4e051 Volume 2
Public Health UREs for volumeII
- 1.
A primary or definitive host is a host in which a disease organism
- A.
Attains its maturity and goes through its sexual or reproductive stage.
- B.
Becomes most easily identified by laboratory tests.
- C.
Has not yet invaded an intermediate host.
- D.
Enters the larval stage.
Correct Answer
A. Attains its maturity and goes through its sexual or reproductive stage. -
- 2.
The ability of an agent to produce clinical disease in a host is its
- A.
Virulence.
- B.
Infectivity.
- C.
Penetrability.
- D.
Pathogenicity.
Correct Answer
D. Pathogenicity. -
- 3.
Rabies is spread by
- A.
Direct contact.
- B.
Airborne contact.
- C.
Vectorborne contact.
- D.
Vehicleborne contact.
Correct Answer
A. Direct contact. -
- 4.
Giving hepatitis A vaccine and malaria prophylaxis to deploying troops controls what link in the chain of infection?
- A.
Source.
- B.
Vehicle.
- C.
Susceptible person.
- D.
Means of transmission.
Correct Answer
C. Susceptible person. -
- 5.
In countries where pork is eaten, individuals may be at risk of trichinosis infection when the pork is undercooked. This is an example what intrinsic factor in the occurrence of disease?
- A.
Diet.
- B.
Personal hygiene.
- C.
Physiological state.
- D.
Preexisting disease.
Correct Answer
A. Diet. -
- 6.
Using night soil as a fertilizer allows the transmission of such diseases as typhoid, dysentery, amebiasis, and hepatitis. Preventing transmission of these diseases involves educating people on
- A.
Proper disposal of human wastes.
- B.
Good household hygiene.
- C.
Good personal hygiene.
- D.
Occupational hazards.
Correct Answer
A. Proper disposal of human wastes. -
- 7.
The environmental factor that has the greatest effect on hay fever sufferers is
- A.
Social.
- B.
Climate.
- C.
Geography.
- D.
Physiological.
Correct Answer
B. Climate. -
- 8.
What environmental factor relates to the fact that quinine, used to treat malaria, comes from tree bark?
- A.
Social.
- B.
Climate.
- C.
Biological.
- D.
Geography.
Correct Answer
C. Biological. -
- 9.
Numeric facts or data that have been assembled, classified, and tabulated to present significant information about a given subject are called
- A.
Statistics.
- B.
The mode.
- C.
The mean.
- D.
The median.
Correct Answer
A. Statistics. -
- 10.
What number is most commonly used as a measurement of central tendency?
- A.
Rate.
- B.
Mean.
- C.
Mode.
- D.
Median.
Correct Answer
B. Mean. -
- 11.
The mode for the numbers 6, 18, 26, 14, 12, 19, 20, and 26 is
- A.
17.625
- B.
18.500.
- C.
19.250.
- D.
26.000.
Correct Answer
D. 26.000. -
- 12.
The median of the numbers 3, 3, 5, 7, 8, 9, and 12 is
- A.
3.00.
- B.
6.71.
- C.
7.00.
- D.
8.21.
Correct Answer
C. 7.00. -
- 13.
Public health workers use attack rates when investigating foodborne illness outbreaks to determine th
- A.
Time the food was consumed.
- B.
Gender of the average patient.
- C.
Food or foods most likely responsible for the outbreak.
- D.
Average number of items consumed by the ill population.
Correct Answer
C. Food or foods most likely responsible for the outbreak. -
- 14.
If 30 out of 90 people who ate at a base picnic became ill, the attack rate per 100 persons is
- A.
3.33.
- B.
33.30.
- C.
333.00.
- D.
333.30.
Correct Answer
B. 33.30. -
- 15.
A method that is used to study two similar groups by administering a vaccine, special diet, or some other factor to one group while withholding it from the other group is called
- A.
Prospective.
- B.
Experimental.
- C.
Retrospective.
- D.
Observational.
Correct Answer
B. Experimental. -
- 16.
A method that is used to study different groups under natural conditions is called the
- A.
Prospective.
- B.
Experimental.
- C.
Retrospective.
- D.
Observational.
Correct Answer
D. Observational. -
- 17.
Which study method traces the source of a food poisoning outbreak, or examines STD incidence and prevalence?
- A.
Controlled method.
- B.
Experimental method.
- C.
Prospective observation.
- D.
Uncontrolled observation.
Correct Answer
D. Uncontrolled observation. -
- 18.
In an outbreak investigation, what step do you take after confirming the existence of an outbreak?
- A.
Define and identify cases.
- B.
Communicate your findings.
- C.
Establish or verify the diagnosis.
- D.
Perform descriptive epidemiology.
Correct Answer
C. Establish or verify the diagnosis. -
- 19.
In what step of an outbreak investigation do you construct an epidemic curve or graph of cases that is plotted according to time of onset?
- A.
