Quiz About Technical

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Technical Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What document lists training courses available in the specialty, identifies sources of training and the training delivery method?
    • A. 

      Continuation training guide

    • B. 

      Air Force specialty (AFS) standard.

    • C. 

      Career development course (CDC).

    • D. 

      Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

  • 2. 
    At what level is the Air Force specialty code (AFSC) shred removed?
    • A. 

      3-skill level

    • B. 

      5-skill level

    • C. 

      7-skill level

    • D. 

      9-skill level

  • 3. 
    What program provides additional training exceeding minimum upgrade training requirements with emphasis on present and future duty positions?
    • A. 

      7-skill level school

    • B. 

      Skills training program.

    • C. 

      Technical education program

    • D. 

      Continuation training program

  • 4. 
    In order to obtain an Associate in Applied Sciences Degree from the Community College of the Air Force (CCAF), a 5-skill level must be awarded a total of how many semester hour requirements?
    • A. 

      12.

    • B. 

      36.

    • C. 

      64.

    • D. 

      108.

  • 5. 
    Who is the appointment authority to assign duties as the primary or alternate equipment custodian?
    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Group commander

    • D. 

      Section chief

  • 6. 
    If a primary equipment custodian permanently departs a duty station without having an account properly transferred, who must sign for all the equipment within 45 days?
    • A. 

      Equipment Management Element

    • B. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Supply personnel

  • 7. 
    What must be prepared and maintained for items loaned outside the custodian’s span of control?
    • A. 

      Air Force Form 1297

    • B. 

      Air Force IMT 601

    • C. 

      Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) 22

    • D. 

      Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing (CA/CRL).

  • 8. 
    What may an Air Force member or civilian employee do in order to avoid the report of survey (ROS) process?
    • A. 

      Set up a payroll deduction

    • B. 

      Voluntarily pay the government

    • C. 

      Ask the commander for additional duty

    • D. 

      Ask to be relieved of monetary responsibility

  • 9. 
    Repair cycle assets are parts with an expendability, recoverability, reparability (ERRC) code starting with XD or
    • A. 

      BC

    • B. 

      XB.

    • C. 

      XF

    • D. 

      One document number

  • 10. 
    The issue priority signifies the customer assigned
    • A. 

      Current inventory of parts

    • B. 

      Urgency justification code (UJC).

    • C. 

      Current status of all your priority back-ordered parts

    • D. 

      Expendability, recoverability, or reparability (ERRC).

  • 11. 
    What provides all the necessary information you’ll need to track reparable parts throughout the repair process?
    • A. 

      Repair Cycle Asset Management List (D23).

    • B. 

      Daily Document Register (D04).

    • C. 

      Priority Monitor Report (D18)

    • D. 

      Due-out Validation List (M30).

  • 12. 
    (005) When reporting deficiencies and discrepancies with supplies, what are the two options you have available when you receive a defective part from supply?
    • A. 

      Deficiency Report (DR) or the Supply Discrepancy Report (SDR).

    • B. 

      Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 22 and AF IMT 1000.

    • C. 

      Send it to backshop or repair it yourself

    • D. 

      Order another or send it back

  • 13. 
    What is a support point as it relates to the Deficiency Report (DR) process?
    • A. 

      Any activity that assists the Action Point

    • B. 

      The exchange authority.

    • C. 

      The program manager

    • D. 

      The issuing authority

  • 14. 
    What form should be used to submit a technical order (TO) change?
    • A. 

      Air Force (AF) Form 1297

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1000

    • C. 

      AF IMT 601

    • D. 

      AFTO IMT 22

  • 15. 
    The two main types of changes for technical orders (TO) are corrections and
    • A. 

      Recommendation

    • B. 

      Improvements

    • C. 

      Informative

    • D. 

      Safety

  • 16. 
    What is the priority of a technical order (TO) change request that require immediate action on a deficiency which, if not corrected, WOULD in all probability result in a fatality or serious injury to personnel?
    • A. 

      Emergency

    • B. 

      Immediate

    • C. 

      Routine.

    • D. 

      Urgent.

