Abdomen Final Part 1

129 Questions

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Abdomen Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Partial agenisis is bilateral and the patient can function normally.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False unilateral

  • 2. 
    When the liver is on one side of the body this is known as                   
  • 3. 
                                  is a hole in the diaphragm where the liver goes into the thoracic cavity and requires surgery.
  • 4. 
    When the liver protrudes out of the abdomen through the umbilical cord this is known as:
    • A. 

      Diaphragmatic hernia

    • B. 

      Agenesis

    • C. 

      Omphalocele

    • D. 

      Situs Inversus

  • 5. 
    If                         become severe ablation or draining and injecting alsohol will resolve them.
  • 6. 
    Polycystic liver disease is associated with polycystic renal disease.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 7. 
                              are normal with polycystic liver disease.
  • 8. 
    Biliary hamartomas are also known as:
    • A. 

      Von bergenverg

    • B. 

      Caroli's disease

    • C. 

      Von Meyenburg

    • D. 

      Mirizzi syndrome

  • 9. 
    A benign malformation made of dilated intrahepatic bile ducts
    • A. 

      Hepatitis

    • B. 

      Biliary hamartomas

    • C. 

      Candidiasis

    • D. 

      Liver abscess

  • 10. 
    Hep A has the following characteristics:
    • A. 

      Fecal-oral route

    • B. 

      Has vaccine

    • C. 

      Chronic

    • D. 

      Make full recovery

    • E. 

      Acute

    • F. 

      No vaccine

  • 11. 
    Hep B has the following characteristics:
    • A. 

      Acute

    • B. 

      Has vaccine

    • C. 

      Chronic

    • D. 

      Fecal-oral route

    • E. 

      No vaccine

    • F. 

      Transmitted blood,needle,sex

    • G. 

      Causes liver failure

    • H. 

      Make full recovery

  • 12. 
    Hep C has the following characteristics:
    • A. 

      No vaccine

    • B. 

      Fecal-oral route

    • C. 

      Full recovery

    • D. 

      Has vaccine

    • E. 

      Causes liver failure

    • F. 

      Acute

    • G. 

      Transmitted blood,needle,sex

    • H. 

      Chronic

  • 13. 
    Acute hepatitis should resolve in 4 months.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    Chronic hepatitis lasts more then 8 months.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 15. 
    Is the echogenicity of actue hepatitis more hypoechoic or hyperechoic?
  • 16. 
    The echotexture of chronic hepatitis is                  
  • 17. 
    A fungal infection spread from the lungs to the liver that causes low WBC count and has a bullseye appearance 
    • A. 

      Hepatitis

    • B. 

      Liver abscess

    • C. 

      Hamartoma

    • D. 

      Candidiasis

  • 18. 
                                  is a bacterial infection in the liver that causes fever, jaundice,malaise, and anorexia.
  • 19. 
                             is an infection caused by ameba-fecal-oral route
    • A. 

      Pyogenic liver abscess

    • B. 

      Amebic liver abscess

    • C. 

      Candidiasis

    • D. 

      Hydatid disease

  • 20. 
    Hydatid disease in the liver comes from                          ?
  • 21. 
    Fatty liver is also known as:
    • A. 

      Cirrhosis

    • B. 

      Steatosis

    • C. 

      Abscess

    • D. 

      Diffuse steatosis

  • 22. 
    Some common causes of fatty liver include:
    • A. 

      Obesity

    • B. 

      Age

    • C. 

      Excessive alcohol

    • D. 

      Diabetes

    • E. 

      Race

    • F. 

      Pregnancy

  • 23. 
    Focal fatty infiltration occurs in a large portion of the liver.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    With focal fatty sparing almost the whole liver is effected except for a small portion which appears hypoechoic.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 25. 
                                      is a diffuse process characterized by firosis and the conversion of normal liver to structurally abnormal nodules.
    • A. 

      Cirrhosis

    • B. 

      Fatty liver

    • C. 

      Hydatid disease

    • D. 

      Abscess

  • 26. 
    Micronodular cirrhosis is caused by:
    • A. 

      Hepatitis

    • B. 

      Alcohol consumption

    • C. 

      Obesity

    • D. 

      Fatty liver

  • 27. 
    Macronodular cirrhosis is caused by:
    • A. 

      Alcohol consumption

    • B. 

      Fatty liver

    • C. 

      Hepatitis

    • D. 

      Obesity

  • 28. 
    Cirrhosis presents with                       
  • 29. 
    This benign neoplasm of the liver is highly vascular, estrogen dependent, less then 3 cm, homogenous, and hyperechoic.
  • 30. 
    Focal nodular hyperplasia is seen mostly in:
    • A. 

      Childhood

    • B. 

      Child-bearing years

    • C. 

      Menopausal years

    • D. 

      Post-menopausal years

  • 31. 
    Adenomas have a decreased incidence because of birth control.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 32. 
    Hepatitis B and C and Cirrhosis cause this:
    • A. 

      Metastatic disease

    • B. 

      Adenoma

    • C. 

      Focal nodular hyperplasia

    • D. 