Step 2 (establish existence of an outbreak).
- B.
Step 3 (take steps to establish or verify the diagnosis).
- C.
Step 4 (define and identify cases).
- D.
Step 5 (perform descriptive epidemiology).
Correct Answer
D. Step 5 (perform descriptive epidemiology). -
- 20.
What form of meningitis occurs most often in children under 5 years old?
- A.
Rheumatic fever.
- B.
Kidney infection.
- C.
Neisseria meningitis.
- D.
Haemophilus meningitis.
Correct Answer
D. Haemophilus meningitis. -
- 21.
What form of meningitis, which is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis, is normally called “aseptic meningitis”?
- A.
Viral meningitis.
- B.
Spinal meningitis.
- C.
Streptococcus pyogenes.
- D.
Haemophilus meningitis.
Correct Answer
A. Viral meningitis. -
- 22.
What is the most common type of streptococcal infection?
- A.
Sore throat.
- B.
Scarlet fever.
- C.
Rheumatic fever.
- D.
Kidney infection.
Correct Answer
A. Sore throat. -
- 23.
During what stage of tuberculosis do bacilli encapsulate and remain in the alveoli of the lung until conditions favor growth?
- A.
Active.
- B.
Infection.
- C.
Dormant.
- D.
Incubation.
Correct Answer
C. Dormant. -
- 24.
What tuberculin skin test is used by the Air Force to screen people for tuberculosis?
- A.
Mantoux test.
- B.
Sputum culture.
- C.
Tuberculin tine test.
- D.
BCG.
Correct Answer
A. Mantoux test. -
- 25.
How long after receiving a BCG vaccination will most people revert to a negative tuberculin skin test?
- A.
4 years.
- B.
6 years.
- C.
8 years.
- D.
10 years.
Correct Answer
D. 10 years. -
- 26.
To confirm a diagnosis of tuberculosis, it is essential to perform a
- A.
Chest x-ray.
- B.
Tine skin test.
- C.
Sputum culture.
- D.
Mantoux PPD skin test.
Correct Answer
C. Sputum culture. -
- 27.
Where is the original AF Form 2453, Tuberculosis Detection and Control Data, filed?
- A.
County health office.
- B.
Patient’s outpatient medical record.
- C.
Public Health patient filing system.
- D.
It is not necessary to file the original.
Correct Answer
B. Patient’s outpatient medical record. -
- 28.
During what period of development is syphilis first detectable through laboratory testing?
- A.
Initial.
- B.
Latent stage.
- C.
Primary stage.
- D.
Incubation period.
Correct Answer
C. Primary stage. -
- 29.
Which laboratory test measures antibodies to the causative organism of syphilis?
- A.
Darkfield microscopy.
- B.
Lightfield microscopy.
- C.
Nontreponemal testing.
- D.
Treponemal testing.
Correct Answer
D. Treponemal testing. -
- 30.
What are you looking at if you see a raised, table-top or mushroom-like papule with a pale, white soggy appearance on the genitals or rectum?
- A.
Adenitis
- B.
Alopecia.
- C.
Mucous patch.
- D.
Condylomata lata.
Correct Answer
D. Condylomata lata. -
- 31.
Gonococcal epididymitis is an example of which type of gonorrhea?
- A.
Complicated genital infection.
- B.
Uncomplicated genital infection.
- C.
Complicated nongenital infection.
- D.
Uncomplicated nongenital infection.
Correct Answer
A. Complicated genital infection. -
- 32.
What is the most common complication of female gonorrhea infections?
- A.
Sterility.
- B.
Salpingitis.
- C.
Genital lesions.
- D.
Pelvic inflammatory disease.
Correct Answer
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease. -
- 33.
When a patient indicates difficulty in taking multidose medications, a healthcare provider may select a single-dose injection. This is an example of which consideration for treatment of gonorrhea?
- A.
Reliability.
- B.
Antibiotic side effects.
- C.
Antibiotic effectiveness.
- D.
Compromised immune system.
Correct Answer
A. Reliability. -
- 34.
What is a chronic infectious disease of the conjunctiva and cornea that produces photophobia, pain, and excessive tearing?
- A.
NGU.
- B.
Trachoma.
- C.
Occularitis.
- D.
Infant conjunctivitis.
Correct Answer
B. Trachoma. -
- 35.
What is considered to be the standard test for identifying chlamydia in genital infections?
- A.
Cytology.
- B.
Skin scraping.
- C.
Serological testing.
- D.
Tissue culture.
Correct Answer
D. Tissue culture. -
- 36.
Which diagnostic method is the quickest for identifying chlamydia infections?
- A.
Skin scraping.
- B.
Serological testing.
- C.
Tissue culture.
- D.
Antigen-antibody tests.
Correct Answer
A. Skin scraping. -
- 37.
Which diagnostic method is the most specific and sensitive to confirm herpes?
- A.
Antigen-antibody testing.
- B.
Serological testing.
- C.
Tissue culture.
- D.
Skin scraping.
Correct Answer
C. Tissue culture. -
- 38.
What disease starts with a pimple-like sore and, if left untreated, forms a bubo in most patients?
- A.
HSV1.
- B.
HSV2.
- C.
Lymphogranuloma venereum.
- D.
NGU.
Correct Answer
C. Lymphogranuloma venereum. -
- 39.
Which symptom does not assist healthcare providers in diagnosing AIDS?
- A.
Kaposi sarcoma.
- B.
CMV.
- C.
Acute HSV1 infection.
- D.
Candida in the mouth and esophagus.
Correct Answer
C. Acute HSV1 infection. -
- 40.
Which diagnostic method is the most specific for identifying individuals within high-risk groups who are positive for HIV?
- A.
Tissue culture.
- B.
Skin scraping.
- C.
Western blot.
- D.
ELISA test.
Correct Answer
C. Western blot. -
- 41.
There are two keys to conducting a successful interview concerning STD. The first key is the interviewer must be knowledgeable. What is the second?
- A.
The patient must control the conversation.
- B.
The interviewer must control the conversation.
- C.
Interviewer ensures that all contacts are treated and followed up.
- D.
Interviewer ensures that pictures, tissues, and telephone are available.
Correct Answer
B. The interviewer must control the conversation. -
- 42.
What method of preventing STD among sexually active people is most effective?
- A.
Using condoms properly.
- B.
Checking partners for signs of disease.
- C.
Decreasing the number of sexual partners.
- D.
Maintaining personal hygiene after sexual contact.
Correct Answer
A. Using condoms properly. -
- 43.
Which form of hepatitis is most commonly found in child development centers?
- A.
A.
- B.
B.
- C.
C.
- D.
D.
Correct Answer
A. A. -
- 44.
Which form of hepatitis has an average incubation period of 60 to 90 days?
- A.
A.
- B.
B.
- C.
C.
- D.
D.
Correct Answer
B. B. -
- 45.
What must be present for the delta virus to infect and cause illness?
- A.
Hepatitis A.
- B.
Hepatitis B.
- C.
Hepatitis C.
- D.
Hepatitis D.
Correct Answer
B. Hepatitis B. -
- 46.
In order for IG to be effective, how soon must it be given after exposure to hepatitis?
- A.
Within 2 weeks.
- B.
Within 2 months.
- C.
Immediately after exposure.
- D.
Never. It is not effective against hepatitis.
Correct Answer
A. Within 2 weeks. -
- 47.
Who is at highest risk of hepatitis B infection?
- A.
Child development center worker.
- B.
Water treatment worker.
- C.
Food service worker.
- D.
Dentist.
Correct Answer
D. Dentist. -
- 48.
What is the key to effectively controlling and preventing the spread of viral hepatitis?
- A.
Isolate all patients with hepatitis.
- B.
Vaccinate all personnel for hepatitis.
- C.
Provide education and sanitary controls.
- D.
Administer immune globulin to high-risk employees.
Correct Answer
C. Provide education and sanitary controls. -
- 49.
What is an acute disease that has sudden onset of profuse watery stools, occasional vomiting, rapid dehydration, and circulatory collapse?
- A.
Shigellosis.
- B.
Giardiasis.
- C.
Amebiasis.
- D.
Cholera.
Correct Answer
D. Cholera. -
- 50.
How does a healthcare provider notify PH of a suspected communicable disease?
- A.
Use e-mail.
- B.
Complete AF Form 422, Physical Profile.
- C.
Complete AF Form 570, Notification of Patient’s Medical Status.
- D.
Fax the Standard Form 600, Chronological Record of Patient Care.
Correct Answer
C. Complete AF Form 570, Notification of Patient’s Medical Status. -
Quiz Review Timeline +
Our quizzes are rigorously reviewed, monitored and continuously updated by our expert board to maintain accuracy, relevance, and timeliness.
-
Current Version
-
Apr 28, 2014Quiz Edited by
ProProfs Editorial Team -
Apr 23, 2014Quiz Created by
Myosha_leeper197
- Acceleration Quizzes
- Acoustic Quizzes
- Chapters Of Physics Quizzes
- Distance Quizzes
- Electrolysis Quizzes
- ESD Quizzes
- Frequency Quizzes
- Light And Reflection Quizzes
- Logic Gate Quizzes
- Magnetic Field Quizzes
- Momentum Quizzes
- Motion Quizzes
- Online Physics Quizzes
- Optics Quizzes
- Physics Of Sound Quizzes
- Practice Physics Quizzes
- Properties Of Matter Quizzes
- Quantum Quizzes
- Reflection Quizzes
- Refraction Quizzes
- Secondary 3 Physics Quizzes
- Speed Of Light Quizzes
- Thermodynamics Quizzes
- Velocity Quizzes
Back to top