Pharmacology Final

104 Questions

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Pharmacology Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Which antiviral with activity against HSV has a potential adverse effect of thrombocytopenic purpora?
    • A. 

      Penciclovir

    • B. 

      Valacyclovir

    • C. 

      Famciclovir

    • D. 

      Entecavir

  • 2. 
    Which of the following agents to treat HSV would create the most issues of compliance due to how many times daily they are administered? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Penciclovir

    • B. 

      Valacyclovir

    • C. 

      Trifluridine

    • D. 

      Docosonol

  • 3. 
    Which HSV agent is noteworthy for its treatment of genital herpes?
    • A. 

      Docosonol

    • B. 

      Trifluridine

    • C. 

      Famciclovir

    • D. 

      Valacyclovir

  • 4. 
    Which agent(s) to treat HSV is/are only available opthalmically? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Trifluridine

    • B. 

      Docosonol

    • C. 

      Acyclovir

    • D. 

      Famciclovir

  • 5. 
    Which HSV agent does not cause chain termination through its mechanism of action? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Famciclovir

    • B. 

      Acyclovir

    • C. 

      Docosonol

    • D. 

      Valacyclovir

  • 6. 
    Which of the following HSV agents would not be considered broad spectrum
    • A. 

      Acyclovir

    • B. 

      Famciclovir

    • C. 

      Valaciclovir

    • D. 

      Docosonol

  • 7. 
    Which of the following agents to treat HSV would not require renal adjustment? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Acylovir parenteral

    • B. 

      Famciclovir

    • C. 

      Docosonol

    • D. 

      Trifluridine

  • 8. 
    Which of the following agents to treat HSV have topical formulations (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Acylovir

    • B. 

      Docosonol

    • C. 

      Trifluridine

    • D. 

      Famciclovir

    • E. 

      Valaciclovir

    • F. 

      Penciclovir

  • 9. 
    Which of the following HSV agents are available IV? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Valacyclovir

    • B. 

      Famciclovir

    • C. 

      Acyclovir

    • D. 

      Penciclovir

  • 10. 
    Which of the following HSV agents produces the most notable CSF penetration?
    • A. 

      Acyclovir

    • B. 

      Valacyclovir

    • C. 

      Penciclovir

    • D. 

      Docosonol

  • 11. 
    Which of the following CMV agents do not require phosphorylation to become active?
    • A. 

      Cidofovir

    • B. 

      Ganciclovir

    • C. 

      Valganciclovir

    • D. 

      Foscarnet

  • 12. 
    Which of the following CMV agents requires probenecid with coadministration?
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 13. 
    Which of the following CMV agents are not available parenterally?
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 14. 
    Which of the following CMV agents are available as an intraocular implant?
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 15. 
    Which of the following CMV agents has activity against HIV reverse transcriptase?
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 16. 
    Which of the following CMV agents are only available IV? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 17. 
    Which of the following CMV agents should be taken with food?
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 18. 
    Which of the following CMV agents can cause electrolyte imbalances that can be reduced or prevented by saline loading?
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 19. 
    Which of the following CMV agent's use is seen primarily in AIDS and transplant patients?
    • A. 

      Ganciclovir

    • B. 

      Valganciclovir

    • C. 

      Foscarnet

    • D. 

      Cidofovir

  • 20. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors is available as an oral solution?
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Darunavir

    • C. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • D. 

      Indinivir

  • 21. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors is not used much as an antiretroviral but more of a pharmacokinetic enhancer?
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Darunavir

    • C. 

      Ritonavir

    • D. 

      Nelfinavir

  • 22. 
    Among the protease inhibitors, ____________ is seen as the least potent inhibitor of CYP3A4 while __________ is seen as the most potent inhibitor of CYP3A4
    • A. 

      Darunavir;Indinavir

    • B. 

      Nelfinavir;Lopinavir

    • C. 

      Lopinavir;Atazanavir

    • D. 

      Saquinavir;Ritonavir

  • 23. 
    Steven Johnsons syndrome is a concern for what protease inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Indinavir

    • C. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • D. 

      Lopinavir

  • 24. 
    Which protease inhibitor requires an acidic medium for its effect?
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • C. 

      Lopinavir

    • D. 

      Nelfinavir

  • 25. 
    QT prolongation is a concern for which protease inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Darunavir

    • B. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • C. 

      Lopinavir

    • D. 