      Hepatocellular carcinoma

  • 33. 
    Metastatic disease is the most common malignant tumor of the liver.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 34. 
                        is multiple lesions with a halo appearance in the liver.
  • 35. 
    What are the 2 types of hematomas in the liver?
  • 36. 
    What does the "too many tubes" sign refer to?
    • A. 

      Ductal dilation

    • B. 

      Choledochal cysts

    • C. 

      Caroli's disease

    • D. 

      Choledocholithiasis

  • 37. 
                                    refers to stones in the bile ducts.
  • 38. 
    Primary choledocholithiasis forms in the ducts themselves.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    Secondary choledocholithiasis forms in GB and migrates to ducts.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    Obstruction of the CHD by a stone impacted in the cystic duct is:
    • A. 

      Cholangitis

    • B. 

      Mirizzi syndrome

    • C. 

      Pneumobilia

    • D. 

      Caroli's disease

  • 41. 
                                   is blood in the biliary system seen after biopsy or with malignancy
  • 42. 
    Air in the biliary system caused by ERCP
  • 43. 
                                       is caused by irregular thickening of the bile duct walls.
  • 44. 
    Primary sclerosing cholangitis leads to:
    • A. 

      Fibrosing inflamation

    • B. 

      Narrowing of bile ducts

    • C. 

      Cholangiocarcinoma

    • D. 

      Liver failure

    • E. 

      Cholelithiasis

  • 45. 
    Associated with dilation of the biliary tree
  • 46. 
    Metastases to biliary tree mimics cholangio sarcoma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 47. 
    What should you look for with cholelithiasis
  • 48. 
    What are the 4 "F" risk factors of cholelithiasis?
  • 49. 
    What is thickening bile called?
  • 50. 
    Inflammation of the GB
  • 51. 
    Cholecystitis has the following characteristics
    • A. 

      Thickened GB wall

    • B. 

      Anechoic

    • C. 

      Stones

    • D. 

      Pericholecystic fluid outside the wall

    • E. 

      Positive murphy's sign

    • F. 

      Irregular walls

  • 52. 
    Murphy's sign is when putting probe pressure  of the GB it hurts
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    A rare form of acute cholecystitis that is caused by gas forming oranisms
    • A. 

      Acalculous

    • B. 

      Gangrenous

    • C. 

      Emphysematous

  • 54. 
    Calcification of the GB wall is known as:
  • 55. 
    Obstruction due to pancreatic cancer
    • A. 

      Courvoisier's GB

    • B. 

      Adenomyomatosis

    • C. 

      Porcelain GB

    • D. 

      Polyps

  • 56. 
    Hydrops of the GB is characterized by:
    • A. 

      Smaller then 5cm AP measure

    • B. 

      Stones lodged in cystic duct

    • C. 

      Larger then 5cm AP measure

    • D. 

      Sludge in cystic ducts

  • 57. 
    Overgrowth of lumenal epithelium in the gallbladder
  • 58. 
    What is the artifact that is found most often in color for Adenomyomatosis?
  • 59. 
    The normal size of a polyp in the GB is 2-10mm
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 60. 
    A GB polyp will move when the patient moves
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 61. 
    A elderly patient comes in with a mass in the GB that looks like a polyp but is larger and is experiencing pain N/V and a palpable mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • 62. 
    Metastases of the GB is larger then 3 cm
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    What is the biggest risk factor of cholangiocarcinoma?
  • 64. 
    There are 3 different types of cholangiocarcinoma. What are they?
    • A. 

      Intrahepatic

    • B. 

      Distal

    • C. 

      Extrahepatic

    • D. 

      Flackenskins

    • E. 

      Klatskins (Hilar)

  • 65. 
    Where do the adrenal glands sit?
    • A. 

      Anterior to IVC

    • B. 

      Posterior to stomach

    • C. 

      Medial to IVC

    • D. 

      Posterior to IVC

    • E. 

      Anterior to stomach

  • 66. 
    What hormone(s) does zona glomerulosa of the adrenal glands make?
    • A. 

      Cortisol

    • B. 

      Androgens

    • C. 

      Epinephrine and norepinephrine

    • D. 

      Aldosterone

  • 67. 
    What hormone(s) does zona fasciculata and reticularis in the adrenal glands make?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine and norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Cortisol

    • C. 

      Androgen

    • D. 

      Aldosterone

  • 68. 
    What hormone(s) does the medulla of the adrenal glands make?
    • A. 

      Epinephrine and norepinephrine

    • B. 

      Androgens

    • C. 

      Cortisol

    • D. 

      Aldosterone

  • 69. 
    Aldosterone regulates BP
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    Cortisol regulates HR and BP
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 71. 
    Epinepherine and norepinephrine regulate HR and BP
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 72. 
    Hemorrhage in the adrenal glands is due to obstruction
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 73. 
    A female age 40 presents with no symptomsand the U\S reveals internal echoes and posterior enhancement in the adrenal glands. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • 74. 
    Hyperfunctioning adenoma has the following characteristics
    • A. 

      Increase levels of hormone

    • B. 

      Wolman's disease

    • C. 

      Decrease levels of hormone

    • D. 

      Cushing's disease

    • E. 

      Conn's disease

  • 75. 
    Nonfunctioning adrenal adenoma is an incidental finding
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 76. 
    A patient presents for an adrenal u/s and has hypertension,diabetes, and hyperthyroidism. What would you be suspicious of?
  • 77. 
    Rare benign tumor made of fat and bone marrow
  • 78. 
    Hyperfunctioning tumor in the adrenal glands that secretes epinephrine and norepinecphrine and is usually benign
    • A. 

      Wolman's disease

    • B. 

      Myelolipoma

    • C. 

      Adenoma

    • D. 

      Pheochromocytoma

  • 79. 
    Rare autosomal-recessive lipid storage disease that is usually fatal 6 months after birth
  • 80. 
    Hyperfuncioning adrenal cortical cancer can cause what two diseases?
  • 81. 
    This adrenal disease appears conglomerate (bunches of grapes) on u/s
    • A. 

      Adenoma

    • B. 

      Lymphoma

    • C. 

      Kaposi's sarcoma

    • D. 

      Metastases

  • 82. 
    Kaposi's sarcoma is not common in AIDS patients
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    Metastases of the adrenals is fairly common
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    Most common abdominal tumor in neonates
    • A. 

      Nephroblastoma

    • B. 

      Kaposi's sarcoma

    • C. 

      Lymphoma

    • D. 

      Neuroblastoma

  • 85. 
    This disease causes loss of corticomedullary differentiation
  • 86. 
    This disease may be ephysematous or chronic and comes from e-coli
  • 87. 
    A young patient presents with stones in the kidney, fever, and phlanx pain upon evaluation you discover pus in the collecting system. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • 88. 
    An untreated renal infection can cause an abscess.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 89. 
    Urine backs up into the kidney due to obstruction in this disease
  • 90. 
    After a patient voids there is an increase in hydro in the kidney but before voiding there is little to none. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • 91. 
    If renal calculi is greater then 5mm it can pass on its own and if it is less then 5mm the patient will undergo lithotripsy.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    If a renal stone is <5mm use color and you should fine what artifact?
  • 93. 
    When you find a renal stone you should turn sonoCT on
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    Calcifications in the kidney that are non-mobile are known as                       
  • 95. 
    Cortical nephrocalcinosis is caused by sickle-cell disease
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    Medullary nephrocalcinosis is caused by hyperthyroidism
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 97. 
    Most common benign renal tumor made of fat and muscle
  • 98. 
    If there are multiple lipomas in kidney it can cause tuberous sclerosis
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False angiomyolipomas

  • 99. 
    A simple cyst in the kidney is congenital
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False aquired

  • 100. 
    A complex cyst in the kidney has thick walls and septations
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 101. 
                                    is a small kidney with multiple cysts
  • 102. 
    Medullary sponge kidney is associated with:
    • A. 

      Caroli's disease

    • B. 

      Conn's disease

    • C. 

      Cushing's disease

    • D. 

      Polycystic kidney disease

  • 103. 
    Cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in the medullaty pyramids which causes urine stasis and stone formation
  • 104. 
                                     is abrupt decrease in renal function,characterized by oliguria
  • 105. 
    What is most commonly caused by acute tubular necrosis?
    • A. 

      Chronic renal failure

    • B. 

      Renal infarction

    • C. 

      Trauma

    • D. 

      Acute renal failure

  • 106. 
    Loss of renal function due to preexisting disease characterized by polyuria
  • 107. 
    Necrosis due to cessation of blood flow
  • 108. 
    Renal cell carcinoma is associated with what disease?
  • 109. 
    Adenomyolipoma can mimic renal cell carcinoma
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 110. 
    Transitional cell carcinoma affects only the renal pelvis and ureter
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False also the bladder

  • 111. 
    Transitional cell carcinoma is a rare tumor of the renal pelvis,ureter, and bladder that is caused by chronic infection and stones.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False squamous cell carcinoma

  • 112. 
    A renal lymphoma is usually                    
  • 113. 
    Nephroblastoma is also known as                       
  • 114. 
                                         has an increased incidence with horseshoe kidney
  • 115. 
    This is the most common abdominal tumor in children ages 1-8
    • A. 

      Nephroblastoma

    • B. 

      Neuroblastoma

    • C. 

      Lymphoma

    • D. 

      Adenoma

  • 116. 
    Bladder duplication has a septum dividing it and can only be complete
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False can be partial too

  • 117. 
                                       is when the bladder forms outside of the body and is more common in males
  • 118. 
    Bladder exstrophy greatly increases the risk of developing bladder cancer
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    What is the connection between the bladder and umbilicus that usually closes before birth?
  • 120. 
                                       is a cystic structure at the bladder end of the ureter caused by ureteral stenosis
  • 121. 
    Inflammation of the bladder, often secondary to a condition that causes urinary stasis
    • A. 

      Diverticuli

    • B. 

      Neurogenic bladder

    • C. 

      Cystitis

    • D. 

      Ureterocele

  • 122. 
    Loss of sensation or need to urinate. Bladder muscles do not allow normal urine passage
  • 123. 
    What are some things that cause neurogenic bladder?
  • 124. 
    Most common malignant tumor in the bladder