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  • 1. 
    Your first responsibility as an EMT-B is to:
    • A. 

      Open the patients airwvay

    • B. 

      Keep yourself safe.

    • C. 

      Gain access to the patient.

    • D. 

      Provide for the patients safety.

  • 2. 
    Centralized coordination of resources, which provides victims at trauma or medical emergencies with equal access to basic emergency care and transportation by certified personnel , is a    function of:
    • A. 

      Transportation.

    • B. 

      Training.

    • C. 

      Resource management,

    • D. 

      Regulation and policy

  • 3. 
    Choose the BEST completion for this sentence: On-scene safety is the responsibility of:
    • A. 

      Each crew member.

    • B. 

      The senior responder.

    • C. 

      Gain access to the patient.

    • D. 

      Provide for the patient's safety.

  • 4. 
    The program for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the EMS system is called quality:
    • A. 

      Assessment.

    • B. 

      Improvement

    • C. 

      Documentation.

    • D. 

      Involvement.

  • 5. 
    Maintaining your equipment; continuing your education, and getting feedback from patients and hospital staff are ALL ways that you can:
    • A. 

      Keep the ambulance in running order.

    • B. 

      Stay abreast of changes in medical care.

    • C. 

      Improve the quality of care in your system

    • D. 

      Maintain a professional manner and appearance

  • 6. 
    The EMS physician's oversight of the patient care aspects of the EMS system is referred to as :
    • A. 

      Trauma system.

    • B. 

      Medical direction.

    • C. 

      Evaluation.

    • D. 

      In-hospital care.

  • 7. 
    The EMT-B's authority to provide emergency care is:
    • A. 

      Conferred by the state legislature and EMS system.

    • B. 

      An extension of the Medical Director's license to practice.

    • C. 

      Responsibility of the National Registry of EMTs

    • D. 

      Obtained from the U.S. Department of Transportation.

  • 8. 
    Orders given to the EMT-B by telephone or radio are called:
    • A. 

      Off-line medical direction

    • B. 

      Standing orders

    • C. 

      On-line medical direction

    • D. 

      Protocols

  • 9. 
    Attending conferences, watching EMS videos, or listening to lectures for the purpose of supplementing, or adding to, knowledge received in an orginal course is known as:
    • A. 

      Graduate school

    • B. 

      Refresher training

    • C. 

      Continuning education

    • D. 

      Recertification qualification

  • 10. 
    A communication system that has the capability of automaticall identifying the caller's phone number and location is called:
    • A. 

      Emergency medical dispatch

    • B. 

      Auto call-back

    • C. 

      Enhanced 9-1-1

    • D. 

      Priority dispatch

  • 11. 
    The role of the emergency medical dispatcher includes all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Obtaining appropriate information from callers.

    • B. 

      Giving instructions to callers for emergency care.

    • C. 

      Dispatching appropriate agencies to the emergency scene.

    • D. 

      Providing on-line medical direction to EMS personnel

  • 12. 
    A positive form of stress that helps people work under pressure and respond effectively is called:
    • A. 

      Stimulation

    • B. 

      Eustress

    • C. 

      Rest

    • D. 

      Distress

  • 13. 
    The emotional stages that patients or their famalies go through when confronted with death or dying include all of the following EXCEPT;
    • A. 

      Denial

    • B. 

      Barganing

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Gratitude

  • 14. 
    A reaction to death or dying where the patient says"Not Me" is referred to as;
    • A. 

      Anger

    • B. 

      Denial

    • C. 

      Bargaining

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 15. 
    A reaction to death or dying where the patient questions" Why Me?" is referred to as;
    • A. 

      Anger

    • B. 

      Denial

    • C. 

      Bargaining

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 16. 
    A reaction to death or dying when the patient says" Okay, I'am not afraid" is referred to as;
    • A. 

      Anger

    • B. 

      Denial

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Depression

  • 17. 
    A reaction to death or dying where the patient says "Okav, but first let me..-" is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Bargaining.

    • B. 

      Acceptance.

    • C. 

      Depression.

    • D. 

      Denial.

