737 Air Systems

300 Questions | Total Attempts: 747

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Aircraft Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The blue RAM DOOR FULL OPEN Light illuminates whenever:
    • A. 

      The airplane is in flight with the landing gear extended.

    • B. 

      The airplane is on the ground.

    • C. 

      Anytime the airplane is in flight.

    • D. 

      When the Ram Door is fully open.

    • E. 

      Both b and d are correct.

  • 2. 
    What fault indications can be reset with the TRIP RESET Switch?
    • A. 

      BLEED TRIP OFF.

    • B. 

      PACK

    • C. 

      ZONE TEMP.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 3. 
    Two pressure relief valves provide safety pressure relief by limiting the differential pressure to a maximum of:
    • A. 

      7.80 psi.

    • B. 

      9.10 psi.

    • C. 

      8.35 psi.

    • D. 

      7.45 psi.

  • 4. 
    The motorized Overboard Exhaust valve:
    • A. 

      Allows for increased ventilation in the smoke removal configuration.

    • B. 

      Serves as backup to the outflow valve if the outflow valve fails.

    • C. 

      Is normally open during pressurized flight above 8000 feet.

    • D. 

      All the above.

  • 5. 
    The amber DUAL BLEED Light indicates a possible APU back pressure condition and thrust must be limited to IDLE.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 6. 
    Refer to the Cabin/Flight Altitude placard. At a cruise altitude of FL 290, the cabin altitude in the manual mode should read:
    • A. 

      Approximately 8000 feet.

    • B. 

      Slightly less than FL 220.

    • C. 

      Approximately 6000 feet.

    • D. 

      Cannot be determined by this placard.

  • 7. 
    The amber OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT Light illuminates. What does this indicate?
    • A. 

      The pressure controller is unable to maintain pressurization.

    • B. 

      The airplane has descended before reaching the preset cruise altitude set in the FLT ALT indicator.

    • C. 

      The pressurization controller has failed and will automatically shift to ALT mode.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 8. 
    Following an unpressurized takeoff, when is the first engine Bleed Switch positioned to ON?
    • A. 

      Prior to 400 feet above the ground.

    • B. 

      After passing through 2000 feet above the ground

    • C. 

      At not less than 400 feet, and prior to 2000 first above field elevation.

    • D. 

      After the No. 1 engine bleed switch is positioned to ON.

  • 9. 
    What is the main source of conditioned air for the flight deck?
    • A. 

      The Right Pack.

    • B. 

      The Left Pack.

    • C. 

      Both packs.

    • D. 

      Ground Air Cart.

  • 10. 
    What systems rely on the pneumatic system for operation?
    • A. 

      Air conditioning/Pressurization, Wing anti-ice, Fuel tanks

    • B. 

      Wing Anti-ice, APU, engine starting.

    • C. 

      APU, engine starting, Air conditioning/Pressurization.

    • D. 

      Engine starting, Air conditioning/Pressurization, Wing and engine thermal anti-ice, Hydraulic reservoirs and water tank pressurization.

  • 11. 
    Illumination of the amber BLEED TRIP OFF Light indicates what valve has automatically closed?
    • A. 

      Modulating and Shutoff valve.

    • B. 

      Related Engine Bleed Air valve.

    • C. 

      Isolation valve.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 12. 
    What happens to engine fan air that is used to cool engine bleed air?
    • A. 

      It is ducted into the pneumatic manifold.

    • B. 

      It is ducted into the crossbleed manifold.

    • C. 

      It is discharged overboard.

    • D. 

      It is ducted into the 5th stage compressor.

  • 13. 
    When does the amber DUAL BLEED Illuminate?
    • A. 

      When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed valve is closed.

    • B. 

      When the APU bleed valve is open and the No.1 engine bleed switch is ON.

    • C. 

      When the APU bleed valve is open, the No. 2 engine bleed switch is on and the isolation valve is open.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 14. 
    What is the position of the isolation valve when the ISOLATION VALVE Switch is in AUTO?
    • A. 

      The isolation valve is always open.

    • B. 

      The isolation valve is always closed.

    • C. 

      The isolation valve automatically modulates between open and closed, depending on pneumatic load.

    • D. 

      Open when any Engine Bleed Air Switch or Air Conditioning Pack Switch is positioned OFF.

  • 15. 
    What happens when the WING-BODY OVHT TEST switch is pressed?
    • A. 

      The amber WING-BODY OVHT lights illuminate.

    • B. 

      The amber PACK TRIP OFF lights illuminate.

    • C. 

      The amber BLEED TRIP OFF lights illuminate.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 16. 
    How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?
    • A. 

      They are AC activated and pneumatically operated.

    • B. 

      They are DC activated and pneumatically operated

    • C. 

      They are pressure activated and AC operated.

    • D. 

      They are pressure activated and DC operated.

  • 17. 
    An illuminated BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates excessive engine bleed air pressure or temperature.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 18. 
    TRIM AIR is added to air from the mix manifold to:
    • A. 

      Reduce pack demand.

    • B. 

      Help maintain a constant cabin pressure.

    • C. 

      Control zone temperature.

    • D. 

      Control pack temperature.

  • 19. 
    Failure of the primary flight deck temperature control will cause an automatic switch to the back-up control.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 20. 
    A zone supply duct overheat will result in:
    • A. 

      The closing of the associated Trim Air Modulating Valve.

    • B. 

      The illumination of the associated amber ZONE TEMP Light.

    • C. 

      Both the closing of the associated Trim Air Modulating Valve and the illumination of the associated ZONE TEMP Light.

    • D. 

      The opening of the associated Trim Air Modulating Valve after the TRIP RESET Switch is pushed.

  • 21. 
    If any individual zone is switched OFF, the Temperature Selector setting will be ignored by the temperature control system.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 22. 
    If all pack control is lost, that pack will automatically shut down.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    The Recirculation Fans:
    • A. 

      Are driven by DC motors.

    • B. 

      Increase airflow at greater cabin differential pressures.

    • C. 

      Reduce air conditioning pack load.

    • D. 

      Provide overheat detection downstream of the packs.

  • 24. 
    What causes an amber PACK Light to illuminate?
    • A. 

      A pack trip off.

    • B. 

      Failure of both primary and standby pack control for the same pack.

    • C. 

      Turning OFF an engine bleed switch.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 25. 
    Logo lights are installed on each wingtip.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 26. 
    During pilot seat adjustment, a sight reference indicating proper adjustment includes:
    • A. 

      “T” below the outboard display unit is visible.

    • B. 

      Sight along the upper surface of the glareshield with a small amount of the airplane nose structure visible.

    • C. 

      An unobstructed view of the displays presented on the bottom of the CDS display.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 27. 
    Which statement is correct regarding Emergency (EMER) EXIT LIGHTS switch positions?
    • A. 

      OFF position prevents emergency light system operation if airplane electrical power fails or is turned off.

    • B. 

      Armed position illuminates all emergency lights if AC bus NO. 1 fails.

    • C. 

      ON position illuminates only emergency lights in cockpit.

    • D. 

      ON position illuminates only flight deck emergency lights.

  • 28. 
    The Oxygen Mask Release Levers when squeezed and pulled:
    • A. 

      Release the masks from their stowage boxes.

    • B. 

      Activate oxygen and microphone when the stowage box door closes.

    • C. 

      Inflate the mask harness when the left lever is squeezed.

    • D. 

      Activate oxygen flow momentarily to test regulator.

  • 29. 
    Servicing of the water system is:
    • A. 

      From an exterior panel of the aft right side of the airplane.

    • B. 

      Requires DC power.

    • C. 

      Gravity feed from external sources.

    • D. 

      From an exterior panel of the aft left side of the airplane.

  • 30. 
    On the flight deck, where is the flight crew oxygen pressure displayed?
    • A. 

      At the oxygen cylinder.

    • B. 

      At the flight crew oxygen shutoff valve.

    • C. 

      On the flight crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel.

    • D. 

      Behind the Captain’s seat on the P-l8 panel.

  • 31. 
    At what cabin altitude is the passenger oxygen system automatically activated?
    • A. 

      10,000 feet.

    • B. 

      12,500 feet.

    • C. 

      14,000 feet.

    • D. 

      17,000 feet.

  • 32. 
    The PASS OXY ON light illuminates, what does tins indicate?
    • A. 

      Passenger oxygen system pressure is low.

    • B. 

      Passenger oxygen quantity is low.

    • C. 

      Passenger oxygen system is activated.

    • D. 

      OVERHEAD annunciator extinguishes on the Master Caution system.

  • 33. 
    Interior emergency exit lights are located:
    • A. 

      On the lower inboard corner of the stowage bins.

    • B. 

      Over the entry/ service and overwing emergency hatches.

    • C. 

      In the ceiling.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 34. 
    The EMERGENCY EXIT light switch in the ARMED position:
    • A. 

      Activates the emergency light system with APU generator power only.

    • B. 

      Illuminates all emergency lights, all the time.

    • C. 

      Illuminates all interior and exterior emergency lights if there is a loss of electrical power on DC bus No. 1, or if AC power has been turned off.

    • D. 

      Can be reset by going from ON to armed.

  • 35. 
    The flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/Test selector when rotated to the EMERGENCY position.
    • A. 

      Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes.

    • B. 

      Test positive pressure supply to the regulator.

    • C. 

      Provides a mixture of ambient air with oxygen on demand.

    • D. 

      Supplies 100% oxygen only at high altitudes.

  • 36. 
    The rain removal system consists of:
    • A. 

      A permanent rain repellent coating on tile windshields and wipers.

    • B. 

      A bottled solution located behind the Captain's seat.

    • C. 

      Rain repellent switches located on the forward overhead panel.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 37. 
    Illumination of an amber COWL ANTI-ICE light indicates:
    • A. 

      An overpressure condition.

    • B. 

      An overtemperature or overpressure condition.

    • C. 

      The related cowl anti-ice valve is open.

    • D. 

      The cowl anti-ice valve position disagrees with the respective engine anti-ice switch position.