  • 17. 
    Who is responsible for helping to strike the proper balance of maintenance capability and sortie production
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group vice commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group superintendent

  • 18. 
    Who works directly for the Maintenance Group commander (MXG/CC) and is charged with ensuring maintenance practices throughout the group are consistent according to technical data and management procedures
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Maintenance Group superintendent.

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group deputy commander

  • 19. 
    Who is held legally responsible for their unit’s Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) program compliance?
    • A. 

      EPA program monitor.

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Group commander.

    • D. 

      Expediter.

  • 20. 
    Whose responsibilities include managing shift manpower distribution at the flight level and making necessary adjustments
    • A. 

      Squadron commander

    • B. 

      Group superintendent

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations officer (MOO).

    • D. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) officer in charge/superintendent.

  • 21. 
    Whose primary job is to act as the first-line manager and supervisor of maintenance production and to serve as the technical authority and advisor?
    • A. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) officer in charge

    • B. 

      Wing weapons manager

    • C. 

      AMU superintendent

    • D. 

      Section chief.

  • 22. 
    Each Aircraft Maintenance Unit (AMU) must sustain the capability of supporting the squadron in order to accomplish its goals/taskings for all
    • A. 

      Peacetime and wartime flying

    • B. 

      Sortie generation.

    • C. 

      Exercises.

    • D. 

      Training

  • 23. 
    What system is used by the Chief of Staff United States Air Force (CSAF) and subordinate commanders in assessing their effectiveness in meeting Title 10, United States Code (USC), responsibilities to organize, train, and equip forces for combatant commands?
    • A. 

      Reliability, Availability, Maintainability for Pods (RAMPOD).

    • B. 

      Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection System

    • C. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • D. 

      Maintenance Information System (MIS).

  • 24. 
    Units that are required to be registered in Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) include all those with
    • A. 

      A flying mission

    • B. 

      USAF personnel

    • C. 

      A supply account

    • D. 

      A USAF personnel accounting symbol (PAS).

  • 25. 
    What is a fundamental premise of Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting?
    • A. 

      Integrity.

    • B. 

      Honesty.

    • C. 

      Always meeting indicators

    • D. 

      To make the squadron look good

  • 26. 
    Which MQ–9 internal fuselage component houses most of the payload components and/or ballast as required?
    • A. 

      Engine bay.

    • B. 

      Landing gear

    • C. 

      Avionics bay.

    • D. 

      Accessory bay

  • 27. 
    Which MQ–9 internal fuselage component houses miscellaneous equipment associated with the engine and fuel system?
    • A. 

      Engine bay

    • B. 

      Landing gear.

    • C. 

      Avionics bay

    • D. 

      Accessory bay.

  • 28. 
    On the MQ–9, the ailerons are used to control aircraft
    • A. 

      Roll

    • B. 

      Yaw.

    • C. 

      Pitch

    • D. 

      Longitude

  • 29. 
    On the MQ–9, the rudder is used to control aircraft
    • A. 

      Roll

    • B. 

      Yaw

    • C. 

      Pitch

    • D. 

      Longitude

  • 30. 
    Which MQ–9 aircraft system uses three Embedded Global Positioning System/Inertial Navigation System (EGI) units and various sensors to provide critical flight data to the aircraft control module?
    • A. 

      Surveillance system

    • B. 

      Flight control system (FCS).

    • C. 

      Aircraft digital control system (ADCS).

    • D. 

      Attitude, air data and navigation system

  • 31. 
    The MQ–9 Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) produces hazardous radio frequency (RF) when powered on in a radius of how many feet
    • A. 

      1.

    • B. 

      20

    • C. 

      70

    • D. 

      100.

  • 32. 
    On the MQ–9, what is the primary power for all aircraft electrical/electronic systems?
    • A. 

      26 volts alternating current (VAC).

    • B. 

      28 volts direct current (VDC).

    • C. 

      115 VAC

    • D. 

      300 VDC

  • 33. 
    On the MQ–9, what switches the starter/generator unit between starter and generator functions?
    • A. 

      Generator field coils

    • B. 