      Ritonavir

  • 26. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors are safe in pregnancy? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Darunavir

    • B. 

      Lopinavir

    • C. 

      Nelfinavir

    • D. 

      Indinavir

  • 27. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors should be taken on an empty stomach?
    • A. 

      Saquinavir

    • B. 

      Atazanavir

    • C. 

      Ritonavir

    • D. 

      Indinavir

  • 28. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors in only formulated with ritonavir?
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • C. 

      Lopinavir

    • D. 

      Indinavir

  • 29. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors should be taken with food?
    • A. 

      Lopinavir

    • B. 

      Saquinavir

    • C. 

      Atazanavir

    • D. 

      Fosamprenavir

  • 30. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors contains Vitamin E in its formulation and thus patients should be counseled to see if they are taking any other Vitamin E supplements
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • C. 

      Lopinavir

    • D. 

      Saquinavir

  • 31. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors contain a sulfonamide moiety and should be used with caution with patients that have sulfa allergy? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Darunavir

    • C. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • D. 

      Indinavir

    • E. 

      Lopinavir

    • F. 

      Nelfinavir

  • 32. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors is both an inducer and inhibitor of CYP3A4?
    • A. 

      Indivinavir

    • B. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • C. 

      Lopinavir

    • D. 

      Atazanavir

  • 33. 
    Hyperbilirubinemia is a concern for which of the following protease inhibitors? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Indinavir

    • C. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • D. 

      Saquinavir

  • 34. 
    Nephrolithiasis is a potential ADR for what protease inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • C. 

      Indinavir

    • D. 

      Ritonavir

  • 35. 
    Which of the following protease inhibitors is valuable for compliance due to its once daily dosing?
    • A. 

      Atazanavir

    • B. 

      Darunavir

    • C. 

      Indinavir

    • D. 

      Lopinavir

  • 36. 
    Which of the following was the first antiretroviral agent?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Acyclovir

    • C. 

      Adefovir

    • D. 

      AZT

  • 37. 
    Which of the following NRTIs contains lactose and is a concern for lactose intolerant patients?
    • A. 

      Zidovudine

    • B. 

      DDI

    • C. 

      Lamivudine

    • D. 

      Tenofovir

  • 38. 
    Which of the following NRTI's can cause hyperpigmentation on the soles of the feet and hands?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Emtricitabine

    • C. 

      AZT

    • D. 

      DDI

  • 39. 
    Myelosuppression is a concern for which of the following NRTI's?
    • A. 

      AZT

    • B. 

      Didanosine

    • C. 

      Abacavir

    • D. 

      Emtricitabine

  • 40. 
    Regular retinal exams are recommended for which of the following NRTI's?
    • A. 

      Zidovudine

    • B. 

      Didadosine

    • C. 

      Lamivudine

    • D. 

      Zalcitabine

  • 41. 
    Which of the following NRTI's should not be administered together with lamivudine?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Emtricitabine

    • C. 

      Stavudine

    • D. 

      Zalcitabine

  • 42. 
    Appearance of insulin resistance and dyslipidemia is a concern for which of the following NRTI's? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Stavudine

    • C. 

      Tenofovir

    • D. 

      Zidovudine

  • 43. 
    Which of the following NRTI's have activity against both HIV and HBV? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
    • A. 

      Lamivudine

    • B. 

      Emtricitabine

    • C. 

      Stavudine

    • D. 

      Tenofovir

    • E. 

      DDI

  • 44. 
    Esophageal ulceration is an ADR concern for which of the following NRTI's?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Emtricitabine

    • C. 

      DDC

    • D. 

      AZT

  • 45. 
    Which of the following NRTI's requires thrice daily dosing?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Zidovudine

    • C. 

      Didanosine

    • D. 

      Zalcitabine

  • 46. 
    Which of the following NRTI's requires a buffered formulation?
    • A. 

      AZT

    • B. 

      DDI

    • C. 

      DDC

    • D. 

      IDK/IDC

  • 47. 
    Which of the following NRTI's is associated with fatal hypersensitivies?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Emtricitabine

    • C. 

      Stavudine

    • D. 

      Zidovudine

  • 48. 
    With which of the following NRTI's do you see good CSF penetration?
    • A. 

      AZT

    • B. 

      DDI

    • C. 

      DDC

    • D. 