  • 18. 
    Scenario; Your partner has worked manv shifts in a row and has recently handled a number of serious trauma calls.   She has recently become Irritable at home and work and complains of the inability to sleep and concentrate. Which one of the following is a likely cause of her signsand symptoms?
    • A. 

      Infectious mononucleosis

    • B. 

      A cumulative stress reaction

    • C. 

      High blood pressure

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 19. 
    Foods that should be avoided or limited to help control stress include:
    • A. 

      Fruits and vegetables.

    • B. 

      Alcohol and coffee,

    • C. 

      Salads and breads.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 20. 
    A process where a team of trained peer counselors and mental health professionals meet withEMT-Bs who have ben involved in a major incident is called a CISD, which stands for:
    • A. 

      Critique and interview on scene deportment

    • B. 

      Catastrophic incident service defusing.

    • C. 

      Critical incident stress debriefing.

    • D. 

      Counseling interview for situational depression.

  • 21. 
    The purpose of the CISD process is to:
    • A. 

      Investigate the events of a call.

    • B. 

      Help diffuse the psychological trauma.

    • C. 

      create a chain of events for documentation

    • D. 

      Critique the call

  • 22. 
    After a stessful incident, EMS providers should:
    • A. 

      Go home and have a big meal

    • B. 

      Speak openly with the press.

    • C. 

      Vent feelings by talking with each other,

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 23. 
    Making the physical and emotional needs of the patient a priority is a part of the EMT-B's:
    • A. 

      Advanced directive.

    • B. 

      Protocol.

    • C. 

      Ethical responsibility.

    • D. 

      Legal responsibility.

  • 24. 
    DNR is an abbreviation for a type of:
    • A. 

      Organ donation procedure.

    • B. 

      Implied consent.

    • C. 

      Genetic material.

    • D. 

      Advance directive.

  • 25. 
    Expressed consent is:
    • A. 

      Assumed to exist when the patient is unconscious.

    • B. 

      Definedby local protocol for certain types of emergencies.

    • C. 

      Assumed to exist when care is urgently needed.

    • D. 

      Obtained from a conscious, competent, adult patient.

  • 26. 
    Consent based on the theory that the unconscious patient would approve of life-savingtreatment is called  _________ consent.     
    • A. 

      expressed

    • B. 

      Mutual

    • C. 

      Implied

    • D. 

      Assumed

  • 27. 
    Unlawful touching of another person without consent is:
    • A. 

      Waiver of consent.

    • B. 

      Negligence.

    • C. 

      Implied cons&nt

    • D. 

      Assault or battery.

  • 28. 
    Stopping the treatment of a patient without assuring the continuation of treatment at the same level or higher is referred to as:
    • A. 

      Negligence.

    • B. 

      Assault.

    • C. 

      Abandonment.

    • D. 

      Breach of duty

  • 29. 
    A duty to act is the obligation to provide emergency care to a patient. Laws governing a duty tovary from state to state. In ALL states, the EMT-B has a LEGAL duty to act when he or sheis:
    • A. 

      Serving on an ambulance that is dispatched to a call

    • B. 

      Off duty and observes serious accident.

    • C. 

      In a foreign jurisdiction and obseves a serious accident,

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 30. 
    Slicing through an imaginary body down the center, passing between the eyes and extending down past the umbilicus, creates a plane called the:
    • A. 

      Mid-axillary line,

    • B. 

      Anterior axillary line.

    • C. 

      Midline.

    • D. 

      Mid-clavicular line.

  • 31. 
    All of the following are body systems EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Respiratory

    • B. 

      Cardiovascular

    • C. 

      Abdominal.

    • D. 

      Rnusculoskeletal.

  • 32. 
    The musculoskeletal system:
    • A. 

      Gives the body shape.

    • B. 

      Protects vital internal organs.

    • C. 

      Provides for body movement

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 33. 
    The segment of the spinal column that forms the posterior pelvis is the:
    • A. 

      Thoracic.

    • B. 

      Cervical.

    • C. 

      Lumbar.

    • D. 

      Sacral.