      Engine start module

    • C. 

      Generator control unit

    • D. 

      Power distribution module

  • 34. 
    If the MQ–9 generator fails, what will automatically assume the electrical load
    • A. 

      Back-up batteries

    • B. 

      Ground power panel

    • C. 

      Generator control unit

    • D. 

      Battery junction assemblies

  • 35. 
    What MQ–9 component contains 10 switched 28 volts direct current (VDC) outlets used to distribute power, derived from the dual buses?
    • A. 

      Engine start module

    • B. 

      Generator control unit

    • C. 

      Battery junction assemblies

    • D. 

      Payload power distribution modules

  • 36. 
    On the MQ–9, autopilot function is internal to the
    • A. 

      Unmanned aerospace vehicle (UAV) asynchronous RS–422 bus (UARB) network

    • B. 

      ARC–210 receiver/transmitter (RT).

    • C. 

      Redundant control module (RCM).

    • D. 

      Cross channel data link (CCDL).

  • 37. 
    On the MQ–9, the process in which vote processors use the quality of the three command datastreams to select an flight control assembly (FCA)-in-command in known as
    • A. 

      Triplex processing

    • B. 

      Datalink processing.

    • C. 

      Redundant processing

    • D. 

      Democratic processing

  • 38. 
    What flight control function is enabled by the pilot if desired and causes the aircraft to avoid unsafe conditions
    • A. 

      Protection logic

    • B. 

      Attitude protection

    • C. 

      Preprogrammed mission plan.

    • D. 

      Stability Augmentation System (SAS).

  • 39. 
    During takeoff and landing, when the airplane’s velocity is relatively low, what helps to maintain aircraft lift during these phases of flight?
    • A. 

      Ruddervators

    • B. 

      Flaperon.

    • C. 

      Aileron.

    • D. 

      Flaps

  • 40. 
    After a flight control servo has been commanded to a desired position, what servo component sends the position feedback signal to the servo control computer processor unit (CPU)?
    • A. 

      Position width modulator

    • B. 

      3-phase brushless motor

    • C. 

      Position resolver

    • D. 

      Director synchro

  • 41. 
    What air data sensor samples ram air and transfers the samples through pneumatic tubing to the right and left airspeed transducers?
    • A. 

      Pitot tube.

    • B. 

      Static port

    • C. 

      Alpha/beta probe

    • D. 

      Outside air temperature (OAT) sensor

  • 42. 
    What does the redundant control module (RCM) use measurements provided by the OAT sensor to calculate?
    • A. 

      True air speed and attitude

    • B. 

      True air speed and static altitude

    • C. 

      True air speed and density altitude

    • D. 

      Dynamic air speed and density altitude

  • 43. 
    What carries commands from the ground control station (GCS) to the aircraft
    • A. 

      Uplink only

    • B. 

      Command link only

    • C. 

      Uplink or command link

    • D. 

      Satellite communication (SATCOM) link

  • 44. 
    During SATCOM datalink, what component extracts audio from the command link signal and passes it to the ARC–210 radio?
    • A. 

      SATCOM dish antenna

    • B. 

      Lower directional antenna

    • C. 

      Redundant control module (RCM).

    • D. 

      Sensor processor modem assembly (SPMA).

  • 45. 
    What is the additional benefit of digital line-of-sight (LOS) over standard LOS?
    • A. 

      Audio from the aircraft intercom to the ground control station (GCS) intercom system

    • B. 

      Audio from the VHF/UHF radio to the GCS intercom system.

    • C. 

      One or two signals carried

    • D. 

      Aircraft status data

  • 46. 
    What MQ–9 encryption method is used to encrypt the Ku-band command and return links?
    • A. 

      Single data encryption standard (DES) encryption

    • B. 

      Quadra-decimal encryption

    • C. 

      Triple DES encryption

    • D. 

      Dual DES encryption

  • 47. 
    If power loss occurs to the link management assembly (LMA), commercial data encryption keysets can be reloaded by
    • A. 

      Pilots during flight

    • B. 

      The aircraft in flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance personnel during flight

    • D. 

      Automated reprogramming prior to the next mission

  • 48. 
    The laser rangefinder designator (LRD) containing a pulsed yttrium-aluminum-garnet (YAG) laser provides precise target slant range information that helps determine
    • A. 

      Speed ground targets

    • B. 

      Altitude of airborne targets.

    • C. 

      Earth coordinates of ground targets

    • D. 

      Ground moving target planned position

  • 49. 
    The turret unit (TU) is an imaging optical sensor of advanced multispectral capability that is controlled by the
    • A. 

      Low-light television (LLTV) camera assembly

    • B. 

      Flight computer assemblies

    • C. 

      Midwave infrared sensor

    • D. 

      Electronics unit (EU).

  • 50. 
    In the LLTV camera assembly, after light strikes the photocathode, the dislodged electrons are accelerated across
    • A. 

      An electronic screen.

    • B. 

      An electrostatic field.

    • C. 

      A light emitting device

    • D. 

      A charge-coupled detector

  • 51. 
    For infrared (IR) video, what separates the IR energy and directs it to the IR detector
    • A. 

      Beam splitter

    • B. 

      Optical director.

    • C. 

      Infrared controller.

    • D. 

      Infrared separator assembly

  • 52. 
    What does the laser rangefinder designator’s pulse repetition frequency (PRF) coding prevent?
    • A. 

      Electronic protection and anti-spoofing

    • B. 

      Interference from other lasers

    • C. 

      Secure target designation

    • D. 

      Wind buffeting influence

  • 53. 
    What provides the traditional pilot’s view visual reference for control of the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Infrared (IR) nose camera

    • B. 

      Wide field of view (WFOV) camera

    • C. 

      Daylight television (DTV) nose camera

    • D. 

      Low-light television (LLTV) nose camera

  • 54. 
    What provides the traditional pilot’s view visual reference for control of the aircraft
    • A. 

      Infrared (IR) nose camera

    • B. 

      Wide field of view (WFOV) camera

    • C. 

      Daylight television (DTV) nose camera

    • D. 

      Low-light television (LLTV) nose camera

  • 55. 
    Where does the operator control the infrared (IR) nose camera
    • A. 

      Infrared control menu

    • B. 

      Assessor control menu

    • C. 

      Forward looking infrared (FLIR) control menu

    • D. 

      Multispectral targeting system (MTS) control menu

  • 56. 
    If the payload power distribution module (PPDM) bus 1 power fails, how will that affect the synthetic aperture radar (SAR) sensor?
    • A. 

      It will be inoperable

    • B. 

      PPDM bus 2 will supply power

    • C. 

      It will function on emergency power

    • D. 

      It will operate only in ground moving target indication (GMTI) mode

  • 57. 
    What receives digital imagery from the remotely piloted aircraft (RPA)?
    • A. 

      Redundant control module (RCM).

    • B. 

      Gimbal antenna assembly (GAA).

    • C. 

      Radar electronics assembly (REA).

    • D. 

      Link management assembly (LMA).

  • 58. 
    What provides the multifunction workstation (MFW) with digital image files after initial processing?
    • A. 

      Lynx graphics interface (LGI).

    • B. 

      Inertial measurement unit (IMU).

    • C. 

      Joint Photographic Experts Group (JPEG) image processor.

    • D. 

      Control of Lynx and Analysis Workstation (CLAW) software

  • 59. 
    The Lynx synthetic aperture radar (SAR) ancillary data stream includes reference geographic information from the
    • A. 

      Global positioning system (GPS) receiver

    • B. 

      Gimbal antenna assembly (GAA).

    • C. 

      Inertial measurement unit (IMU).

    • D. 

      GPS antenna

  • 60. 
    With the installation of Control of Lynx and Analysis Workstation (CLAW) software, what synthetic aperture radar (SAR) operating mode can indicate miniscule changes in two SAR images taken at different times?
    • A. 

      Stripmap mode

    • B. 

      Spotlight mode

    • C. 

      Coherent change detection (CCD) mode

    • D. 

      Ground moving target indication (GMTI) mode