      Tenofovir

  • 49. 
    Which of the following NRTI's is dosed once daily?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Didanosine

    • C. 

      Stavudine

    • D. 

      Emtricitabine

  • 50. 
    Possible MI is a concern for which of the following NRTI's?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Didanosine

    • C. 

      Both of these

    • D. 

      Neither of these

  • 51. 
    Which of the following NRTI's should at-risk patients be screened for bone density before using?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Lamivudine

    • C. 

      Tenofovir

    • D. 

      Zidovudine

  • 52. 
    Which of the following NRTI's is coadministered with lamivudine?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      DDI

    • C. 

      AZT

    • D. 

      Stavudine

  • 53. 
    For which of the following NRTI's is peripheral neuropathy a concern?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Emtricitabine

    • C. 

      Lamivudine

    • D. 

      Stavudine

  • 54. 
    Which NRTI is the fluorinated analog of lamivudine?
    • A. 

      Abacavir

    • B. 

      Stavudine

    • C. 

      Emtricitabine

    • D. 

      Tenofovir

  • 55. 
    Which NNRTI has noteworthy once daily dosing?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine

    • B. 

      Efavirenz

    • C. 

      Ertavirine

    • D. 

      Nevirapine

  • 56. 
    Which NNRTI is useful for inhibiting transmission of HIV from mother to child after one dose?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine

    • B. 

      Ertavirine

    • C. 

      Nevirapine

    • D. 

      Rilpivirine

  • 57. 
    For which NNRTI is hyperglycemia a concern?
    • A. 

      Deliviridine

    • B. 

      Ertavirine

    • C. 

      Nevirapine

    • D. 

      Rilpiverine

  • 58. 
    Which NNRTI is notable for causing prolongation of the QT interval?
    • A. 

      Rilpivirine

    • B. 

      Ertavirine

    • C. 

      Efavirenz

    • D. 

      Nevirapine

  • 59. 
    Which NNRTI should be taken on an empty stomach?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine

    • B. 

      Efavirenz

    • C. 

      Ertavirine

    • D. 

      Nevirapine

  • 60. 
    Which two NNRTI's have noteworthy metabolic ADR's?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine/Efavirenz

    • B. 

      Efavirenz/Etravirine

    • C. 

      Ertavirine/Nevirapine

    • D. 

      Ertavirine/Rilpirivine

  • 61. 
    Which NNRTI would cause the greatest fluctuation in free drug concentrations when displaced by another drug?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine

    • B. 

      Efavirenz

    • C. 

      Ertavirine

    • D. 

      Rilpivirine

  • 62. 
    Which two NNRTI's should be avoided in pregnancy?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine

    • B. 

      Efavirenz

    • C. 

      Ertavirine

    • D. 

      Neviripine

    • E. 

      Rilpivirine

  • 63. 
    CNS depressive symptoms are a notable ADR in what NNRTI?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine

    • B. 

      Efavirenz

    • C. 

      Neviripine

    • D. 

      Rilpivirine

  • 64. 
    What is the only parenterally available antiretroviral?
    • A. 

      Docosonol

    • B. 

      Enfuvirtide

    • C. 

      Interferon-alpha

    • D. 

      Maraviroc

  • 65. 
    Which antiretroviral has significant cervicovaginal penetration?
    • A. 

      Rilpivirine

    • B. 

      Abacavir

    • C. 

      Maraviroc

    • D. 

      Zidovudine

  • 66. 
    Myopathy is a concern for which of the following antiretrovirals?
    • A. 

      Delaviridine

    • B. 

      Lamivudine

    • C. 

      Raltegravir

    • D. 

      Rilpivirine

  • 67. 
    Which of the following does not require phosphorylation to become active?
    • A. 

      Ribavirin

    • B. 

      Acylovir

    • C. 

      Nevirapine

    • D. 

      Zalcitabine

  • 68. 
    Which of the following is CYP450 inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Dolutegravir

    • B. 

      Maraviroc

    • C. 

      Saquinivir

    • D. 

      Enfuvirtide

    • E. 

      Lopinavir

  • 69. 
    Which of the following is not a fungal pathogen?
    • A. 

      Aspergillus

    • B. 

      Spirochetes

    • C. 

      Candida

    • D. 

      Coccidoides

  • 70. 
    What is the name of the enzyme that is responsible for the uptake of flucytosine into the fungal cell?
    • A. 

      Thymidylate synthase

    • B. 

      Mycoporinase

    • C. 

      Sterol-demethylase

    • D. 

      Cytosine Permease

  • 71. 
    Due to the risk of infusion related ADR's, a test dose of Amphotericin B is usually given in the form of
    • A. 

      1mg IV

    • B. 

      1g IV

    • C. 

      1mg IM

    • D. 

      1g IM

  • 72. 
    Which of the following azoles is very broad spectrum but would pose a problem with compliance due to how often it is dosed?
    • A. 

      Itraconazole

    • B. 

      Fluconazole

    • C. 

      Voriconazole

    • D. 

      Posaconazole

  • 73. 
    Which of the following antifungals can be used to decrease the levels of adrenal steroid in the body that is overproduced in Cushing's syndrome?
    • A. 

      Terbinafine

    • B. 

      Ketoconazole

    • C. 

      Flucytosine

    • D. 

      Griseofulvin

  • 74. 
    Which antifungal has a potential ADR of visual disturbances?
    • A. 

      Amphotericin B

    • B. 

      Griseofulvin

    • C. 

      Ketoconazole

    • D. 

      Voriconazole

  • 75. 
    Which of the following is not available as an oral azole antifungal?
    • A. 

      Ketoconazole

    • B. 

      Voriconazole

    • C. 

      Miconazole

    • D. 

      Fluconazole

    • E. 

      Itraconazole

  • 76. 
    Which of the following antvirals can also be used to alter dopamine levels in the treatment of parkinsons?
    • A. 

      Ribavirin

    • B. 

      Amantadine

    • C. 

      Boceprevir

    • D. 

      Nelviripine

  • 77. 
    Which of the following would be contraindicated in those that have autoimmune disorders?
    • A. 

      Interferons

    • B. 

      Raltegravir

    • C. 

      Amantadine

    • D. 

      Griseofulvin

  • 78. 
    Which of the following is false concerning antivirals?
    • A. 

      Oseltamivir treats both Influenza A and Influenza B

    • B. 

      Bocepravir is an integrase inhibitor used to treat Hep C

    • C. 

      Palivizumab is given parenterally

    • D. 

      Oseltamivir should be coadministered with food

  • 79. 
    Which of the following agents has an ADR of bronchospasm and should be avoided in patients with asthma?
    • A. 

      Zidovudine

    • B. 

      Zanavmivir

    • C. 

      Zalcitabine

    • D. 

      Palivizumab

  • 80. 
    Which of the following is available in an inhaled formulation? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Ribavirin

    • B. 

      Zanamivir

    • C. 

      Palivizumab

    • D. 

      Imiquimod

  • 81. 
    Which of the following antimalarial agents can cause hypoglycemia?
    • A. 

      Chloroquine

    • B. 

      Quinidine

    • C. 

      Artemether

    • D. 

      Primaquine

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is the drug of choice for extraluminal amebiasis?
    • A. 

      Metronidazole

    • B. 

      Paromomycin

    • C. 

      Doxycycline

    • D. 

      Iodoquinol

  • 83. 
    Which of the following can cause permanent vision loss, particularly in children?
    • A. 

      Metronidazole

    • B. 

      Iodoquinol

    • C. 

      Pentamindine

    • D. 

      Nitazoxanide

  • 84. 
    Which of the following has a potential ADR of red-brown urine?
    • A. 

      Metronidazole

    • B. 

      Iodoquinol

    • C. 

      Pentamidine

    • D. 

      Nitazoxanide

  • 85. 
    Which of the following should patients be counseled to not take with alcohol?
    • A. 

      Metronidazole

    • B. 

      Iodoquinol

    • C. 

      Pentamidine

    • D. 

      Sodium Stiboglutante

  • 86. 
    Which of the following is a protease inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Maraviroc

    • B. 

      Raltegravir

    • C. 

      Boceprevir

    • D. 

      Dolutegravir

  • 87. 
    Which of the following medications inhibit an enzyme?
    • A. 

      Docosonol

    • B. 

      Oseltamivir

    • C. 

      Maraviroc

    • D. 

      2 of the above

    • E. 

      None of the above

  • 88. 
    During a malaria infection in humans, after the schizont (Tissue or Erythrocyte) ruptures, the form of the organism that is released is called a ____________
    • A. 

      Trophozoite

    • B. 

      Merozoite

    • C. 

      Sporozoite

    • D. 

      Gametocyte

  • 89. 
    Which of the following anti-malarials is a CYP2D6 inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Chloroquine

    • B. 

      Quinine

    • C. 

      Atovaquone

    • D. 

      Malarone

  • 90. 
    Which of the following anti-malarials would likely require prescreening for G6PD deficiency before administration?
    • A. 

      Chloroquine

    • B. 

      Mefloquine

    • C. 

      Quinine/Quinidine

    • D. 

      Primaquine

    • E. 

      A and B

    • F. 

      C and D

  • 91. 
    Which antimalarial is also used as an antiarrythmic agent?
    • A. 

      Chloroquine

    • B. 

      Quinidine/Quinine

    • C. 

      Atovaquone

    • D. 

      Artesunate

  • 92. 
    Which of the following drugs would be contraindicated in someone with an iodine allergy?
    • A. 

      Chloroquine

    • B. 

      Mefloquine

    • C. 

      Paromomycin

    • D. 

      Iodoquinol

  • 93. 
    For what inhibitor of mitosis has Steven Johnsons syndrome been reported?
    • A. 

      Fosamprenavir

    • B. 

      Thiabendazole

    • C. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

    • D. 

      Diethylcarbamazine

  • 94. 
    Which of the following drugs are available over the counter?
    • A. 

      Trifluridine

    • B. 

      Docosonol

    • C. 

      Praziquantil

    • D. 

      Pyrantil Pamoate

  • 95. 
    A patient comes into the clinic with a luminal nematode infection. The doctor prescribes albendazole. How should you counsel the patient to take this medication?
    • A. 

      Patient may have green urine

    • B. 

      Take on an empty stomach

    • C. 

      Take with food

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      A and C

  • 96. 
    A patient comes into the clinic with a more severe nematode infection. The doctor prescribes thiabendazole. How should you counsel the patient to take this medication?
    • A. 

      Don't take with calcium chews

    • B. 

      Don't use this medication when pregnant

    • C. 

      A and B

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 97. 
    Which of the antihelminths is particularly effective against lymphatic nematodes?
    • A. 

      Thiabendazoles

    • B. 

      Diethylcarbamazine

    • C. 

      Ivermectin

    • D. 

      Piperazine

  • 98. 
    Which of the following anti-helminthics paralyzes helminthic pharyngeal muscles by decreasing muscle excitability at the neuromuscular junction?
    • A. 

      Piperazine

    • B. 

      Pyrantel pamoate

    • C. 

      Diethylcarbamazine

    • D. 

      Praziquantel

  • 99. 
    Which of the following anti-helminthics is known for the Mazzoti reaction and paralyzes helminthic pharyngeal muscle through hyperpolarization?
    • A. 

      Piperazine

    • B. 

      Ivermectin

    • C. 

      Diethylcarbamazine

    • D. 

      Thiabendazoles

  • 100. 
    A patient is given potassium citrate to maintain long-term urine alkalinization? Which of the following anti-helminthics would you see an increase in half-life due to this treatment?
    • A. 

      Diethylcarbamazine

    • B. 

      Thiabendazoles

    • C. 

      Piperazine

    • D. 

      Praziquantel

  • 101. 
    A patient recently returned from another country and is feeling anxious that they might have ingested a nematode while they were there. While the doctor is running tests he prescribes a benzodiazepine to reduce the patient's anxiety. If the test comes back positive that they have a nematode infection, which anti-helminth agent should not be prescribed to the patient?
    • A. 

      Mebendazole

    • B. 

      Diethylcarbamazine

    • C. 

      Ivermectin

    • D. 

      Praziquantil

  • 102. 
    Which anti-helminthic agent has primary activity against cestodes and trematodes?
    • A. 

      Benzimidazoles

    • B. 

      Praziquantel

    • C. 

      Pyrantil Pamoate

    • D. 

      Piperazine

  • 103. 
    You notice a patient has a prescription for Ivermectin, but when you counsel them you become aware that they don't have a helminth infection. What other indication might they be using this drug for?
    • A. 

      Malaria

    • B. 

      E histolytica

    • C. 

      Lice

    • D. 

      Rabies

  • 104. 
    Which of the following inhibits an enzyme and can be administered inhalationally?
    • A. 

      Pentamidine

    • B. 

      Zanamivir

    • C. 

      Acyclovir

    • D. 

      Artesunate