  • 34. 
    The bones of the lower extremities include:
    • A. 

      Acetabulum, calcaneous, and carpals.

    • B. 

      Femur, tibia, and fibula.

    • C. 

      Orbit, lumbar, and shin.

    • D. 

      Radius, ulna, and humerous

  • 35. 
    The type of muscle tissue that controls the flow of materials through the gastrointestinal system  is:
    • A. 

      Vo/untary.

    • B. 

      Involuntary.

    • C. 

      Cardiac.

    • D. 

      Skeletal

  • 36. 
    Involuntary or smooth muscles are found in the:
    • A. 

      Arms and legs.

    • B. 

      Blood vessels

    • C. 

      Forehead

    • D. 

      Heart

  • 37. 
    The type of muscle controlling movement as you walk is called:
    • A. 

      Voluntary.

    • B. 

      Involuntary

    • C. 

      Cardiac.

    • D. 

      Smooth.

  • 38. 
    Which of the following represents the correct sequence of passage of oxygen from room air tothe lungs?
    • A. 

      Nose, bronchi, larynx, trachea, lung.

    • B. 

      Larynx, esophagus, trachea, bronchi, alveoli.

    • C. 

      Mouth, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli.

    • D. 

      Epiglottis, trachea, cricoid, brachi, alveoli

  • 39. 
    A leaf-shape: valve that prevents food from entering the trachea is the:
    • A. 

      Pharynx.

    • B. 

      Epiglottis.

    • C. 

      Larynx.

    • D. 

      Bronchi

  • 40. 
    The structure containing the voice box is the:
    • A. 

      Larynx

    • B. 

      Pharynx.

    • C. 

      Trachea.

    • D. 

      Sternum.

  • 41. 
    As the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, the chest cavity decreases in size, causing:
    • A. 

      Inhalation.

    • B. 

      Exhalation.

    • C. 

      Palpation.

    • D. 

      Respiratory arrest

  • 42. 
    Pediatric airways differ from adult airways in that:
    • A. 

      The child's tongue takes up proportionately less space.

    • B. 

      The trachea is more rigid.

    • C. 

      AII structures are smaller and more easily obstructed.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 43. 
    The major artery in the thigh is called the:
    • A. 

      Carotid

    • B. 

      Femoral.

    • C. 

      Radial.

    • D. 

      Brachial.

  • 44. 
    The vessel that carries oxygen-poor blood to the right atrium is the:
    • A. 

      Posterior tibia.

    • B. 

      Internal jugular

    • C. 

      Vena cava.

    • D. 

      Aorta.

  • 45. 
    The fluid that carries blood cells and nutrients is:
    • A. 

      Platelets,

    • B. 

      Hemoglobin.

    • C. 

      Lymph.

    • D. 

      Plasma.

  • 46. 
    The blood component that is essential for the formation of blood clots is called:
    • A. 

      Plasma,

    • B. 

      Platelets.

    • C. 

      Vvhite blood cells.

    • D. 

      Red blood cells.

  • 47. 
    The pressure on the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is the _______ pressure.
    • A. 

      Systolic

    • B. 

      Arterial

    • C. 

      Diastolic

    • D. 

      Residual

  • 48. 
    The nervous system is subdivided into:
    • A. 

      Central and peripheral systems.

    • B. 

      Bones and muscles.

    • C. 

      Brain and skin.

    • D. 

      Spine and vertebral column.

  • 49. 
    When lifting a patient, you should assure your own safety by:
    • A. 

      Always wearing a back brace.

    • B. 

      Keeping the weight as far away from your body as possible.

    • C. 

      Using your legs, not back, to lift.

    • D. 

      Never lifting a patient over your own weight.

  • 50. 
    When lifting, always try to:
    • A. 

      Communicate clearly ad frequently with your partner.

    • B. 

      Lift without twisting.

    • C. 

      Know your physical ability and limitations,

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 51. 
    When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using a;
    • A. 

      Power grip.

    • B. 

      Power lift

    • C. 

      Lock grip

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 52. 
    When lifting a patient or equipment, all the following stetemmts are true EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Know the weight of what you are lifting.

