Pharmacology - Block 2

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Pharmacology - Block 2


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which enzyme controls the rate limiting step of serotonin synthesis?
    • A. 

      Monoamine Oxidase

    • B. 

      Tryptophan Hydroxylase

    • C. 

      L-aromatic amino acid decarboxylase

    • D. 

      Aldehyde Reductase

  • 2. 
    Which of the following is the only ionotropic 5-HT receptor?
    • A. 

      5-HT1A

    • B. 

      5-HT2A

    • C. 

      5-HT3A

    • D. 

      5-HT4A

  • 3. 
    Which of the following dopamine receptors is Gs coupled?
    • A. 

      D1

    • B. 

      D2

    • C. 

      D3

    • D. 

      D4

  • 4. 
    Which of the following is not properly matched based on the agonism of the receptor and its effect?
    • A. 

      D1;Renal Vasodilation

    • B. 

      D2; Increased GI motility

    • C. 

      5HT2A; Bronchoconstriction

    • D. 

      5HT2; Vasoconstriction

  • 5. 
    When dopamine is used therapeutically, as the plasma concentration increases it first activates _____ receptors, then ____ receptors, then _______ receptors.
    • A. 

      D2, alpha 1, beta 1

    • B. 

      D1, alpha 1, beta 1

    • C. 

      D1, beta 1, alpha 1

    • D. 

      Beta 1, alpha 1, D1

  • 6. 
    Aripiprazole is a partial agonist and D2 and what other receptor?
    • A. 

      D1

    • B. 

      5-HT1A

    • C. 

      5-HT3A

    • D. 

      5-HT2A

  • 7. 
    Which of the following is not a formulation of Sumatriptin?
    • A. 

      SQ

    • B. 

      IV

    • C. 

      Rectal

    • D. 

      Nasal

  • 8. 
    Fenoldopam binds to which receptor to promote renal vasodilation?
    • A. 

      D1

    • B. 

      D2

    • C. 

      5-HT3

    • D. 

      5-HT4

  • 9. 
    Which of the following is a melatonin agonist used to treat insomnia?
    • A. 

      Aripiprazole

    • B. 

      Melatocin

    • C. 

      Somnitonin

    • D. 

      Ramelteon

  • 10. 
    _____________, used in the treatment of GERD and gastric ulcers, is/are metabolized primarily by CYP ___, an enzyme in which some Asian populations have diminished activity.
    • A. 

      H2 Antagonists; 2C9

    • B. 

      Antacids; 3A4

    • C. 

      Proton Pump Inhibitors; 2C19

    • D. 

      Proton Pump Inhibitors; 2C9

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is true involving the mechanism of action of Proton Pump Inhibitors?
    • A. 

      Enteric coated formulations are used so that the drugs are absorbed in the large intestine

    • B. 

      They bind reversibly to the H+-K+-ATPase pump, inhibiting the production of acid

    • C. 

      The drugs are activated in the basic pH of the small intestine

    • D. 

      The drugs become active when protonated

  • 12. 
    Which of the following Proton Pump inhibitors is not available parenterally?
    • A. 

      Esomeprazole

    • B. 

      Omeprazole

    • C. 

      Lansoprazole

    • D. 

      Pantoprazole

  • 13. 
    Which of the following PPI's is not a prodrug?
    • A. 

      Esomeprazole

    • B. 

      Dexlansoprazole

    • C. 

      Rabeprazole

    • D. 

      All PPI's are prodrugs

  • 14. 
    What is the mechanism behind NSAID's potential to be ulcerogenic?
    • A. 

      They inhibit the formation of prostaglandins.

    • B. 

      They are EP3 antagonists that inhibit the production of mucus and bicarb and stimulate acid production

    • C. 

      They are strong acids when they dissociate in the stomach

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is not a formulation of Proton Pump Inhibitors?
    • A. 

      Enteric-coated tablets

    • B. 

      Enteric-coated drugs contained inside gelatin capsules

    • C. 

      Enteric-coated granules in powder form for suspension

    • D. 

      Powdered drug combined with Sodium Bicarbonate

    • E. 

      All of the above are formulations of PPI's

  • 16. 
    Which of the following H2 antagonists have negligible CYP affinity? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Famotidine

    • B. 

