
    Mesenteric Ischemia is more common in males
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 55. 
    Median arcuate ligament causes extrinsic compression. There is an increase in velocity.
    • A. 

      AAA

    • B. 

      Mesenteric Ischemia

    • C. 

      Celiac Compression

    • D. 

      Coarctation of Aorta

  • 56. 
    During Celiac compression velocities decrease during
    • A. 

      Inspiration

    • B. 

      Exhalation

    • C. 

      Lying down

    • D. 

      Upright position

  • 57. 
    Renal Artery Disease has 3x greater velocity of the Aorta
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    Renal artery disease has a stenosis due to
    • A. 

      Atherosclerosis

    • B. 

      Fibromuscular Dysplasia

    • C. 

      Portal HTN

    • D. 

      Obstruction due to hepatic veins

  • 59. 
    Stenosis due to Fibromuscular Dysplasia in Renal Artery Disease affects
    • A. 

      Mid to proximal arteries

    • B. 

      Mid to distal arteries

    • C. 

      Entire artery

    • D. 

      Only distal part of the artery

  • 60. 
    Renal Artery Disease is more common in postmenopausal women
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    Means toward the liver
    • A. 

      Hepatopedal

    • B. 

      Fugal

  • 62. 
    Means away from the liver
    • A. 

      Hepatopedal

    • B. 

      Fugal

  • 63. 
    Obstruction of the hepatic veins, due to thrombus or extrinsic compression
    • A. 

      Budd-Chiari Syndrome

    • B. 

      Portal HTN

    • C. 

      Fibromuscular Dysplasia

    • D. 

      Renal Artery Dieases

  • 64. 
    An increase in pressure in the portal vein. Most commonly caused by cirrhosis.
    • A. 

      Budd-Chiari Syndrome

    • B. 

      Renal Artery Disease

    • C. 

      Portal HTN

    • D. 

      Fibromuscular Displasia

  • 65. 
    A patient presents with pain, ascites, hepatomegaly, jaundice, and eventaul hepatic encephalopathy would most likely be diagnosed with
    • A. 

      Budd-Chiari Syndrome

    • B. 

      Liver Cancer

    • C. 

      Portal HTN

    • D. 

      Fibromuscular Dysplasia

  • 66. 
    Progression of potral vein with loss of phasicity, bidirectional, hepatofugal flow, thrombosis.
    • A. 

      Portal HTN

    • B. 

      Budd-Chiari Syndrome

    • C. 

      Renal Artery Disease

    • D. 

      Fibromuscular Dysplasia

  • 67. 
    The TIPS treatment for portal hypertension connects what two veins
    • A. 

      LPV to LHV

    • B. 

      RPV to RHV

    • C. 

      MPV to MHV

    • D. 

      MPV to IVC

  • 68. 
    A recanalized umbilical vein is an extension of what vein
    • A. 

      LHV

    • B. 

      LPV

    • C. 

      RHV

    • D. 

      RPV

  • 69. 
    In a full liver transplant the recipient must only receive a liver from a deceased donor
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    A partial liver transplant from a deceased donor can be for two patients. What part of the liver is donated?
    • A. 

      Right

    • B. 

      Left

    • C. 

      Right and Left

    • D. 

      Whole liver

  • 71. 
    The right lobe of the liver is donated from a living donor.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    Which vein will anastamose not only end to end but sit on top of each other?
    • A. 

      IVC

    • B. 

      MPV

    • C. 

      HA

    • D. 

      LHV

  • 73. 
    Most common cause of pediatric liver transplant
    • A. 

      Biliary Atresia

    • B. 

      Cirrhosis

    • C. 

      Hep B

    • D. 

      Hep C

  • 74. 
    Most common cause for adult liver transplant
    • A. 

      Biliary Atresia

    • B. 

      Cirrhosis

    • C. 

      Liver Cancer

    • D. 

      Hepatitis

  • 75. 
    Complication at the anast, may cause increase LFTs, and jaundice.
    • A. 

      Biliary strictures

    • B. 

      HA Thombosis

    • C. 

      HA Stenosis

    • D. 

      PV Stenosis or thrombosis

  • 76. 
    Complication due to rejection, increase cold ischemic time of donor liver, blood type incompatibility
    • A. 

      Biliary Strictures

    • B. 

      HA Thrombosis

    • C. 

      HA Stenosis

    • D. 

      PV stenosis or thrombosis

  • 77. 
    Complication usually at anast, due to technique, clamp injury or rejection
    • A. 

      Biliary Strictures

    • B. 

      HA Thrombosis

    • C. 

      HA Stenosis

    • D. 

      PV stenosis or thrombosis

  • 78. 
    Complication is uncommon, usually due to technical error, hypercoaguable state, previous PV injury
    • A. 

      Biliary Strictures

    • B. 

      HA thrombosis

    • C. 

      HA stenosis

    • D. 

      PV stenosis or thrombosis

  • 79. 
    Early post-op period. Usually due to donor organ ischemia, found mostly in cadaveric kidneys. Common cause of delayed graft function.
    • A. 

      Chronic Tubular Necrosis

    • B. 

      Acute Tubular Necrosis

  • 80. 
    U/S appearance of Acute Rejection
    • A. 

      Increase in size

    • B. 

      Decrease in size

    • C. 

      Increase in cortical thickness

    • D. 

      Decrease in cortical thickness

  • 81. 
    U/S appearance of Chronic Rejection
    • A. 

      Thinning of the Cortex

    • B. 

      Thickening of the Cortex

    • C. 

      Smaller size

    • D. 

      Larger size

    • E. 

      Increased echogenicity

    • F. 

      Hypoechoic

  • 82. 
    Most common vasc complication with 10% of tx. Leads to HTN at anastamosis of RA and iliac. Greater than 200 cm/sec
    • A. 

      Renal Artery Stenosis

    • B. 

      Venous Thrombosis

    • C. 

      Atrial Ventricular Fistula

  • 83. 
    Most commonly seen days 3-8 days post-op. Pain, swelling, abrupt cessation of function. Caused by fuild collections, difficult surgery, propagation of DVT, hypovolemia.
    • A. 

      Renal Artery Thrombosis

    • B. 

      Renal Artery Stenosis

    • C. 

      Venous Thrombosis

    • D. 

      Artery Vein Fistula

  • 84. 
    A patient can receive a pancreas from a living donor.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 85. 
    Vascular thrombosis is most likely seen in what transplant organ
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Bowel

    • D. 

      Pancreas

  • 86. 
    In neonates, the adrenal glands are about 1/30 the size of an adult kidney
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 87. 
    Where are the adrenal glands located?
    • A. 

      Superior-Lateral to the kidney

    • B. 

      Superior-Medial to the kidney

    • C. 

      Posterior-Lateral to the kidney

    • D. 

      Posterior-Medial to the kidney

  • 88. 
    Echogenicity in a neonatal adrenal gland.
    • A. 

      Hyperechoic to cortex

    • B. 

      Hypoechoic to cortex

    • C. 

      Hypo to medulla

    • D. 

      Hyper to medulla

  • 89. 
    Pyloric Stenosis affects how many births
    • A. 

      1/1000

    • B. 

      3/1000

    • C. 

      5/1000

    • D. 

      7/1000

  • 90. 
    If a parent had pyloric stenosis, the child has up to what percent of a chance of developing the condition
    • A. 

      20%

    • B. 

      25%

    • C. 

      50%

    • D. 

      100%

  • 91. 
    Up to how many months can Pylorice Stenosis be detected
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 92. 
    Pyloric Stenosis is more common in infants with what 2 blood types
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      0

    • D. 

      AB

  • 93. 
    Size of Pyloric Stenosis on U/S
    • A. 

      1.2-2.3cm

    • B. 

      3.5-5cm

    • C. 

      1.5-1.8cm

    • D. 

      .7-1cm