    • B. 

      Position your feet shoulder-width apart.

    • C. 

      Keep the weight as far from your body as possible.

    • D. 

      Use your legs, not your back, to lift.

  • 53. 
    Whenever possible, if carrying a patient down stairs, you should;
    • A. 

      Flex at the waist.

    • B. 

      Position the patient with head and torso on the lower end.

    • C. 

      Use one hand on the railing.

    • D. 

      Use a stair chair instead of a stretcher.

  • 54. 
    When reaching for a patient or equipment, you should avoid reaching more than _____ in front of your body
    • A. 

      15 to 20 inches

    • B. 

      10 to 12 inches

    • C. 

      One arm's length

    • D. 

      24 to 30 inches

  • 55. 
    If a patient has an altered mental status, you should consider a(n) _____move.
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Non-urgent

    • D. 

      Immediate

  • 56. 
    An urgent move for the patient found in the sitting position in an automobile is called:
    • A. 

      Rapid takedown.

    • B. 

      Rapid exctrication

    • C. 

      Emergency rescue

    • D. 

      Blanket roll technique.

  • 57. 
    A method of lifting and carrying a patient in which one EMT-B slips his/her hands under thepatient's armpits and grasps the wrists, while another EMT-B grasps the patient's knees iscalled the:
    • A. 

      Slide transfer method.

    • B. 

      Direct carry method,

    • C. 

      Extremity lift.

    • D. 

      Direct ground lift.

  • 58. 
    The direct ground lift is an example of a(n) _________move for a patient with no suspected spinal injury.
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Urgent

    • C. 

      Immediate

    • D. 

      Non-ugent

  • 59. 
    A position of comfort for a patient with difficulty breathing is likely to be:
    • A. 

      Lying flat on his stomach

    • B. 

      Lying flat on his back.

    • C. 

      Sitting up.

    • D. 

      Lying flat on his back with his legs elevated.

  • 60. 
    When treating a patient with signs of shock, the EMT-B may elevate the foot end of the backboard 8 to 12 inches This is called the _________position.
    • A. 

      Fowler's

    • B. 

      Supine

    • C. 

      Trendelenburg

    • D. 

      Prone

  • 61. 
    Examples of situations in which an emergency move is appropriate include:
    • A. 

      Fire or danger of fire.

    • B. 

      Explosives or other hazardous chemicals.

    • C. 

      Inability to protect the patient from other hazards at the scene

    • D. 

      Al the above

  • 62. 
    The best patient carrying device to use to avoid trauma to an injured spine would be a(nj:
    • A. 

      Long spine board.

    • B. 

      Wheeled ambulance stretcher.

    • C. 

      Basket stretcher.

    • D. 

      Orthopedic stretcher.

  • 63. 
    Lifting and moving patients should be done in a manner that meets which of the followinggoals?
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Safety for the patient

    • C. 

      Safety for the EMT-B

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 64. 
    The EMS equipment used to obtain vital signs includes a/an:
    • A. 

      Penlight.

    • B. 

      Stethoscope.

    • C. 

      Sphygmomanometer.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 65. 
    A device used to carry patients over a long distance through rough terrain is a:
    • A. 

      Stokes basket.

    • B. 

      Scoop stretcher

    • C. 

      Reeves stretcher.

    • D. 

      Wheeted ambulance stretcher.

  • 66. 
    The phases of an ambulance call include all of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Preparation

    • B. 

      Billing and collections.

    • C. 

      Transporting to the hospital.

    • D. 

      Receiving and responding.

  • 67. 
    When an emergency dispatcher questions a patient or caller, which of the following is NOTroutinely asked?
    • A. 

      What is the exact location of the patient?

    • B. 

      What's the problem?

    • C. 

      Has the patient been in the hospital recently?

    • D. 

      How old is the patient?

  • 68. 
    When you are on the scene of a collision and have determined that the patient's status isstable, the call is considered,
    • A. 

      A true emergency

    • B. 

      Due regard

    • C. 

      No longer a true emergency.

    • D. 