      Cimetidine

    • C. 

      Ranitidine

    • D. 

      Nizatidine

  • 17. 
    Which of the following H2 antagonists has the greatest potency relative to cimetidine?
    • A. 

      Famotidine

    • B. 

      Cimetidine

    • C. 

      Ranitidine

    • D. 

      Nizatidine

  • 18. 
    Which of the following regarding H2 antagonist toxicities is true?
    • A. 

      CNS effects are common with all dosage forms

    • B. 

      Hypergastrinemia does not occur in these medications, as only one pathway of acid production is inhibited

    • C. 

      Cimetidine increases estradiol levels

    • D. 

      Cimetidine can decrease prolactin levels

  • 19. 
    Misoprostol binds to which receptor to exert its pharmacological effect?
    • A. 

      H2

    • B. 

      M3

    • C. 

      EP3

    • D. 

      CCK2

  • 20. 
    What is/are the reason(s) that misoprostol is not used very much? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Its toxicities make it not very desirable

    • B. 

      It is not palatable

    • C. 

      It was taken off the market

    • D. 

      It must be dosed QID

  • 21. 
    Which of the following is not a toxicity concern for misoprostol?
    • A. 

      Diarrhea in 30% of patients

    • B. 

      Constipation in 30% of patients

    • C. 

      Exacerbation of IBD

    • D. 

      Increased uterine contractility

  • 22. 
    Which of the following does not need to be activated to exert biological activity?
    • A. 

      Misoprostol

    • B. 

      Proton Pump Inhibitors

    • C. 

      Sucralfate

    • D. 

      Antacids

  • 23. 
    Which of the following antacids would you expect to cause belching? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Calcium Carbonate

    • B. 

      Magnesium Hydroxide

    • C. 

      Aluminum Hydroxide

    • D. 

      Sodium Bicarbonate

  • 24. 
    Antacids react with HCl to form a salt plus ________ or ________.
    • A. 

      H2O;HCO3

    • B. 

      CO2;HCO3

    • C. 

      O2; H2O

    • D. 

      H2O;CO2

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is not a symptom of Milk-Alkali syndrome?
    • A. 

      Hypercalcemia

    • B. 

      Decreased parathyroid hormone

    • C. 

      Renal insufficiency

    • D. 

      Metabolic Acidosis

  • 26. 
    A combination of antacids are preferred for best effect. Ideal therapy would include a fast acting antacid (Containing _________) for rapid effect and a slow acting antacid (containing _________) for prolonged neutralizing effect.
    • A. 

      Aluminum;Magnesium

    • B. 

      Magnesium; Aluminum

    • C. 

      Calcium;Sodium

    • D. 

      Sodium;Calcium

  • 27. 
    H2 receptors on parietal cells are ______ coupled and part of the _______ pathway of acid production.
    • A. 

      Gi;calcium-dependent

    • B. 

      Gs;calcium-dependent

    • C. 

      Gi;cAMP-dependent

    • D. 

      Gs;cAMP dependent

    • E. 

      Gq; cAMP dependent pathway

  • 28. 
    Which of the following result in the most complete inhibition of the H-K-ATPase pump?
    • A. 

      PPI's

    • B. 

      H2 antagonists

    • C. 

      Misoprostol

    • D. 

      Antacids

  • 29. 
    Acetylcholine exerts an indirect effect on acid production via:
    • A. 

      Binding to M3 receptors in the calcium dependent pathway

    • B. 

      Binding to M3 receptors in the cAMP dependent pathway

    • C. 

      Stimulation of histamine release from ECL cells

    • D. 

      Stimulation of histamine release from EC cells

  • 30. 
    Which of the following represents gastrin's activity in the production of acid?
    • A. 

      Neuronal

    • B. 

      Paracrine

    • C. 

      Endocrine

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 31. 
    _________ is released from Enterochromaffin Cells due to gut distension
    • A. 

      Serotonin

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine

    • C. 

      Norepinephrine

    • D. 

      Gastrin

  • 32. 
    Which of the following directly stimulates the inhibitory motor neuron?
    • A. 

      Ascending interneuron

    • B. 

      Descending Interneuron

    • C. 

      IPAN

    • D. 

      Excitatory motor neuron

  • 33. 
    What is the effect of acetylcholine on GI smooth muscle?
    • A. 