  • 38. 
    Refer to the thermal anti-ice (TAI) Upper Display Unit indications. A TAI indication shown at the top left side of each display indicates:
    • A. 

      If amber; an over temperature condition exists in the duct downstream of the engine cowl anti-ice valve.

    • B. 

      If green; the cowl anti-ice valve is closed and tile related engine anti-ice switch is OFF.

    • C. 

      If green; the cowl anti-ice valve(s) is open.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 39. 
    The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to all leading edge slats.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 40. 
    When are the ENGINE ANTI-ICE switches turned ON if icing conditions exist on the ground?
    • A. 

      When cleared onto the runway.

    • B. 

      During taxi out.

    • C. 

      After takeoff.

    • D. 

      After engine start procedure.

  • 41. 
    Which window(s) are heated with the LEFT FWD WTNDOW HEAT switch ON?
    • A. 

      L2, L3, L4, L5.

    • B. 

      L1, L2, L3.

    • C. 

      L1, L2, L3, L4, L5.

    • D. 

      L1 only.

  • 42. 
    When do you use wing anti-ice?
    • A. 

      On the ground when icing conditions exist or anticipated.

    • B. 

      As a de-icer or anti- icer in flight.

    • C. 

      Inflight, prior to ice accumulation.

    • D. 

      All the above are correct.

  • 43. 
    In flight, there are two methods recommended for operating the wing anti-ice system.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    The R ELEV PITOT light is illuminated. What does this indicate?
    • A. 

      The right elevator pitot probe is blocked.

    • B. 

      Malfunction in the pilot probe system.

    • C. 

      The right elevator pilot probe is not heated.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 45. 
    The windshield wipers maintain a clear area on the flight deck forward windows. Which of the following statements is correct?
    • A. 

      Each wiper is operated by a separate control.

    • B. 

      Windshield wipers are hydraulically operated and electrically controlled.

    • C. 

      Windshield wipers may be operated on a dry windshield.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 46. 
    How are the alpha vanes heated?
    • A. 

      By actuating the LEFT or RIGHT FWD window heat switch.

    • B. 

      Whenever wing anti-ice is being used.

    • C. 

      Whenever the alternate static ports are heated.

    • D. 

      By actuating the A or B PROBE HEAT switches.

  • 47. 
    Which pilot probes and sensors are not heated?
    • A. 

      Elevator pilot probes.

    • B. 

      Static ports.

    • C. 

      Captain's pitot probe.

    • D. 

      First Officer's pitot probe.

  • 48. 
    What is the maximum airspeed limit with a WINDOW OVERHEAT?
    • A. 

      250 KIAS.

    • B. 

      280 KIAS.

    • C. 

      250 KIAS below 10,000 feet.

    • D. 

      280 KIAS below 10,000 feet.

  • 49. 
    The window heat PWR TEST:
    • A. 

      Must be tested before each flight.

    • B. 

      Test the window L1 and R1 only.

    • C. 

      Verifies operation of the window heat system.

    • D. 

      Can be used if all green window heat lights on.

  • 50. 
    After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:
    • A. 

      400 feet Radio Altitude.

    • B. 

      800 feet Radio Altitude

    • C. 

      400 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off.

    • D. 

      800 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off.

  • 51. 
    Minimum speed reversion is not available when:
    • A. 

      The A/T is OFF and the AFDS is in ALT HOLD.

    • B. 

      After G/S capture.

    • C. 

      AFDS is in V/S mode.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 52. 
    With the autopilot in CMD and V/S mode engaged, vertical speeds can be selected that command flight toward or away from the selected MCP altitude.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 53. 
    When control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation, the airplane will roll wings level when the bank angle is:
    • A. 

      5 degrees or less.

    • B. 

      6 degrees or less.

    • C. 

      10 degrees or less.

    • D. 

      15 degrees or less.

  • 54. 
    The Automatic Flight System (AFS) consists of:
    • A. 

      The autopilots flight director system.

    • B. 

      Control Display Unit (CDU)

    • C. 

      The autothrottle (A/T)

    • D. 

      Both a and c.

  • 55. 
    In normal operation, what provides the A/T system with N1 limit values?
    • A. 

      A/T computer.

    • B. 

      AFDS.

    • C. 

      FMC.

    • D. 

      ADIRUs.

  • 56. 
    The autopilot cannot be engaged while force is applied to the control wheel
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 57. 
    Moving the STAB TRIM autopilot cutout switch to the CUTOUT position will disengage the autopilot.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    Trimming the stabilizer with the electrical trim switch on the control wheel with autopilot engaged, will disengage the autopilot.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    Which mode must be armed before the second autopilot can be selected?
    • A. 

      VNAV

    • B. 

      VOR/LOC.

    • C. 

      APP.

    • D. 

      LNAV.

  • 60. 
    Which of the following occurs when a TO/GA switch is pressed below 2000 feet radio altitude from a single autopilot ILS approach?
    • A. 

      The autopilot disengages.

    • B. 

      The A/T (if armed) engages in GA mode.

    • C. 

      The A/T (if armed) advances thrust levers to reduced go-around N1.

    • D. 

      All the above are correct.

  • 61. 
    What pitch mode is annunciated after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in "CMD"?
    • A. 

      CWS P.

    • B. 

      MCP SPD.

    • C. 

      VNAV.

    • D. 

      V/S

  • 62. 
    Is CWS an autopilot mode of operation?
    • A. 

      Yes

    • B. 

      No

  • 63. 
    The airplane is in level flight with ALT HOLD engaged. Changing the MCP altitude by more than 100 feet from current altitude, arms the V/S mode.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Level change climbs and descents while using the autoflight system are made at the airspeed displayed on:
    • A. 

      The CDU.

    • B. 

      The MCP.

    • C. 

      The A/T computer

    • D. 

      Both a and c.

  • 65. 
    With VNAV engaged, the AFDS pitch and A/T modes are commanded by the:
    • A. 

      MCP.

    • B. 

      FMC.

    • C. 

      FCC

    • D. 

      GPWS

  • 66. 
    If the pilot overrides the control column with a manual pitch input, which of the following occurs immediately?
    • A. 

      The autopilot engages in LNAV.

    • B. 

      LNAV disengages.

    • C. 

      The autopilot changes to CWS P.

    • D. 

      LEVEL CHANGE annunciates.

  • 67. 
    Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
    • A. 

      GA and ARM.

    • B. 

      N1 and ARM.

    • C. 

      THR HLD and ARM.

    • D. 

      Only THR HLD.

  • 68. 
    Engaging LVL CHG or VNAV climb modes automatically engages the A/T N l mode.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 69. 
    During a dual autopilot ILS approach, at which radio altitude (RA) should the FLARE mode engage?
    • A. 

      300 feet.

    • B. 

      200 feet.

    • C. 

      150 feet.

    • D. 

      50 feet.

  • 70. 
    VNAV is terminated by:
    • A. 

      Selecting a different pitch mode.

    • B. 

      G/S capture.

    • C. 

      Reaching the end of an LNAV route.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 71. 
    What is the minimum altitude for selecting CMD on the second autopilot during a dual channel A/P approach?
    • A. 

      2000 feet RA.

    • B. 

      1500 feet RA.

    • C. 

      800 feet RA.

    • D. 

      500 feet RA.

  • 72. 
    The ALT HOLD mode of the AFDS is inhibited after the glide slope is captured during an ILS.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 73. 
    When performing an autopilot ILS approach, the glide slope can be captured from above or below.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 74. 
    Which statement is true of the autothrottle?
    • A. 

      The autothrottle can move the thrust levers separately

    • B. 

      The autothrottle can be manually overridden.

    • C. 

      The autothrottle will reduce thrust toward idle at 27 feet RA.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 75. 
    LNAV automatically disconnects when:
    • A. 

      HDG SEL mode is engaged.

    • B. 

      Upon VOR or localizer capture.

    • C. 

      Reaching a route discontinuity.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 76. 
    The Flight Deck Voice Recorder area microphone:
    • A. 

      Is active anytime 115 AC power is applied to the airplane.

    • B. 

      Is powered by the hot battery bus.

    • C. 

      Is integrated with the flight deck overhead speakers.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 77. 
    Altitude alert, (GPWS), and windshear are:
    • A. 

      Integral components of the Flight Mode Alerting System.

    • B. 

      Audible through the audio control panel in the degraded mode.

    • C. 

      Not heard on an audio system operating in the degraded mode.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 78. 
    The Audio Control Panel (ACP) push to talk switch:
    • A. 

      Has an I/C (intercom) position, this position keys the oxygen mask or boom microphones for transmission via the transmitter selector

    • B. 

      Has an R/T position; this position keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for transmission as selected by transmitter selector.

    • C. 

      Has an I/C position, this position keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for direct transmission over the flight interphone utilizing the transmitter selector.

    • D. 

      Has two positions for Intercom and Radio-Telephone.

  • 79. 
    The Flight Deck Voice Recorder uses:
    • A. 

      Four independent channels to record flight deck audio for 90 minutes.

    • B. 

      Two independent channels for flight deck audio for 120 minutes.

    • C. 

      Four independent channels to record flight deck audio for 120 minutes

    • D. 

      Recordings older than 120 minutes require manual erase via maintenance personnel.

  • 80. 
    In degraded mode audio system cannot access the passenger address system through the audio control panel. What are combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station.
    • A. 

      Captain/VHF-l, F.O./VHF-2, Observer/VHF-2.

    • B. 

      Captain/VHF-2, F.O./VHF-1, Observer/VHF-1.

    • C. 

      Captain /VHF-1, F.O./VHF-l, Observer/VHF-1.

    • D. 

      Captain/VHF-1, F.O./VHF-2, Observer/VHF-1.

  • 81. 
    The engine integrated drive generators (IDGs):
    • A. 

      Are three-phase, 115 volt, 400 cycle direct current.

    • B. 

      Adjust varying generator speeds throughout normal range of operation.

    • C. 