      A priority one response,

  • 69. 
    Full immobilization of a trauma patient should take place:
    • A. 

      Prior to moving the patient to the anbulance

    • B. 

      Enroute to the hospital in the ambulance.

    • C. 

      Just prior to arrival at the hospital.

    • D. 

      Before your initial assessment is performed.

  • 70. 
    Of the following items on an ambulance, which is checked with the engine off?
    • A. 

      Dash mounted gauges

    • B. 

      Battery

    • C. 

      Windshield wiper operation

    • D. 

      Vehicle's warning lights

  • 71. 
    Which one of the following ambulance items is inspected with the engine on?
    • A. 

      Vehicle's emergency lights.

    • B. 

      Level of the oil.

    • C. 

      Operation of the doors and latches.

    • D. 

      Horn

  • 72. 
    When delivering the patient to the hospital, you should never:
    • A. 

      Write the patient care report in the emergency department.

    • B. 

      Just move a patient onto the hospital stretcher and leave.

    • C. 

      Transfer the patient's personal effects.

    • D. 

      Obtain a release from the hospital.

  • 73. 
    After each call, prior to putting the ambulance back in service, you should always;
    • A. 

      Clean up blood, vomitus, and other body fluids

    • B. 

      Dispose of trash in the ambulance garbage can

    • C. 

      Red bag linens and blankets used on the call.

    • D. 

      Fill the gas tank to full capacity.

  • 74. 
    In quarters, after a call, you and your partner should;
    • A. 

      Place badly contaminated linens into a biohazard container.

    • B. 

      Replace expendable items that have been used.

    • C. 

      Carry out post-operation vehicle maintenance.

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 75. 
    A major segment of the upper airway is the pharynx. The pharynx is divided into three regions.From superior to inferior, these are the:
    • A. 

      Nasopharynx, laryngopharynx, and oropharynx.

    • B. 

      Nasopharynx, oropharynx, and laryngopharynx.

    • C. 

      Laryngopharynx, oropharynx, and nasopharynx.

    • D. 

      Oropharynx, nasopharynx, and laryngopharynx-

  • 76. 
    While study for your next quiz , you and a classmate are looking at the airway model. The leaf-shaped structire you see that protects the larynx and trachea is called the:
    • A. 

      Cricoid cartilage

    • B. 

      Carina

    • C. 

      Epiglottis

    • D. 

      Thyroid cartilage

  • 77. 
    You are treating a patient complaining of a sore throat and difficulty speaking. The vocal cords are:
    • A. 

      Pharynx

    • B. 

      Larynx

    • C. 

      Cricoid cartilage

    • D. 

      Epiglottis

  • 78. 
    While taking a deep breath, the order in which air passes through is:
    • A. 

      Alveoli bronchioles, bronchi, and trachea.

    • B. 

      Trachea, alveoli, bronchioles, and bronchi.

    • C. 

      Trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli.

    • D. 

      Bronchi, bronchioles, trachea, and alveoli.

  • 79. 
    Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of increased respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minuteof oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breath, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of32 breaths per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action forthis patient? 
    • A. 

      You should not increase the patient's oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing

    • B. 

      You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute.

    • C. 

      You should encourge the patient to rebreath his exhaled air from a paper bag.

    • D. 

      You should increase the patient's oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues

  • 80. 
    A 12 year old child has shallow, labored breathing at a rate of 24 breaths per minute. This would best be described as:
    • A. 

      Partially inadequate breathing.

    • B. 

      Inadequate breathing

    • C. 

      Partially adequate breathing

    • D. 

      Adequate breathing

  • 81. 
    You are ventilating your patient using a bag-valve-mask device . Signs that you are providing adequate ventilations include all of the following EXCEPT;
    • A. 

      Sound of air coming from around the mask

    • B. 

      Adequate stomach rise with each ventilation

    • C. 

      Adequate chest rise and fall with each ventilation

    • D. 

      Skin color changing from grayish to bluish

  • 82. 
    An elderly patient is complaining of difficulty breathing and your assessment shows his body'scompensatory mechanisms are no longer able to provide adequate gas exchange, the patientprogresses to respiratory:
    • A. 