      Contraction

    • B. 

      Dilation

    • C. 

      No effect

  • 34. 
    Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of Metoclopramide?
    • A. 

      5-HT3 antagonism

    • B. 

      5-HT4 antagonism

    • C. 

      D2 antagonism

    • D. 

      Enhancement LES tone

    • E. 

      Sensitization of muscarinic receptors

  • 35. 
    Metoclopramide __________ GI transit time.
    • A. 

      Increases

    • B. 

      Decreases

  • 36. 
    Increased prolactin levels would be most likely associated with which agent?
    • A. 

      Lubiprostone

    • B. 

      Metoclopramide

    • C. 

      Neostigmine

    • D. 

      Erythromycin

  • 37. 
    Which of the following induces the activity of the MMC, particularly Phase III ?
    • A. 

      Docusate sodium

    • B. 

      Lubiprostone

    • C. 

      Lactulose

    • D. 

      Erythromycin

  • 38. 
    Which of the following is not a role of serotonin in the GI?
    • A. 

      Stimulating vagal neurons

    • B. 

      Stimulating interneuronal signalling

    • C. 

      Triggering the peristaltic reflex

    • D. 

      Inhibiting the release of acetycholine

  • 39. 
    Check all of the following that apply to lubiprostone, but NOT to tegaserod:
    • A. 

      Prostanoic acid derivative

    • B. 

      Indicated for treatment of IBS-C

    • C. 

      Increased motility

    • D. 

      Cardiac toxicity

  • 40. 
    How long does Stage III of the MMC last?
    • A. 

      80-110 minutes

    • B. 

      5-6 minutes

    • C. 

      10-20 minutes

    • D. 

      24-30 minutes

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is known for its use in diabetic gastroparesis?
    • A. 

      Erythromycin

    • B. 

      Docusate

    • C. 

      Lubiprostone

    • D. 

      Metoclopramide

  • 42. 
    Which of the following bulk-forming laxatives is poorly fermentable and can chelate other drugs such as tetracycline?
    • A. 

      Calcium Polycarbophil

    • B. 

      Psyllium Husk

    • C. 

      Methylcellulose

    • D. 

      All of the above are poorly fermentable and can chelate other drugs such as tetracyline

  • 43. 
    Which of the following is most likely to cause bloating/gas?
    • A. 

      Calcium Polycarbophil

    • B. 

      Psyllium Husk

    • C. 

      Methylcellulose

    • D. 

      None of the above would likely cause gas

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is false concerning bulk-forming laxatives?
    • A. 

      Soluble fibers have a greater effect on transit time than do Insoluble fibers

    • B. 

      The production of short chain fatty acids via fermentation has a prokinetic effect

    • C. 

      Bulk forming laxatives increase stool volume

    • D. 

      All of the above are true

  • 45. 
    Which of the following is false concerning saline laxatives?
    • A. 

      Magnesium containing laxatives can stimulate CCK

    • B. 

      Phosphate containing laxatives require larger doses than magnesium-containing laxatives

    • C. 

      Large doses of sodium phosphate can lead to potentially deadly electrolyte imbalances

    • D. 

      They are relatively safe in patients with renal insufficiency

  • 46. 
    Which of the following laxative agents is known to treat hepatic encephalopathy?
    • A. 

      Docusate

    • B. 

      Polyethylene glycol

    • C. 

      Lactulose

    • D. 

      Lubiprostone

  • 47. 
    Which of the following is least likely cause flatus/bloating?
    • A. 

      Sorbitol

    • B. 

      Docusate sodium

    • C. 

      Psyllium Husk

    • D. 

      Calcium carbonate

  • 48. 
    Which of the following drugs has toxicities that include the potential to develop  "cathartic colon," where muscle layers thin and dilate and becomes less responsive to distension?
    • A. 

      Bisacodyl

    • B. 

      Metoclopramide

    • C. 

      Methylnaltrexone

    • D. 

      Senna

  • 49. 
    Which of the following agents is used to shorten the duration of post-op ileus in patients that are hospitalized?
    • A. 

      Methylnaltrexone

    • B. 

      Lubiprostone

    • C. 

      Alvimopan

    • D. 

      Bisacodyl

  • 50. 
    Which of the following drugs does not require activation before exerting its pharmacological effect?
    • A. 

      Senna

    • B. 

      Castor Oil

    • C. 

      Sucralfate

    • D. 

      Mineral Oil

  • 51. 
    Which of the following can drugs can result in black stools?
    • A. 

      Senna

    • B. 

      Bismuth

    • C. 

      Loperamide

    • D. 

      Crofelemer

  • 52. 
    Which of the following is a bile acid sequestrant?
    • A. 

      Colestipol

    • B. 

      Canasa

    • C. 

      Sulfasalazine

    • D. 

      Linactolide

  • 53. 
    Which of the following does not require activation before exerting pharmacological effect?
    • A. 

      Diphenoxylate

    • B. 

      Bismuth Subsalicylate

    • C. 

      Linactolide

    • D. 

      Octreotide

  • 54. 
    Which of the following has the potential to cause paralytic ileus in excessive doses?
    • A. 

      Loperamide

    • B. 

      Colesevelam

    • C. 

      Octreotide

    • D. 

      Linactolide

  • 55. 
    Which of the following agents can cause gall stone formation with long-term use, due to its inhibition of gallbladder contraction?
    • A. 

      Crovelemer

    • B. 

      Octreotide

    • C. 

      Linactolide

    • D. 

      Diphenoxylate

  • 56. 
    Which of the following inhibits secretion of Cl- into the lumen?
    • A. 

      Octreotide

    • B. 

      Crofelemer

    • C. 

      Linactolide

    • D. 

      Lubiprostone

  • 57. 
    Which of the following decreases intestinal motility?
    • A. 

      Secretion of Cl

    • B. 

      Antagonists of the mu receptors

    • C. 

      5-HT3 antagonism

    • D. 

      5-HT4 agonism

  • 58. 
    Which of the following agents does not act locally?
    • A. 

      Crofelemer

    • B. 

      Mesalamine

    • C. 

      Linactolide

    • D. 

      TCAs

  • 59. 
    Which of the following is not a pharmacological effect of TCA's in the treatment of IBS?
    • A. 

      Analgesia

    • B. 

      Alteration of visceral afferent neuronal signaling

    • C. 

      Inhibits the secretion of somatostatin

    • D. 

      Antimuscarinic activity

  • 60. 
    Which of the following agents is indicated for the treatment "dumping syndrome", the rapid entry of food into the small intestine?
    • A. 

      Crofelemer

    • B. 

      Octreotide

    • C. 

      Preporik (Sodium Picosulfate + Magnesium oxide + Anhydrous citric acid)

    • D. 

      Tricyclic antidepressants

  • 61. 
    Which of the following agents is known to cause Ischemic Colitis in patients taking it?
    • A. 

      Tegaserod

    • B. 

      Clonidine

    • C. 

      Dicyclomine

    • D. 

      Alosetron

  • 62. 
    Which of the following agents would likely cause blood sugar disturbances?
    • A. 

      Crofelemer

    • B. 

      Linactolide

    • C. 

      Octreotide

    • D. 

      Diphenoxylate

  • 63. 
    Which of the following is indicated for anal incontinence, due to its ability to increase anal sphincter tone?
    • A. 

      Metoclopramide

    • B. 

      Octreotide

    • C. 

      Colesevelam

    • D. 

      Loperamide

  • 64. 
    Which of the following is an azo compound used in the treatment of IBD?
    • A. 

      Lialda

    • B. 

      Asacol

    • C. 

      Pentasa

    • D. 

      Olsalazine

  • 65. 
    Which of the following agents used to treat IBD has a pH sensitive coating?
    • A. 

      Pentasa

    • B. 

      Sulfasalazine

    • C. 

      Lialda

    • D. 

      Rowasa

  • 66. 
    Which of the following agents used to treat IBD contains 5-ASA linked to an inert compound?
    • A. 

      Rowasa

    • B. 

      Olsalazine

    • C. 

      Balsalazide

    • D. 

      Pentasa

  • 67. 
    Which of the following is not a class of medcations to treat IBD?
    • A. 

      Aminosalicylates

    • B. 

      Glucocorticoids

    • C. 

      TCA's

    • D. 

      Anti-integrins

  • 68. 
    Which of the following concerning IBD is true?
    • A. 

      Crohn's disease affects primarily the colon

    • B. 

      The inflammation of IBD is limited to the GI system

    • C. 

      The damage that Ulcerative Colitis does is primarily to the superficial layer of the lumen

    • D. 

      Crohn's disease expresses a confluent pattern of inflammation

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is true concerning toxicities of aminosalicylates?
    • A. 

      The 5-ASA component is responsible for most of the ADR's

    • B. 

      Aminosalicylates work topically and systemically

    • C. 

      Sulfasalazine can cross the placenta and has thus been shown to harm the fetus

    • D. 

      Secretory diarrhea is particularly attributed to olsalazine

  • 70. 
    Which of the following corticosteroids has a controlled-release formation to increase bioavailability?
    • A. 

      Prednisone

    • B. 

      Prednisolone

    • C. 

      Budesonide

    • D. 

      Methylprednisolone

  • 71. 
    Which of the following glucocorticoids is available IV?
    • A. 

      Hydrocortisone

    • B. 

      Budesonide

    • C. 

      Prednisone

    • D. 

      Prednisolone

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is not a mechanism of action for glucocorticoids?
    • A. 

      Inhibition of inflammatory cytokines (IL-1, TNF-Alpha)

    • B. 

      Inhibition of inflammatory chemokines (IL-8)

    • C. 

      Increased expression of inflammatory Cell Adhesion Molecules

    • D. 

      Inhibition of gene transcription (NOS, PLA2, NF-kB)

  • 73. 
    Which of the following is not a likely ADR for glucocorticoids?
    • A. 

      Osteoporosis

    • B. 

      Elevated Mood

    • C. 

      Decreased appetite

    • D. 

      Impaired glucose control

  • 74. 
    For patients taking 6-mercaptopurine, in which of the following cases would it be possible that 6-thioguanine levels be subtherapeutic?
    • A. 

      Rapid metabolizers of TPMT

    • B. 

      Intermediate metabolizers of TPMT

    • C. 

      Those without TPMT activity

    • D. 

      Normal metabolizers

  • 75. 
    Which of the following pathways does allopurinol inhibit?
    • A. 

      TPMT

    • B. 

      XO

    • C. 

      HGPRT

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 76. 
    Which of the following represents the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
    • A. 

      Inhibition of TNF-alpha

    • B. 

      Inhibition of calcineurin

    • C. 

      Inhibition of leukocyte adhesion

    • D. 

      Inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

  • 77. 
    Which of the following agents to treat IBD could result in megaloblastic anemia?
    • A. 

      Hydrocortisone

    • B. 

      Methotrexate

    • C. 

      Natalimumab

    • D. 

      Cyclosporine

  • 78. 
    Which of the following agents to treat IBD has toxicities that are similar to phenytoin?
    • A. 

      Cyclosporine

    • B. 

      Methotrexate

    • C. 

      5-ASA

    • D. 

      Adalimumab

  • 79. 
    Which of the following agents to treat IBD has a microemulsion formulation?
    • A. 

      Azo compounds

    • B. 

      Adalimumab

    • C. 

      Cyclosporine

    • D. 

      Methotrexate

  • 80. 
    Which anti-TNF agent to treat IBD is 95% humanized?
    • A. 

      Infliximab

    • B. 

      Adalimumab

    • C. 

      Certulizumab

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 81. 
    Which of the following agents to treat IBD has a possibility to cause lymphomas?
    • A. 

      Sulfasalazine

    • B. 

      Adalimumab

    • C. 

      Natalizumab

    • D. 

      6-mercaptopurine

  • 82. 
    Which of the following agents to treat IBD has no effect on gene transcription concerning its mechanism of action?
    • A. 

      Methotrexate

    • B. 

      Glucocorticoids

    • C. 

      Aminosalicylates

    • D. 

      Cyclosporine

  • 83. 
    Which 5-HT3 antagonist is an imidazole compound?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron

    • B. 

      Dolasetron

    • C. 

      Palosetron

    • D. 

      Granisetron

  • 84. 
    Which 5HT3 antagonist is only formulated for injection?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron

    • B. 

      Palosetron

    • C. 

      Granisetron

    • D. 

      Dolasetron

  • 85. 
    Which 5HT3 antagonist has the longest half-life?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron

    • B. 

      Palosetron

    • C. 

      Granisetron

    • D. 

      Dolasetron

  • 86. 
    Which 5HT3 antagonist used for nausea and vomiting has greatest affinity for 5-HT3 receptors?
    • A. 

      Ondansetron

    • B. 

      Palosetron

    • C. 

      Granisetron

    • D. 

      Dolasetron

  • 87. 
    Check all of the following receptors that ondansetron exerts any level of activity:
    • A. 

      5-HT3

    • B. 

      D2

    • C. 

      H1

    • D. 

      M1

  • 88. 
    Which of the following agents to treat nausea has the following adverse drug reactions associated with it due to its CNS sympathomimetic effects: Heart palpitations, tachycardia, and conjunctival injection
    • A. 

      Dronabinol

    • B. 

      Ondansetron

    • C. 

      Aprepitant

    • D. 

      Haloperidol

  • 89. 
    QT prolongation is a concern for which anti-emetic agent?
    • A. 

      Dexamethazone

    • B. 

      Droperidol

    • C. 

      Haloperidol

    • D. 

      Promethazine

  • 90. 
    Which phenothiazine compound used to treat N/V has noteworthy H1R antagonism?
    • A. 

      Promethazine

    • B. 

      Fluphenazine

    • C. 

      Perphenazine

    • D. 

      Prochlorperazine

  • 91. 
    The GHRH receptor is a ________ coupled receptor
    • A. 

      Gs

    • B. 

      Gi

    • C. 

      Gq

    • D. 

      Not a g protein

  • 92. 
    The SST (1-5) receptor is a ________ coupled receptor
    • A. 

      Gs

    • B. 

      Gi

    • C. 

      Gq

    • D. 

      Not a g protein

  • 93. 
    All of the following negatively feedback to inhibit the release of GHRH from the hypothalamus except:
    • A. 

      Ghrelin

    • B. 

      IGF-1

    • C. 

      GH

    • D. 

      SST

  • 94. 
    Which of the following is falsely paired?
    • A. 

      Exercise ; stimulates the release of GH

    • B. 

      Stress ; stimulates the release of GH

    • C. 

      Beta receptor agonists ; stimulates the release of GH

    • D. 

      Alpha 2 receptor agonists ; stimulates the release of GH

  • 95. 
    Which of the following agents is used to treat growth hormone excess?
    • A. 

      Octreotide

    • B. 

      RGH

    • C. 

      RIGF-1

    • D. 

      Bromocriptine

  • 96. 
    Which of the following is a hypothalamic hormone?
    • A. 

      PRL

    • B. 

      FSH

    • C. 

      LH

    • D. 

      TRH

  • 97. 
    Which of the following is a hormone released by the posterior pituitary?
    • A. 

      CRH

    • B. 

      TSH

    • C. 

      ACTH

    • D. 

      ADH

  • 98. 
    A diagonistic test of what hormone would determine if a woman was ovulating?
    • A. 

      FSH

    • B. 

      LH

    • C. 

      HCG

    • D. 

      HMG

  • 99. 
    This agent to treat growth hormone deficiency should require an eye exam to monitor for papilledema in children taking it.
    • A. 

      Somatropin

    • B. 

      Mecasermin

    • C. 

      Lanreotide

    • D. 

      Pegvisomant

  • 100. 
    On what is T3 and T4 carried in the bloodstream?
    • A. 

      Thyroglobulin

    • B. 

      Thyroid Binding Globulin

    • C. 

      Hemoglobin

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 101. 
    Which anterior pituitary hormone does not require a releasing hormone?
    • A. 

      Thyrotropin

    • B. 

      Growth Hormone

    • C. 

      Prolactin

    • D. 

      Gonadotropin

  • 102. 
    Which of the following agents is used to treat excessive growth hormone interrupts the negative feedback loop?
    • A. 

      Octreotide

    • B. 

      Pegvisomant

    • C. 

      Natalizumab

    • D. 

      Mecasermin

  • 103. 
    Which of the following is not a physiological effect of FSH?
    • A. 

      Sperm Maturation

    • B. 

      Regulation of estradiol production

    • C. 

      Stimulation of ovarian folicles

    • D. 

      Synthesis of progesterone