      Allow the generator to maintain a constant speed throughout the normal operating range of the engine.

    • D. 

      Have an integral electro-mechanical disconnect device that does not provide complete mechanical isolation of the IDG.

  • 82. 
    AC Transfer busses:
    • A. 

      Supply power to the 115V AC main busses.

    • B. 

      Can not be powered by both external power and APU power at the same time.

    • C. 

      Can be paralleling sources of power.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 83. 
    In flight, if an engine generator is no longer supplying power, the BTBs automatically close to allow the other engine generator to supply both transfer busses through the tie bus and BTBs
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 84. 
    During cruise, one engine driven generator drops off-line and the BUS TRANSFER Switch is in the auto position, what indications will the pilot see?
    • A. 

      A TRANSFER BUS OFF Light and a GEN OFF BUS Light illuminate.

    • B. 

      SOURCE OFF, GEN OFF BUS Lights illuminate, and TRANSFER BUS OFF Lights extinguished.

    • C. 

      Illumination of the fuel pump, probe heat, hydraulic pump light.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 85. 
    Under which of the following conditions will the Cross Bus Tie Relay automatically open isolating DC bus 1 from DC bus 2?
    • A. 

      An engine driven generator drops off line.

    • B. 

      The bus transfer switch is positioned to OFF.

    • C. 

      At glide slope capture, during a F/D or autopilot ILS approach.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 86. 
    With the STANDBY POWER switch in the AUTO position, the loss of all normal AC electrical power causes the battery to power the standby loads:
    • A. 

      Only in flight

    • B. 

      Only on the ground.

    • C. 

      Both in the air and on the ground

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 87. 
    AC amperage can be observed on the AC ammeter for the source selected by the AC meters selector.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 88. 
    Illumination of the amber BAT DISCHARGE light indicates:
    • A. 

      The battery is being overcharged.

    • B. 

      Excessive battery discharge is detected with the battery switch ON.

    • C. 

      Discharging when the DC meter is in the BAT position with the battery switch on.

    • D. 

      The battery bus is not powered.

  • 89. 
    The TR UNIT amber light will illuminate in flight if:
    • A. 

      Any TR unit fails.

    • B. 

      TR1 fails.

    • C. 

      TR2 and TR3 fails.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 90. 
    The ELEC amber light will illuminate on the ground if:
    • A. 

      A fault exists in the AC or standby power system.

    • B. 

      A fault exists in the DC or standby power system.

    • C. 

      A fault exists in the AC, DC or the standby power system.

    • D. 

      A fault exists in the AC power system only.

  • 91. 
    Illumination of the amber Generator Drive (DRIVE) Light indicates low oil pressure caused by which of the following?
    • A. 

      IDG failure.

    • B. 

      IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch

    • C. 

      IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 92. 
    Illumination of the blue GRD POWER AVAILABLE Light indicates:
    • A. 

      External ground power is connected and meets airplane power quality standards.

    • B. 

      External ground power is connected; however, no airplane power quality is assured.

    • C. 

      External ground power is connected; however, only AC power quality is assured.

    • D. 

      External ground power is connected and ground service bus is automatically powered.

  • 93. 
    The SOURCE OFF light will illuminate when:
    • A. 

      No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus.

    • B. 

      The manually selected source has been disconnected.

    • C. 

      Both transfer busses are being powered if a source has been selected to power the opposite transfer bus.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 94. 
    Illumination of the GEN OFF BUS Light indicates:
    • A. 

      The related main bus is not powered.

    • B. 

      The related transfer bus is not powered.

    • C. 

      The IDG is not supplying power to the related transfer bus.

    • D. 

      The APU is running and not powering a bus.

  • 95. 
    In flight, if the APU generator is supplying both AC transfer busses, positioning the BUS TRANS switch to OFF will:
    • A. 

      Cause AC transfer bus 1 to lose power.

    • B. 

      Cause AC transfer bus 2 to lose poster.

    • C. 

      Cause both AC transfer busses to lose power.

    • D. 

      Not cause either AC transfer bus to lose power.

  • 96. 
    Illumination of the STANDBY POWER OFF light indicates one or more of the following busses are unpowered:
    • A. 

      The AC standby bus.

    • B. 

      The DC standby bus.

    • C. 

      The battery bus.

    • D. 

      All or any combination of the above.

  • 97. 
    Both AC transfer busses can be powered simultaneously by:
    • A. 

      A single IDG on the ground or in flight.

    • B. 

      The APU generator while on the ground or in flight.

    • C. 

      The APU and external power.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 98. 
    When takeoffs are made with the APU powering both transfer busses:
    • A. 

      One transfer bus will disconnect automatically after lift-off

    • B. 

      If the APU is either shut down or fails, the engine generators are automatically connected to their related transfer busses.

    • C. 

      The generators will NOT automatically come on line if the APU is either shut down or fails.

    • D. 

      Both transfer busses will automatically disconnect after lift-off.

  • 99. 
    On the ground, with the BATTERY switch OFF and the STANDBY POWER switch in AUTO, the battery bus is:
    • A. 

      Not powered.

    • B. 

      Powered by TR #3.

    • C. 

      Powered by the Hot Battery Bus.

    • D. 

      Powered by the Battery.

  • 100. 
    The Ground Power switch when momentarily moved to the ON position and ground power is available:
    • A. 

      Removes previously connected power from DC transfer buses.

    • B. 

      Connects ground power to AC Main busses if power quality is correct.

    • C. 

      Disconnect ground power from AC transfer busses.

    • D. 

      Connects ground power to AC transfer busses if power quality is correct.

  • 101. 
    One basic principle of operation for the 737 electrical system is:
    • A. 

      All generator bus sources can be automatically connected by the Standby Power System.

    • B. 

      There is no paralleling of the AC power sources.

    • C. 

      There is no paralleling of any power source.

    • D. 

      An AC power source may be used in parallel with a DC power source.

  • 102. 
    With the BUS TRANSFER Switch in AUTO, the cross bus tie relay automatically opens under which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      At localizer capture.

    • B. 

      At glide slope capture during a flight director or autopilot ILS approach.

    • C. 

      When TR 1 and TR 2 fail.

    • D. 

      When AC volts meter reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts).

  • 103. 
    When the STANDBY POWER switch is OFF:
    • A. 

      The STANDBY PWR OFF light will be illuminated.

    • B. 

      AC standby bus, static inverter, and DC standby bus are powered.

    • C. 

      AC standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter.

    • D. 

      The static inverter provides 28 volt DC power to transfer bus 1.

  • 104. 
    The 115 volt AC Standby Bus is powered by:
    • A. 

      The 115 volt AC Transfer Bus No. l under normal conditions.

    • B. 

      The battery bus through the static inverter under normal conditions.

    • C. 

      The battery through the static inverter with a failure of both engine driven and APU generators.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 105. 
    The cross bus tie relay automatically opens at glide slope capture during a flight director or autopilot ILS approach to:
    • A. 

      Prevent a single bus failure from affecting both navigation receivers and flight control computers.

    • B. 

      Provide more power to the AC Standby Bus.

    • C. 

      Ensure that the Standby DC bus is powered.

    • D. 

      Isolate DC bus 1 from AC bus 2.

  • 106. 
    Engine oil pressure is in the amber band when takeoff thrust is set. Which of the following is true during takeoff?
    • A. 

      Acceptable, no action is necessary.

    • B. 

      Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature.

    • C. 

      Permitted only for completion of the flight, preferably at reduced thrust setting.

    • D. 

      DO NOT TAKEOFF.

  • 107. 
    Reverse thrust can be selected with the forward thrust levers in what position?
    • A. 

      T/O thrust position.

    • B. 

      Continuous thrust position.

    • C. 

      Idle thrust position.

    • D. 

      Any forward thrust position.

  • 108. 
    What is the position of the engine BLEED air switches during the shutdown procedure?
    • A. 

      ON.

    • B. 

      AUTO.

    • C. 

      OFF.

    • D. 

      HIGH.

  • 109. 
    What are the indications that the engine Starter has disengaged?
    • A. 

      The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights extinguish with Nl RPM at 56%.

    • B. 

      The ENGINE START switch returns to AUTO at 56% N2 and the START VALVE\OPEN alert extinguishes.

    • C. 

      The ENGINE START switch returns to OFF at 36%.

    • D. 

      Start switch rotates to FLT, N l 17-20% and N2 rpm stabilized.

  • 110. 
    During the After Start Procedure the amber DUAL BLEED light is illuminated. What should be done?
    • A. 

      Limit engine thrust to idle while the light is illuminated.

    • B. 

      Place the APU BLEED AIR switch to OFF.

    • C. 

      Pull the engine fire handles,

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 111. 
    Which hydraulic system during normal operations powers the thrust reversers?
    • A. 

      System A.

    • B. 

      System B.

    • C. 

      System A or engine No.1 and system B or engine No. 2.

    • D. 

      Standby system

  • 112. 
    The thrust reverser may be deployed:
    • A. 

      During cruise when the thrust lever is at idle.

    • B. 

      When either radio altimeter senses less than 10 feet altitude.

    • C. 

      When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 113. 
    Of the four lights located on the APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
    • A. 

      LOW OIL PRESSURE

    • B. 

      MAINT

    • C. 

      FAULT

    • D. 

      OVERSPEED

  • 114. 
    The blue APU GEN OFF BUS light will illuminate:
    • A. 

      Whenever the APU is powering AC transfer bus 1.

    • B. 

      Whenever the APU is powering AC transfer bus 2

    • C. 

      Whenever the APU is supplying power to the AC transfer bus with the BTB Open.

    • D. 

      When the APU is running and is not powering a bus.

  • 115. 
    The APU will shutdown in flight when:
    • A. 

      The battery switch is placed to OFF.

    • B. 

      The MAINT light illuminates.

    • C. 

      The fuel LOW PRESSURE lights in the right main tank illuminate.

    • D. 

      Immediately after moving the APU switch to OFF.

  • 116. 
    The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to:
    • A. 

      10,000 feet.

    • B. 

      17,000 feet.

    • C. 

      25,000 feet.

    • D. 

      30,000 feet.

  • 117. 
    The APU may be used as a bleed air source up to:
    • A. 

      10,000 feet.

    • B. 

      17,000 feet.

    • C. 

      25,000 feet.

    • D. 

      35,000 feet.

  • 118. 
    If the EGT exceeds the starting limit the EEC automatically turns off the ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine (ground starts only).
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 119. 
    If the upper DU fails, engine indications automatically shift to either inboard DU.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 120. 
    The EEC drives all engine indications except:
    • A. 

      Fuel flow and oil pressure.

    • B. 

      Oil temperature and engine vibration.

    • C. 

      Oil quantity and engine vibration.

    • D. 

      Oil temperature, pressure, and quantity indications.

  • 121. 
    Prior to a normal engine start:
    • A. 

      Only oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GND.

    • B. 

      Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GND.

    • C. 

      The EEC is not powered until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than 15% N2.

    • D. 

      Only digital readouts are visible for engine indications.

  • 122. 
    The EEC hard alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the same lever position.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 123. 
    The EEC provides redline overspeed protection for:
    • A. 

      N1 only, in both the normal and alternate mode.

    • B. 

      N2 only, in both the normal and alternate modes.

    • C. 

      N1 and N2 in the normal mode only.

    • D. 

      N1 and N2 in both the normal and alternate modes.

  • 124. 
    The EEC provides EGT redline exceedance protection
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 125. 
    The EEC automatically selects approach idle in flight anytime:
    • A. 

      The airplane descends below 15,000 feet MSL.

    • B. 

      Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT.

    • C. 

      Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either engine.

    • D. 

      Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.

  • 126. 
    Starter cutout speed is:
    • A. 

      25% N2.

    • B. 

      46% N2.

    • C. 

      Approximately 50% N1

    • D. 

      Approximately 56% N2.

  • 127. 
    The APU can operate and supply electrical power up to:
    • A. 

      17,000 feet.

    • B. 

      35,000 feet.

    • C. 

      37,000 feet.

    • D. 

      41,000 feet.

  • 128. 
    The APU can power both transfer busses:
    • A. 

      On the ground only.

    • B. 

      In the air only.

    • C. 

      On the ground or in the air.

    • D. 

      Never.

  • 129. 
    The APU supplies bleed air for both air conditioning packs:
    • A. 

      On the ground only.

    • B. 

      In the air only.

    • C. 

      On the ground and in the air.

    • D. 

      Never.

  • 130. 
    APU cooling air:
    • A. 

      Enters through the air inlet door.

    • B. 

      Enters through the ram air system.

    • C. 

      Enters through a cooling air inlet above the APU exhaust outlet.

    • D. 

      Is supplied by the air conditioning packs.

  • 131. 
    Electrical power to start the APU comes from:
    • A. 

      The battery bus or the DC ground power receptacle.

    • B. 

      Battery power or either AC transfer bus.

    • C. 

      Either the AC or DC Standby Bus.

    • D. 

      The AC transfer bus 1 if available. If AC power is not available, battery power is used

  • 132. 
    With AC power available, the starter generator uses AC power to start the APU. Without AC power available, the starter generator uses battery power to start the APU.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 133. 
    The APU start cycle may take up to:
    • A. 

      90 seconds.

    • B. 

      120 seconds.

    • C. 

      135 seconds.

    • D. 

      60 seconds.

  • 134. 
    If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle:
    • A. 

      The FAULT' light illuminates.

    • B. 

      The MAINT light illuminates.

    • C. 

      The APU failed a self test and the OVERSPEED light will illuminate.

    • D. 

      There is no light associated with this malfunction.

  • 135. 
    The APU switch OFF position has an automatic shutdown delay of:
    • A. 

      30 seconds

    • B. 

      60 seconds.

    • C. 

      120 seconds.

    • D. 

      135 seconds

  • 136. 
    The APU electronic control unit (ECU) provides:
    • A. 

      Automatic shutdown protection for overspeed conditions, low oil pressure, and high oil temperature.

    • B. 

      Automatic shutdown protection for APU fire, fuel control unit failure, and EGT exceedance.

    • C. 

      Automatic control of APU speed through the electronic fuel unit.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 137. 
    If the APU is the only source of electrical power:
    • A. 

      In flight, the galley busses are automatically shed.

    • B. 

      In flight, the APU attempts to carry the full electrical load.

    • C. 

      On the ground, the galley busses are automatically shed.

    • D. 

      On the ground, the main busses are shed first if an overload condition is sensed.

  • 138. 
    If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine:
    • A. 

      15 seconds after the start valve opens during ground starts.

    • B. 

      15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle during ground starts.

    • C. 

      10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to idle

    • D. 

      No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.

  • 139. 
    Pulling the engine fire warning switch up:
    • A. 

      Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve.

    • B. 

      Closes both the engine fuel shutoff valve and the spar fuel shutoff valve only if the battery switch is ON.

    • C. 

      Closes the hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and disables the thrust reverser for the related engine.

    • D. 

      Both a and c.

  • 140. 
    Some of the indications for an engine fire warning are the MASTER CAUTION Lights, the ENG OVERHEAT Light, the Master FIRE WARN Lights and the red fire switch light. What are the other indications?
    • A. 

      The Fire bell.

    • B. 

      A Red ENG OVERHEAT Light illuminates.

    • C. 

      OVERHEAT annunciator light.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct

  • 141. 
    Fire extinguishers provide a means of extinguishing engine, APU, wheel well and lavatory fires.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 142. 
    Illumination of the APU DET INOP Light will also cause the MASTER CAUTION and OVHT/DET annunciator lights to illuminate.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 143. 
    Placing the TEST Switch in the FAULT/INOP position tests:
    • A. 

      The engine overheat detectors.

    • B. 

      The fault detection circuits for both engines and the APU.

    • C. 

      The APU DET INOP light, FAULT light and APU BOTTLE DISCHARGE light.

    • D. 

      The APU DET INOP light and engine overheat detectors.

  • 144. 
    During normal operation as a dual loop system, with the OVHT DET Switch in NORMAL, a fire alert is initiated by both detector loops sensing a fire condition.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 145. 
    Pulling up the APU fire warning switch:
    • A. 

      Discharges the APU fire extinguisher.

    • B. 

      Trips the generator control relay, and generator breaker, arms the associated extinguisher and closes the bleed air valve.

    • C. 

      Closes the fuel shutoff valve and the APU inlet door and allows APU FIRE WARNING Switch to rotate.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 146. 
    The power source for fire extinguishing is:
    • A. 

      Transfer Bus 1.

    • B. 

      The switched battery bus.

    • C. 

      The hot battery bus.

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 147. 
    How many flight spoilers are located on the upper surface of each wing?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Three

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Six

  • 148. 
    In the event of an elevator jam, a transfer mechanism allows:
    • A. 

      For lighter than normal forces to be used on the control column for takeoff or landing.

    • B. 

      The control columns to be physically separated.

    • C. 

      Applying force against the jam will breakout only the Captain's control column.

    • D. 

      The elevator feel and centering unit to transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control columns.

  • 149. 
    Autopilot trim and stabilizer trim use separate motors.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 150. 
    Conditions for speed trim operation include:
    • A. 

      5 seconds after takeoff.

    • B. 

      Ten seconds after release of trim switches.

    • C. 

      100 KIAS - Mach 0.68

    • D. 

      N1 above 50%.

  • 151. 
    With the loss of hydraulic system B, (system A operating normally):
    • A. 

      Main yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON.

    • B. 

      Standby yaw damper functions are available as long as hydraulic system A is providing normal pressure and the yaw damper switch is ON.

    • C. 

      Main and standby yaw damper functions are inoperative.

    • D. 

      Standby yaw damper functions are available if the FLT CONTROL B switch is placed to STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch is reset to ON.

  • 152. 
    When the standby yaw damper is active, rudder movements are indicated on the yaw damper indicator.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 153. 
    Yaw damper inputs (main or standby) can be overridden:
    • A. 

      Only when the yaw damper switch is OFF.

    • B. 

      By trim inputs but not rudder pedal inputs

    • C. 

      By rudder pedal inputs but not trim inputs.

    • D. 

      By either trim or rudder pedal inputs.

  • 154. 
    The number of ground spoilers on each wing is:
    • A. 

      Two.

    • B. 

      Three.

    • C. 

      Four.

    • D. 

      Six.

  • 155. 
    If wheel spinup is not detected on landing with the speed brake armed, the flight spoilers will deploy automatically:
    • A. 

      Only when the right main landing gear strut is compressed.

    • B. 

      When the air/ground system senses the ground mode (any strut compresses).

    • C. 

      When the ground spoilers deploy.

    • D. 

      Flight spoilers do not deploy on landing, only ground spoilers deploy.

  • 156. 
    The number of slats located on each wing is:
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      6

  • 157. 
    The trailing edge devices consist of double slotted flaps inboard and outboard of each engine.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 158. 
    The flap load relief system is operational at:
    • A. 

      All flap settings.

    • B. 

      Flaps 15, 30, and 40.

    • C. 

      Flaps 30 and 40.

    • D. 

      Flaps 40 only.

  • 159. 
    The flap/ slat electronics unit (FSEU) provides:
    • A. 

      LE skew detection for slats 2 through 7 except during autoslat operation.

    • B. 

      TE asymmetry protection.

    • C. 

      Uncommanded motion protection for LE devices or TE flaps.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 160. 
    The trailing edge flaps are at 15 units. The correct indication on the aft overhead panel for the leading edge devices is:
    • A. 

      All amber TRANSIT lights illuminated.

    • B. 

      All LE devices FULL EXT lights illuminated.

    • C. 

      All LE devices EXT lights illuminated.

    • D. 

      LE slats EXT lights and LE flaps FULL EXT lights illuminated.

  • 161. 
    During descent from altitude you need to decrease your airspeed by using your speed brakes. What is the correct position of the SPEED BRAKE LEVER?
    • A. 

      ARMED

    • B. 

      FLIGHT DETENT.

    • C. 

      UP.

    • D. 

      Any intermediate position.

  • 162. 
    What is the maximum flap extension altitude?
    • A. 

      10,000 feet

    • B. 

      17,000 feet.

    • C. 

      20,000 feet.

    • D. 

      23,000 feet.

  • 163. 
    The ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch:
    • A. 

      Fully extends the LE devices using standby hydraulic pressure, and electrically extends the TE flaps.

    • B. 

      Closes the Flight Spoiler Shutoff valve.

    • C. 

      Activates the standby hydraulic pump and pressurizes the standby rudder Power Control Unit.

    • D. 

      Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump, and closes the Trailing Edge Flaps Bypass valve.

  • 164. 
    An alternate retraction system is provided for the LE devices.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 165. 
    The amber LE FLAPS TRANSIT light:
    • A. 

      Indicates all LE devices are fully extended.

    • B. 

      Indicates LE slats are fully extended.

    • C. 

      Is inhibited during autoslat operation in flight.

    • D. 

      Provides TE flaps asymmetry protection.

  • 166. 
    The autoslat system:
    • A. 

      Provides for slat deployment above Vmo/ Mmo.

    • B. 

      Drives the slats to the full extended position when the TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the airplane approaches a stall.

    • C. 

      Is normally powered by hydraulic system A.

    • D. 

      Is normally powered by Power Transfer Unit (PTU).

  • 167. 
    The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides an alternate source of power for the autoslat system if:
    • A. 

      A loss of hydraulic system A pressure is sensed.

    • B. 

      The hydraulic system A engine driven pump is inoperative.

    • C. 

      The Alternate Flaps position switch is momentarily held down.

    • D. 

      Pressure from the hydraulic system B engine driven pump drops below limits.

  • 168. 
    In addition to hydraulic system A and B, the rudder can also be powered by the standby hydraulic system through the:
    • A. 

      System A standby rudder Power Control Unit.

    • B. 

      System B standby rudder Power Control Unit.

    • C. 

      Standby rudder Power Control Unit.

    • D. 

      Main rudder Power Control Unit.

  • 169. 
    Elevator system feel is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:
    • A. 

      Altitude and elevator position.

    • B. 

      Elevator balance tabs position.

    • C. 

      Only system A hydraulic pressure.

    • D. 

      Airspeed and stabilizer position.

  • 170. 
    The amber FEEL DIFF PRESS light illuminates when the:
    • A. 

      Excessive differential pressure exists in the elevator feel computer.

    • B. 

      Flaps are not up and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or one of the elevator feel pilot systems fails.

    • C. 

      Flaps are up or down and a hydraulic pressure imbalance is detected or if one of the elevator pitot systems fails.

    • D. 

      No correct answer is provided.

  • 171. 
    Select the correct statement.
    • A. 

      The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the ailerons and elevator.

    • B. 

      Flight spoilers are used both for roll control, descent and deceleration.

    • C. 

      The trailing edge flaps can be both extended and retracted using the alternate flap drive system.

    • D. 

      All statements are correct.

  • 172. 
    Loss of hydraulic system B pressure does not disengage the yaw damper switch.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 173. 
    The decision height or minimum altitude reference display on the CDS is set:
    • A. 

      Automatically when the approach is selected.

    • B. 

      Independently by each pilot using his EFIS control panel.

    • C. 

      By entering the desired DH on the FMC CDU APPROACH REFERENCE page.

    • D. 

      By using the DH selector knob on the forward instrument panel.

  • 174. 
    An amber DISPLAY SOURCE annunciation indicates:
    • A. 

      The altimeter is receiving inputs from a source other than the ADIRU and should be considered unreliable unless verified by another source.

    • B. 

      A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units.

    • C. 

      A non-dispatchable CDS fault has occurred.

    • D. 

      A single EFIS control panel has been manually or automatically selected as the source for all six display units.

  • 175. 
    With the CONTROL PANEL Select Switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2 position:
    • A. 

      Control of the Captain's and First Officer's display switches to a single EFIS control panel.

    • B. 

      Both pilot's displays are using the No. 2 symbol generator.

    • C. 

      DEU 2 controls all six display units.

    • D. 

      ADIRU inputs for both the L and R ADIRU are being received from the First Officer's pilot probe.

  • 176. 
    The airplane is on the ground and the flight recorder switch is in NORMAL.
    • A. 

      The flight recorder operates anytime electrical power is available.

    • B. 

      The flight recorder operates when electrical power is available and either engine is operating.

    • C. 

      The flight recorder operates whenever the Battery switch is ON.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 177. 
    What will occur if the airplane pitch attitude reaches the pitch limit indicator when the flaps are not up?
    • A. 

      The airplane stalls.

    • B. 

      The airplane will experience initial stall buffet.

    • C. 

      Stick shaker activation for existing flight conditions.

    • D. 

      The stick nudger pushes the control column forward.

  • 178. 
    Holding patterns appear as scaled representation if the airplane is within 3 minutes of the holding fix with the range scale set at 80 NM or less.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 179. 
    The position trend vector segments extending from the airplane symbol on the navigation displays represents:
    • A. 

      A prediction of the airplane's position at the end of 30, 60, and 90 second intervals.

    • B. 

      A presentation of the airplane's pitch attitude.

    • C. 

      An indication of the airplane's true airspeed.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 180. 
    The navigation display's wind arrow with wind direction/speed is:
    • A. 

      Displayed if wind magnitude is greater than 6 knots.

    • B. 

      Blanked if wind speed becomes less than 5 knots.

    • C. 

      Displayed in only the EHSI MAP mode.

    • D. 

      Displayed only when flying an ILS approach.

  • 181. 
    When the battery is the only source of electrical power:
    • A. 

      Both the Captain's inboard and outboard displays are functional.

    • B. 

      The Captain's inboard and First Officer's outboard displays are functional.

    • C. 

      Only the Captain's outboard display functions.

    • D. 

      Only DEU No. 2 is powered until the battery is discharged.

  • 182. 
    ROLL displayed in amber in the lower portion of the Attitude Indicator means:
    • A. 

      The airplane has exceeded 40 degrees of bank.

    • B. 

      No F/D or autopilot roll mode has been engaged.

    • C. 

      The Captain's roll attitude is more than 3 degrees in error.

    • D. 

      The Captain's and First Officer's roll angle display differ by more than 5 degrees.

  • 183. 
    The First Officer observes the word PITCH displayed in amber in the lower portion of the Attitude Indicator during an ILS approach. This means:
    • A. 

      The autopilot has defaulted to CWS pitch.

    • B. 

      Glide slope is not being tracked.

    • C. 

      The Captain's and First Officer's pitch angle displays differ by more than 5 degrees.

    • D. 

      The First Officer's pitch display is more than 3 degrees in error.

  • 184. 
    During an ILS approach the Crew observes the "Radio" legend and read out display turn amber and begins flashing for 3 seconds. This means: (PFDND only)
    • A. 

      Radio altitude data is unreliable.

    • B. 

      The airplane has descended below the selected minimum altitude.

    • C. 

      A windshear has been encountered.

    • D. 

      The airplane has descended below 1000 feet.

  • 185. 
    Magnetic variation stored in each IRS memory is between:
    • A. 

      70 degrees 15'N to 70 degrees 15'S

    • B. 

      73 degrees N to 60 degrees S.

    • C. 

      82 degrees N to 82 degrees S.

    • D. 

      78 degrees 25'N to 78 degrees 25'S.

  • 186. 
    The airplane is not certified for operations:
    • A. 

      Above 78 degrees 15'N or below 78 degrees 15'S.

    • B. 

      Above 73 degrees N or below 60 degrees S.

    • C. 

      Above 82 degrees N or below 82 degrees S.

    • D. 

      The airplane is certified for operations at all altitudes.

  • 187. 
    When the FMC is not receiving required fuel data:
    • A. 

      VNAV disengages and VNAV operation is not possible.

    • B. 

      The scratchpad message "USING RSV FUEL" may be displayed.

    • C. 

      The pilot is responsible for periodic entry of fuel weight in order to keep gross weight value current.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 188. 
    With HDG SEL, engaged, selecting LNAV will:
    • A. 

      Engage if the airplane is within 3 nm of the LNAV course, regardless of heading

    • B. 

      Arm if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or more regardless of distance from the LNAV course.

    • C. 

      Engage if the airplane is on an intercept heading of 90 degrees or less and the intercept will occur before the active waypoint.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 189. 
    An acceptable required time of arrival entry found on ACT RTA PROGRESS page 2/3 is
    • A. 

      10/30/45.

    • B. 

      10304.

    • C. 

      10/30.5.

    • D. 

      103045Z.

  • 190. 
    If an engine fails during flight:
    • A. 

      Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all subsequent performance predictions are blanked.

    • B. 

      Execution of the ENGINE OUT page disengages VNAV and all performance data must be reentered before VNAV can be reengaged.

    • C. 

      The MOD ENGINE OUT CRZ page is information only. The execute light does not illuminate.

    • D. 

      VNAV immediately disengages and cannot be reengaged.

  • 191. 
    Which data is available by line selecting the RTE DATA prompt on the ACT RTE LEGS page?
    • A. 

      FMC calculated speed and altitude data for each waypoint.

    • B. 

      Manually entered speed and altitude restrictions for each waypoint.

    • C. 

      ETA and forecast wind data for cruising points.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 192. 
    When an active database expires in flight, the expired database continues to be used until the active data is changed after landing.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 193. 
    When aligning the IRS between 78.25 N or S latitude:
    • A. 

      Rotate the MSU switch from OFF to ALIGN.

    • B. 

      Alignment time will vary from 5 minutes to seventeen minutes depending on airplane latitude.

    • C. 

      The alignment process begins when the ON DC light illuminates and the ALIGN light extinguishes.

    • D. 

      Airplane present position is not a required entry.

  • 194. 
    The FMC supplies a default required navigation performance (RNP) value that:
    • A. 

      Should not exceed actual navigation performance.

    • B. 

      With RNP exceeded, the message FMC appeals on the scratch pad.

    • C. 

      Is shown on the POS SHIFT page 3/3 only.

    • D. 

      Is used for takeoff, enroute, oceanic, terminal, and approach phases of flight.

  • 195. 
    What does the DES NOW prompt on the standard DES page provide?
    • A. 

      Provides a DES NOW display in ACT or MOD mode.

    • B. 

      Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at 1000 FPM until intercepting the computed path.

    • C. 

      Execution allows early initiation of a SPD descent at the specified speed (ECON or manual).

    • D. 

      Arms the DES NOW function and extinguishes the EXEC light

  • 196. 
    During an IRS alignment a flashing white ALIGN light indicates alignment cannot be completed due to IRS detection of:
    • A. 

      A significant difference between previous and entered position.

    • B. 

      An unreasonable present position.

    • C. 

      A related IRS operating in the ALIGN mode.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 197. 
    The transition altitude of the FMC PERF INIT page:
    • A. 

      Displays 10,000 feet at FMC power up.

    • B. 

      Changes after selecting a departure procedure with a different altitude.

    • C. 

      Cannot be manually changed by the crew to a new altitude.

    • D. 

      Is automatically entered when the TRIP/CRZ altitude is entered in the FMC

  • 198. 
    Fuel onboard is automatically displayed as received from the airplane fuel summation unit and:
    • A. 

      A valid fuel entry is xxx.xx.

    • B. 

      Airplane zero fuel weight is not a required entry.

    • C. 

      When FMC is not receiving the required fuel data, displayed dashes and manual fuel weight entry is not possible.

    • D. 

      Normally the ZFW is entered from the airplane dispatch papers and the FMC calculates the airplane gross weight.

  • 199. 
    After completing the FMC CDU preflight actions, you look at the "POS INIT" page again. The "SET IRS POS" line is missing. What is required?
    • A. 

      Nothing. This is a normal indication once both IRS's have entered the NAV mode.

    • B. 

      Re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG into the FMC.

    • C. 

      The alignment was not performed Cycle the IRS's to OFF and start a new alignment, then re-enter PPOS LAT/LONG.

    • D. 

      Return to ALIGN, then NAV, and enter the PPOS LAT/LONG into the left or right IRS unit.

  • 200. 
    When the FMC is not receiving the required fuel data information from the Fuel summation unit, a manual entry is possible
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 201. 
    Which factor is not considered in the FMC TRIP/CRZ computation?
    • A. 

      GROSS WEIGHT

    • B. 

      COST INDEX

    • C. 

      ORIGIN

    • D. 

      RESERVES

  • 202. 
    What does MOD on an FMC page title indicate?
    • A. 

      The route is MODem and up-to-date.

    • B. 

      A modification is made to the active route or performance mode.

    • C. 

      The destination is MODESTO IAP.

    • D. 

      MOD is the name of the company route goes between BFI and MWH.

  • 203. 
    On the FMC RTE page, the origin airport will still have to be entered if the company route is entered.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 204. 
    Pushing the ACTIVATE key arms the route for execution as the active route.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 205. 
    On the FMC RTE page invalid VIA entries are:
    • A. 

      Airways and company routes which do contain the VIA waypoint of the previous line.

    • B. 

      Airways and company routes that are in the navigation database.

    • C. 

      Airways or company routes that are in their performance database.

    • D. 

      Airways or company routes which do not contain the TO waypoint of the previous line.

  • 206. 
    Selection of an ILS approach or runway from a DEPARTURES/ ARRIVALS page will automatically remove a previously selected approach or runway.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 207. 
    Arrivals can be selected on the FMC for either the origin or destination airport.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 208. 
    On the FIX page, radial/ distance from the fix, displays the radial and distance from the fix to the airplane. This information is continually updated as the airplane position changes.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 209. 
    The fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page 1 is:
    • A. 

      Wing tank fuel only.

    • B. 

      Center tank fuel only.

    • C. 

      Total fuel quantity remaining direct Born the feel summation unit.

    • D. 

      Total feel used since engine start, based on fuel inputs to the FMC.

  • 210. 
    Waypoints of the active RTE LEGS page can be entered and moved. This includes:
    • A. 

      Adding new waypoints.

    • B. 

      Removing existing waypoints.

    • C. 

      Resequencing existing waypoints.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 211. 
    The purpose of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:
    • A. 

      Identify waypoint fixes for display on the navigation display.

    • B. 

      Copy fix information into the route, if desired.

    • C. 

      Allow page access via the INFO key.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 212. 
    The SELECT DESIRED WPT page is automatically displayed when the FMC encounters more than one location for the same waypoint name after a waypoint entry
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 213. 
    To climb in the shortest horizontal distance, MAX ANGLE should be selected on this FMC page:
    • A. 

      CRZ.

    • B. 

      PROG.

    • C. 

      CLB.

    • D. 

      PERF.

  • 214. 
    On the FMC CDU, how is the MOD CRZ CLB page automatically displayed?
    • A. 

      Entering a higher CRZ ALT on line 1L of the CRZ page.

    • B. 

      Pressing the CLB Mode Key during cruise.

    • C. 

      Entering a higher cruising altitude in the STEP TO line on the CRZ page.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 215. 
    On the cruise page, the Turbulence N1 (TURB N1):
    • A. 

      Is line selected to the scratch pad on the Cruise page and transferred to the N1 LIMIT page for activation and execution.

    • B. 

      Is executed on the Cruise page.

    • C. 

      Displays proper N1 for turbulence penetration. Value is for reference only. It not commanded to the autothrottle.

    • D. 

      Is the minimum speed commanded by tile autothrottle during all flight conditions to ensure safe penetration when it is encountered.

  • 216. 
    The RTE LEGS pages are used to manage route restrictions and modify the route.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 217. 
    Airways, such as V2, can be entered on the FMC RTE page.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 218. 
    In the FMC a lateral offset may be specified up to 99.9 miles. Some legs are invalid for offset. One of these is:
    • A. 

      Beginning of a flight plan waypoint

    • B. 

      Discontinuity.

    • C. 

      PPOS holding pattern.

    • D. 

      Course change greater than 90 degrees.

  • 219. 
    During cruise, the primary FMC pages are:
    • A. 

      RTE LEGS, PROGRESS, CRZ, and INTC CRS.

    • B. 

      FMC NAV, PROGRESS, CRZ.

    • C. 

      RTE LEGS, PROGRESS and CRZ.

    • D. 

      NAV STATUS, PROGRESS, and RTE LEGS.

  • 220. 
    In the VNAV descent mode, the path mode controls descent to fly a vertical path which complies with altitude and speed restrictions in the flight path.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 221. 
    The FMC Advisory Message "DRAG REQUIRED" indicates the airplane is 10 knots or more above the FMC target speed or within 5 knots of Vmo/ Mmo.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 222. 
    The FMC Advisory Message "BUFFET ALERT" indicates:
    • A. 

      Current conditions result in a maneuver margin less than specified.

    • B. 

      Clear air turbulence has been detected in the immediate flight path.

    • C. 

      The airplane is in a partial or full stall.

    • D. 

      The crew's dinner is being prepared in the galley.

  • 223. 
    The FMC Alerting Message "SELECT MODE AFTER. RTA" means:
    • A. 

      RTA mode has been discontinued due to sequencing of the RTA waypoint.

    • B. 

      The RTA time does not fall within the earliest and latest takeoff time.

    • C. 

      RTA mode has been discontinued because the RTA waypoint has been removed from the Flight Plan.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 224. 
    In the RTA navigation mode, after RTA waypoint entry, the CDU initially displays:
    • A. 

      Current ETA based on the active flight plan

    • B. 

      Performance parameters at the time of waypoint entry.

    • C. 

      Desired RTA and may not be overwritten.

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 225. 
    Speed restriction (SPD REST) displays the most restrictive of the following speeds:
    • A. 

      Destination airport speed minus 5 knots.

    • B. 

      Waypoint speed restriction if greater than 200 knots.

    • C. 

      Minimum flaps up maneuvering speed.

    • D. 

      Minimum flap restriction speed.

  • 226. 
    Vertical Path Parameters (FPA, V/B, V/S) display which of the following parameters related to the present vertical path:
    • A. 

      FPA-actual flight path angle based on flight plan ground speed and vertical speed.

    • B. 

      V/B vertical bearing direct from present position of the WPT/ALT line.

    • C. 

      V/S-the required vertical speed to fly the displayed FPA.

    • D. 

      Blank if there is no entry on the FPA/VS line.

  • 227. 
    When airplane gross weight is not available from the EMC, the Approach Ref page will be:
    • A. 

      Flashing.

    • B. 

      Blank.

    • C. 

      Box prompts.

    • D. 

      INVALID".

  • 228. 
    What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
    • A. 

      Only attitude information.

    • B. 

      Only heading information.

    • C. 

      Only attitude and heading information.

    • D. 

      Only altitude information.

  • 229. 
    During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selectors are positioned to:
    • A. 

      ALIGN.

    • B. 

      NAV.

    • C. 

      ATT.

    • D. 

      ON.

  • 230. 
    When the IRS's are operating in the normal navigation mode they provide:
    • A. 

      Attitude and true and magnetic heading.

    • B. 

      Acceleration, vertical speed, and ground speed.

    • C. 

      Track, present position, and wind data.

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 231. 
    A fast realignment should be complete in:
    • A. 

      30 seconds.

    • B. 

      1 minute.

    • C. 

      5 minutes.

    • D. 

      10 minutes.

  • 232. 
    When does an IRS automatically enter the navigation mode?
    • A. 

      The mode selector is moved from OFF to ALIGN and 10 minutes have elapsed.

    • B. 

      The mode selector is in NAV, present position entered, and alignment is complete.

    • C. 

      The mode selector is moved from ATT to NAV and alignment is complete.

    • D. 

      When all of the information is available for normal operations in the ALIGN mode.

  • 233. 
    Which of the following is not a major component of the inertial system?
    • A. 

      Air data inertial reference units (ADIRU).

    • B. 

      Inertial system display unit (ISDU).

    • C. 

      Instrument Display Unit (IDU) transfer switch.

    • D. 

      Mode select unit (MSU)

  • 234. 
    If the FAULT light on the IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates, it indicates:
    • A. 

      The IRS is NOT in ALIGN mode.

    • B. 

      An entry of an invalid present position.

    • C. 

      A system fault affecting the related IRS ATT and/or NAV mode has been detected.

    • D. 

      That DC power for the respective IRS is not normal.

  • 235. 
    During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the pilot accidentally moves the IRS Mode Selector switch from OFF to ATT instead of from OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
    • A. 

      Switch to OFF, wait for ALIGN tights to extinguish, then perform full alignment procedures.

    • B. 

      Switch directly to NAV from the ATT position.

    • C. 

      Switch to the ALIGN position then to NAV.

    • D. 

      Switch to the OFF position for 1 minute and then to ATT.

  • 236. 
    On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?
    • A. 

      PROGRESS page 1.

    • B. 

      CRUISE.

    • C. 

      POS REF page 2/3.

    • D. 

      POS INIT page 1.

  • 237. 
    An entry of .720 for descent into the TGT SPD line on the FMC ECON PATH DES page will:
    • A. 

      Change the descent mode to a M .720 SPD DES.

    • B. 

      Change the page title to display M .720 PATH DES.

    • C. 

      Result in VNAV disengagement.

    • D. 

      Result in VNAV and LNAV disengagement.

  • 238. 
    Center fuel tank fuel is used before main tank fuel because:
    • A. 

      Center tank check valves open at a lower differential pressure than main tank check valves.

    • B. 

      Center tank check valves open at a higher differential pressure than main tank check valves.

    • C. 

      Center tank fuel pumps produce higher pressure than main tank pumps.

    • D. 

      Main tank pumps cannot produce pressure until the center tank LOW PRESSURE lights illuminate and center tank pumps are turned OFF.

  • 239. 
    The Engine Fuel Shutoff valve:
    • A. 

      Is controlled by both the Engine Fire Warning switch and the Engine Start Lever; however, the spar fuel shutoff valve is controlled only by the Engine Start Lever.

    • B. 

      Is the only fuel shutoff with an associated blue light on the forward overhead fuel panel.

    • C. 

      And the spar fuel shutoff valve requires AC power to operate.

    • D. 

      And the spar fuel shutoff valves close whenever their respective Engine Fire Warning switch is pulled or Engine Start Lever is placed to CUTOFF.

  • 240. 
    The center tank scavenge jet pump operates when:
    • A. 

      Both Center Tank Fuel Pump switches are turned off.

    • B. 

      The No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full and the main tank No. 1 forward pump is operating.

    • C. 

      The center fuel tank is about 3/4 full.

    • D. 

      Either engine is operating.

  • 241. 
    Overwing fueling receptacles exist for both main tanks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 242. 
    The capacity of the center fuel tank is greater than the capacity of the two main fuel tanks combined.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 243. 
    There are CDS fuel alert indications for:
    • A. 

      Fuel quantity low in the main tank, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel flow difference between engines.

    • B. 

      Fuel quantity low in the main tank, both center tank fuel pumps producing low or no pressure with fuel in the center tank, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.

    • C. 

      Fuel quantity low in center or main tank, either center tank fuel pump producing low or no pressure with fuel in center tank, excessive fuel flow difference between engines.

    • D. 

      Any fuel pump producing low or no pressure with the pump switch on, impending fuel filter bypass, excessive fuel quantity difference between main tanks.

  • 244. 
    During cruise both center tank fuel pumps have failed. You still have 700 lbs (320 kg.) of fuel in the center tank and both main tanks are full. The Upper Display Unit will show:
    • A. 

      A LOW indication.

    • B. 

      A CONFIG indication.

    • C. 

      A pump LOW PFESSURE indication.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 245. 
    You have 5,500 lbs. (2500 kg.), of fuel in the No. 1 main tank and 6750 lbs. (3060 kgs), of fuel in the No. 2 main tank. You will see:
    • A. 

      A LOW indication below main tank No. 1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and system annunciation for fuel.

    • B. 

      An IMBAL indication below main tank No. 1 accompanied by a Master Caution light and system annunciation for fuel.

    • C. 

      An IMBAL indication below main tank No. 1 with no Master Caution light and no system annunciation for fuel.

    • D. 

      The fuel quantity arc and digits on main tank No. 2 turn amber.

  • 246. 
    Inflight, two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE lights for the No. 1 tank illuminate. What happens to the No. 1 engine?
    • A. 

      It receives fuel from the No. 2 tank automatically.

    • B. 

      It will shut down due to fuel starvation.

    • C. 

      It receives fuel from the No. 1 tank through the fuel pump bypass valve.

    • D. 

      It continues to operate using fuel through the center tank bypass valve.

  • 247. 
    For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance between No. 1 and No. 2 main tanks?
    • A. 

      1000 lbs. (453 Kgs.).

    • B. 

      1100 lbs. (500 kgs.).

    • C. 

      1300 lbs. (590 kgs.).

    • D. 

      1500 lbs. (680 kgs.).

  • 248. 
    In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?
    • A. 

      Center tank.

    • B. 

      Both main tanks.

    • C. 

      All tanks.

    • D. 

      None.

  • 249. 
    What does an illuminated main tank fuel pump LOW PRESSURE light indicated?
    • A. 

      Low fuel pressure in the affected tank.

    • B. 

      Low pressure in the fuel manifold.

    • C. 

      Low fuel pump output pressure.

    • D. 

      The fuel pump switch is OFF.

    • E. 

      Both c and d are correct.

  • 250. 
    What is the condition of the VALVE OPEN light when the crossfeed selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
    • A. 

      Illuminated dim blue.

    • B. 

      Illuminated bright blue.

    • C. 

      Illuminated amber.

    • D. 

      Extinguished.

  • 251. 
    What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
    • A. 

      The Hot Battery Bus.

    • B. 

      The Battery Bus.

    • C. 

      The DC Standby bus.

    • D. 

      The AC Standby Bus.

  • 252. 
    Fuel for the APU is normally supplied from the:
    • A. 

      Left side of the fuel manifold.

    • B. 

      No. 2 main tank.

    • C. 

      Center tank.

    • D. 

      Aux tank

  • 253. 
    Refer to the refill indication (RF) indication to the right of the hydraulic system quantity indication. indication is displayed:
    • A. 

      Automatically when the hydraulic quantity is below 88% in either system A or B.

    • B. 

      At all times.

    • C. 

      When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A and/or B and the airplane is on the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

    • D. 

      Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.

  • 254. 
    A leak in the No.2 engine driven hydraulic pump or associated lines can result in a total loss of hydraulic system B pressure.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 255. 
    If a leak occurs in the standby system, the system B fluid indication will decrease to approximately:
    • A. 

      Zero.

    • B. 

      64%

    • C. 

      72% full.

    • D. 

      A leak in the standby system has no effect on the reservoir quantity for system B.

  • 256. 
    The Power Transfer Unit (PTU) provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate the:
    • A. 

      Trailing edge flaps.

    • B. 

      Landing gear.

    • C. 

      Autoslats and leading edge flaps and slats.

    • D. 

      Outboard spoilers.

  • 257. 
    The autoslat system:
    • A. 

      Is normally powered by Hydraulic System B

    • B. 

      Uses Hydraulic System A pressure

    • C. 

      Uses Hydraulic System A fluid.

    • D. 

      Uses standby hydraulic system fluid.

  • 258. 
    Pulling the No.2 engine fire warning switch shuts off hydraulic fluid to the:
    • A. 

      Electric pump in System B

    • B. 

      Engine driven pump in System B.

    • C. 

      Electric pump in System A.

    • D. 

      Engine driven pump in System A.

  • 259. 
    The standby hydraulic system powers the:
    • A. 

      Outboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.

    • B. 

      Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers, and standby yaw damper.

    • C. 

      Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.

    • D. 

      Alternate brakes, rudder, thrust reversers, and standby yaw damper.

  • 260. 
    What is one indication of a leak in the standby hydraulic system?
    • A. 

      Decrease in System A quantity.

    • B. 

      The LOW QUANTITY light illuminates.

    • C. 

      Illumination of the System A LOW PRESSURE lights.

    • D. 

      Illumination of the System B LOW PRESSURE lights.

  • 261. 
    The amber standby hydraulic system LOW PRESSURE light is armed:
    • A. 

      At all times.

    • B. 

      Only when either FLT CONTROL switch is moved to STBY RUD.

    • C. 

      Only when the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch is moved to ARM.

    • D. 

      Only when standby pump operation has been selected or automatic standby function is activated.

  • 262. 
    Which of the following actions will affect hydraulic quantity indications?
    • A. 

      Flaps are extended from 15 to 30.

    • B. 

      Landing gear is extended.

    • C. 

      Leading edge devices are extended.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 263. 
    The amber LOW PRESSURE light for the No.1 Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump illuminates. What should you do?
    • A. 

      Position the hydraulic pump switch to off.

    • B. 

      Pull the No. 1 engine fire warning switch.

    • C. 

      Disconnect the No.1 CSD.

    • D. 

      Monitor System A and B pressures.

  • 264. 
    What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation in the main fuel tanks for ground operation of the electric hydraulic pumps?
    • A. 

      1000 lbs. (453 kgs.) in the related main tanks.

    • B. 

      1600 lbs. (726 kgs.) in both main tanks.

    • C. 

      1676 lbs. (760 kgs.) in the related main tanks.

    • D. 

      1676 lbs, (760 kgs.) in the center tank.

  • 265. 
    The purpose of the landing gear transfer unit is to:
    • A. 

      Allow landing gear retraction if hydraulic system A is lost during takeoff.

    • B. 

      Automatically use hydraulic system B for landing gear retraction if hydraulic system A engine driven pump fails and the landing gear lever is positioned up.

    • C. 

      Allow the use of nose wheel steering in the event hydraulic system A fails.

    • D. 

      Automatically use hydraulic system B pressure for gear retraction if the No 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value, with the landing gear lever up and either main gear not up and locked.

  • 266. 
    When the manual Extension Access Door is open:
    • A. 

      Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position,

    • B. 

      Normal landing gear extension is still possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available.

    • C. 

      Landing gear retraction is enabled.

    • D. 

      Normal landing gear extension is not possible with the loss of system A.

  • 267. 
    Fittings located in the opening of each main gear well:
    • A. 

      Are intended to provide automatic braking to main gear wheels during retraction.

    • B. 

      Provide positive uplock during main gear retraction.

    • C. 

      Are intended to provide protection to wheel well components during gear retraction by preventing a gear with a spinning tire and loose tread from entering the wheel well.

    • D. 

      Allows the landing gear transfer unit to use hydraulic system B pressure to raise the gear if hydraulic system A fails.

  • 268. 
    Which pressure is indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
    • A. 

      Normal pressure of 3500 psi.

    • B. 

      Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.

    • C. 

      Normal precharge of 2800 psi

    • D. 

      Normal precharge in the brake accumulator of 1200 psi.

  • 269. 
    During alternate brake system operation, the following protection is provided:
    • A. 

      Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.

    • B. 

      Skid and hydroplane only.

    • C. 

      Skid, locked wheel and hydroplane only.

    • D. 

      None of the above.

  • 270. 
    If a landing is made with RTO selected:
    • A. 

      Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level.

    • B. 

      Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level.

    • C. 

      AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates three seconds after touchdown.

    • D. 

      AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates two seconds after touchdown.

  • 271. 
    Landing autobrake settings may be selected after touchdown:
    • A. 

      However, the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur.

    • B. 

      However, autobrake action will occur only when both thrust levers are retarded to reverse thrust range.

    • C. 

      Prior to decelerating through 30 knots groundspeed.

    • D. 

      After decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed.

  • 272. 
    After braking has started, which of the following pilot actions will disarm the system immediately and illuminate the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light:
    • A. 

      Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the flight detent position.

    • B. 

      Advancing the forward thrust lever(s), except during the first three seconds after touchdown for landing.

    • C. 

      Applying manual brakes.

    • D. 

      Both b and c are correct.

  • 273. 
    The air/ground system receives air/ground logic signals from:
    • A. 

      The altimeter.

    • B. 

      The cabin pressure controller.

    • C. 

      Six sensors, two on each landing gear.

    • D. 

      The F'MC position updating from the GPS.

  • 274. 
    What system normally provides hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering?
    • A. 

      System A.

    • B. 

      System B.

    • C. 

      Standby System.

    • D. 

      Nose wheel steering accumulator

  • 275. 
    The lockout pin is installed in the steering depressurization valve. What does this do?
    • A. 

      Bypasses System B pressure.

    • B. 

      Depressurizes both System A and B pressure.

    • C. 

      Allows airplane pushback or towing without depressurizing the hydraulic systems.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 276. 
    Which of the following is not part of the braking system?
    • A. 

      Antiskid protection.

    • B. 

      Parking brake

    • C. 

      Brake accumulator.

    • D. 

      Nose wheel brakes.

  • 277. 
    Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
    • A. 

      AUTO BRAKE select switch positioned to ON.

    • B. 

      Wheel speed greater than 60 knots.

    • C. 

      Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.

    • D. 

      Position ANTISKID switch to RTO.

  • 278. 
    What could cause the amber ANTISKID INOP light to illuminate?
    • A. 

      AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.

    • B. 

      A system fault has been detected by the antiskid monitoring system.

    • C. 

      Brake accumulator pressure is in the red band.

    • D. 

      System B pressure is low.

  • 279. 
    What airspeed must be considered with a wheel well fire situation?
    • A. 

      Observe extend limit speed (280K/.72M).

    • B. 

      Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots maximum.

    • C. 

      Maintain 235 knots maximum for 20 minutes.

    • D. 

      Observe extend limit speed (270 knots/.82M)

  • 280. 
    What happens if you reject a takeoff after reaching 90 knots with the autobrakes in RTO?
    • A. 

      Maximum braking when thrust levers are retarded to idle.

    • B. 

      Automatic braking when reverse thrust selected.

    • C. 

      Automatic speed brake deployment when thrust levers are retarded to idle.

    • D. 

      AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate.

  • 281. 
    The brake pressure accumulator also provides pressure to maintain the parking brake when hydraulic systems A and B are depressurized.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 282. 
    Hydraulic pressure from System B will be used to raise the landing gear:
    • A. 

      When System A pressure is low and the landing lever is positioned up

    • B. 

      When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON

    • C. 

      When the No. 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned up.

    • D. 

      After a failure of the No. 1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned up.

  • 283. 
    The PSEU system on the ground monitors which of the following?
    • A. 

      Takeoff/landing configuration warnings.

    • B. 

      Landing gear.

    • C. 

      Air/ground sensing.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 284. 
    Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
    • A. 

      Leading edge flaps in the extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 5.

    • B. 

      Leading edge flaps in the full extend position and trailing edge flaps at flaps 15.

    • C. 

      Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the DOWN position.

    • D. 

      SPEED BRAKE lever in the DOWN position.

  • 285. 
    The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position.

    • B. 

      Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feel AGL).

    • C. 

      Landing gear is up and locked with the LANDING GEAR lever UP or OFF

    • D. 

      Both a and b are correct.

  • 286. 
    While performing the LANDING checklist the PSEU light illuminates on recall. This indicates:
    • A. 

      A normal condition.

    • B. 

      A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing system.

    • C. 

      The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing.

    • D. 

      A problem exists in the PSEU light, because this light should be inhibited in flight.

  • 287. 
    The mach/airspeed warning system can only be checked on the ground.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 288. 
    The stall management yaw damper (SMYD) computers determine when the stall warning is required based on which of the following?
    • A. 

      Anti-ice controls.

    • B. 

      ADIRU output.

    • C. 

      FMC outputs.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 289. 
    How can you silence the Mach/airspeed warning in flight?
    • A. 

      Reduce the airplane speed to below Vmo/Mmo.

    • B. 

      Press the Mach/airspeed warning test switch.

    • C. 

      Reduce the airplane speed to minimum maneuvering airspeed.

    • D. 

      Press the Mach/airspeed override switch.

  • 290. 
    While flying an ILS approach 1.3 dots below glide slope, a BELOW G/S alert occurs. To cancel or inhibit the below glide slope alerting:
    • A. 

      Correct the flight path back to the glide slope.

    • B. 

      Push either pilot's BELOW G/S P-INHIBIT light while in alerting area only.

    • C. 

      Push the BELOW G/S light when below 1,000 feet.

    • D. 

      All the above are correct.

  • 291. 
    The Ground Proximity Warning System Test can be performed:
    • A. 

      Only on the ground

    • B. 

      From lift-off to 1000 feet radio altitude.

    • C. 

      Momentarily on the ground, or above 1000 first radio altitude in-flight.

    • D. 

      Anytime.

  • 292. 
    An intermittent takeoff configuration warning horn sounds if:
    • A. 

      Stabilizer trim is not set in the takeoff range.

    • B. 

      Leading edge flaps and trailing edge flaps are not configured for takeoff.

    • C. 

      SPEED BRAKE lever is not in the DOWN position.

    • D. 

      All of the above are correct.

  • 293. 
    The GPWS does not provide alerts for flight toward vertically sheer terrain, or for shallow descents when the airplane is in landing configuration.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 294. 
    The bleed air duct pressure indicator:
    • A. 

      Cannot indicate external air pressure.

    • B. 

      Indicates both temperature and pressure in the bleed air duet.

    • C. 

      Shows duct pressure in both the left and right bleed air ducts.

    • D. 

      Requires DC power for operation.

  • 295. 
    The blue RAM DOOR FULL OPEN Light illuminates when:
    • A. 

      The airplane is in flight with the landing gear extended.

    • B. 

      The airplane is in flight, with the packs in HIGH.

    • C. 

      Anytime the airplane is in flight.

    • D. 

      The Ram Door is fully open.

  • 296. 
    When making a no engine bleed air takeoff and an engine failure occurs, when will the bleed air switches be positioned to ON?
    • A. 

      Prior to 400 feet above the ground.

    • B. 

      After passing through 2000 feet above the ground.

    • C. 

      Reaching 1500 feet or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

    • D. 

      After the No. 1 engine bleed switch is positioned to ON.

  • 297. 
    What causes the amber PACK TRIP OFF Light to illuminate?
    • A. 

      Temperature in the pack air cycle machine has exceeded limits.

    • B. 

      Selecting MANUAL with the related pack control.

    • C. 

      Temperature downstream of the related pack has exceeded limits.

    • D. 

      Both a and c are correct.

  • 298. 
    In the PACK TRIP OFF non-normal procedure, the crew selects a warmer temperature in order to:
    • A. 

      Reduce cabin air outflow.

    • B. 

      Reduce the workload on the other pack.

    • C. 

      Reduce the workload on the affected air conditioning pack.

    • D. 

      Reduce the air flow through the air mix valves.

  • 299. 
    The Recirculation Fans:
    • A. 

      Are driven by DC motors.

    • B. 

      Increases airflow at greater cabin differential pressures.

    • C. 

      Reduces air conditioning pack load and engine bleed air demand.

    • D. 

      Provide overheat detection downstream of the packs.

  • 300. 
    A DUCT OVERHEAT will cause:
    • A. 

      The air mix valves to drive to full cold.

    • B. 

      The air mix valves to drive to full hot.

    • C. 

      An automatic shutdown of the pack.

    • D. 

      A BLEED TRIP OFF condition.