      Distress

    • B. 

      Arrest

    • C. 

      Failure

    • D. 

      Cessation

  • 83. 
    Your 34- year old patient attempting to compensate for an inadequate oxygen supply is called:
    • A. 

      Respiratory distress

    • B. 

      Respiratory arrest

    • C. 

      Respiratory failure

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 84. 
    While assessing your patient's respirations, you note normal, unlabored breathing at a rate of 16 breaths per minute. This would be best described as:
    • A. 

      Partially inadequate breathing

    • B. 

      Adequate breathing

    • C. 

      Inadequate breathing

    • D. 

      Partially adequate breathing

  • 85. 
    A 64 year old patient is lying in bed with no sign of injury. To open the airway you would:
    • A. 

      Use the head-tilt/chin lift maneuver by placing the palm of one hand on the patient's forehead and the index and middle finger of the other hand on the bony part of the patient's jaw below the chin

    • B. 

      Use the jaw-thrust maneuver by placing your thumbs on the patient's cheeckbones and your index and middle fingers at the angles of the patient's jaw and push upwards

    • C. 

      Use the head-tilt/chin lift maneuver by placing your thumbs on the patient's cheeckbones and your index and middle fingers at the angles of the patient's jaw and push upwards

    • D. 

      Use the jaw-thrust maneuver by placing the palm of one hand on the patient's forehead and the index and middle finger of of the other hand on the bony part of the patient's jaw below the chin

  • 86. 
    A 24 year old patient is lying on the ground beside a fallen ladder. To open the airway, you would:
    • A. 

      Use the head-tilt/chin lift maneuver by placing the palm of one hand on the patient's forehead and the index and middle finger of the other hand on the bony part of the patient's jaw below the chin

    • B. 

      Use the jaw-thrust maneuver by placing your thumbs on the patient's cheeckbones and your index and middle fingers at the angles of the patient's jaw and push upwards

    • C. 

      Use the head-tilt/chin lift maneuver by placing your thumbs on the patient's cheeckbones and your index and middle fingers at the angles of the patient's jaw and push upwards

    • D. 

      Use the jaw-thrust maneuver by placing the palm of one hand on the patient's forehead and the index and middle finger of of the other hand on the bony part of the patient's jaw below the chin

  • 87. 
    For which of the following patient's would you use the head-tilt/chin lift maneuver to open the airway:
    • A. 

      Football player lying on the field after a tackle

    • B. 

      Industrial worker who fell off a ladder

    • C. 

      Teenage involved in a motor vehicle crash

    • D. 

      Elderly patient lying in bed

  • 88. 
    Your patient is presenting with a gurgling respirations. Suctioning should be used to help openhis airway by releiving obstruction from any of the following EXCEPT:
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Vomit

    • C. 

      Saliva

    • D. 

      Tongue

  • 89. 
    A 6 year old has been struck by a car while riding his bike. You open the airway using a jaw-thrust maneuver and notice gurgling respirations. You should apply suction for no longer than ___ seconds.
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      20

  • 90. 
    In preparing to insert a nasopharyngeal airway, you should lubricate the airway with a:
    • A. 

      Nonwater- based lubricant and insert with the bevel away from the septum

    • B. 

      Water-based lubricant and insert with the bevel toward the septum

    • C. 

      Water-based lubricant and insert the bevel away from the septum

    • D. 

      Nonwater-based lubricant and inset with the bevel toward the septum

  • 91. 
    A blood pressure cuff that is to small for a patient may give you a false elevated reading.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    The left atrium;
    • A. 

      Receives blood from the veins of the body.

    • B. 

      Receives blood from the pulmonary veins.

    • C. 

      Pumps blood to the lungs.

    • D. 

      Pumps blood to the body.

  • 93. 
    All of the following are true about the aorta EXCEPT it:
    • A. 

      Is the major artery originating from the heart.

    • B. 

      Divides at the level of the navel into the iliac arteries.

    • C. 

      Supplies all other vessals with blood.

    • D. 

      Is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood.