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Electronics Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    1. (A01) What is the first step in electronic warfare (EW) that is essential when developing an accurate electronic order of battle (EOB)?
    • A. 

      A. Denial

    • B. 

      B. Detection.

    • C. 

      C. Deception

    • D. 

      D. Destruction

  • 2. 
    2. (A01) Traditional noise jamming techniques designed to block communications channels or radarscope presentations are applications of
    • A. 

      A. denial.

    • B. 

      B. deception.

    • C. 

      C. disruption.

    • D. 

      D. destruction.

  • 3. 
    3. (A01) Deliberate radiation, reradiation, alteration, suppression, absorption, denial, enhancement, or reflection of electromagnetic energy to mislead the enemy is called
    • A. 

      A. detection.

    • B. 

      B. deception.

    • C. 

      C. disruption.

    • D. 

      D. destruction.

  • 4. 
    4. (A01) What is the most effective means of denying the enemy the use of the electromagnetic spectrum?
    • A. 

      A. Denial.

    • B. 

      B. Deception.

    • C. 

      C. Disruption

    • D. 

      D. Destruction.

  • 5. 
    5. (A01) What component of electronic warfare (EW) involves the use of electromagnetic, directed energy, or antiradiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment?
    • A. 

      A. Electronic attack (EA).

    • B. 

      B. Electronic support (ES).

    • C. 

      C. Electronic protection (EP).

    • D. 

      D. Electronic counter countermeasures (ECCM).

  • 6. 
    6. (A01) Frequency agility and changing pulse recurring frequency (PRF) are examples of
    • A. 

      A. electronic attack (EA).

    • B. 

      B. electronic support (ES).

    • C. 

      C. electronic protection (EP).

    • D. 

      D. electronic countermeasures (ECCM).sfsfsfsq

  • 7. 
    7. (A01) Electronic support data is not used to produce
    • A. 

      A. signal intelligence.

    • B. 

      B. ballistic intelligence.

    • C. 

      C. electronic intelligence.

    • D. 

      D. communications intelligence.

  • 8. 
    8. (A02) To control an adversary’s command and control (C2) capabilities, command and control warfare (C2W) integrates destruction,
    • A. 

      A. electronic warfare, and military deception only.

    • B. 

      B. electronic warfare, military deception, and operational security.

    • C. 

      C. military deception, operational security, and psychological operations only.

    • D. 

      D. electronic warfare, military deception, operational security, and psychological operations.

  • 9. 
    10. (A02) Using precision-guided munitions, cruise missiles, or gunships is an example of
    • A. 

      A. denial.

    • B. 

      B. disruption.

    • C. 

      C. physical attack.

    • D. 

      D. support systems.

  • 10. 
    12. (A02) Normal suppression of enemy air defense targets include radars for
    • A. 

      A. acquisition, and antiaircraft artillery only.

    • B. 

      B. acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, and surface-to-air (SAM) only.

    • C. 

      C. acquisition and early warning/ground controlled intercept and SAM only.

    • D. 

      D. acquisition, antiaircraft artillery, early warning/ground controlled intercept, and SAM.

  • 11. 
    11. (A02) What support system provides detection and control of low-level aircraft beyond coverage of ground-based radars?
    • A. 

      A. Airborne Warning and Control System (AWACS).

    • B. 

      B. Joint Warning, Command and Control System (JWCCS).

    • C. 

      C. Joint Surveillance, Target Attack Radar System (JSTARS).

    • D. 

      D. Airborne Battlefield Command and Control Center (ABCCC).

  • 12. 
    13. (A02) What surface-to-air missile (SAM) system in North Vietnam was devastating to our strike forces?
    • A. 

      A. SA–1.

    • B. 

      A. SA–2

    • C. 

      A. SA–3

    • D. 

      A. SA–4

  • 13. 
    9. (A02) Degrading or interfering with the enemy’s command and control (C2) capabilities is best described by
    • A. 

      A. denial.

    • B. 

      B. disruption.

    • C. 

      C. physical attack.

    • D. 

      D. support systems.

  • 14. 
    14. (A02) What weapon is designed to home in on enemy emitters and disrupt or destroy an integrated air defense system?
    • A. 

      A. Wild Weasel.

    • B. 

      B. Cruise missile.

    • C. 

      C. Anti-radiation missile.

    • D. 

      D. Joint Surveillance, Target Attack Radar System.

  • 15. 
    15. (A03) What division of electronic warfare (EW) involves weapons that use electromagnetic or directed energy as their primary destructive mechanism?
    • A. 

      A. Electronic attack.

    • B. 

      B. Electronic support.

    • C. 

      C. Electronic detection.

    • D. 

      D. Electronic protection.

  • 16. 
    16. (A03) The primary missile used to destroy enemy radar-equipped air defense systems is the
    • A. 

      A. AGM–65.

    • B. 

      B. AGM–8

    • C. 

      C. BDU–65.

    • D. 

      D. BDU–88.

  • 17. 
    19. (A03) What type of jamming masks the presence and/or location of the strike force?
    • A. 

      A. Standoff.

    • B. 

      B. Directional.

    • C. 

      C. Destruction.

    • D. 

      D. Communications.

  • 18. 
    18. (A03) What missile uses an electro-optical or infrared imaging system to perform electronic attack (EA)?
    • A. 

      A. AGM–65.

    • B. 

      B. AGM–88.

    • C. 

      C. BDU–65.

    • D. 

      D. BDU–88.

  • 19. 
    20. (A03) What aircraft is used to jam communications of the enemy’s command and control (C2) network?
    • A. 

      A. E–6B.

    • B. 

      B. EF–111.

    • C. 

      C. F–16CJ.

    • D. 

      D. EC–130H.

  • 20. 
    17. (A03) What Air Force aircraft is used to perform the Wild Weasel mission?
    • A. 

      A. EA–6B.

    • B. 

      B. EF–111.

    • C. 

      C. F/A–18.

    • D. 

      D. F–16CJ.

  • 21. 
    25. (A04) Any disturbance that interrupts, obstructs, degrades, or limits the effective performance of electronics or equipment is best described as
    • A. 

      A. electromagnetic pulse.

    • B. 

      B. electromagnetic hardening.

    • C. 

      C. electronic counter-countermeasures.

    • D. 

      D. electromagnetic interference.

  • 22. 
    21. (A03) Transmitting a simulated unique system signature from a nonlethal platform is an example of
    • A. 

      A. imitative deception.

    • B. 

      B. imitative reception.

    • C. 

      C. simulative deception.

    • D. 

      D. manipulative deception.

  • 23. 
    24. (A04) The processes and actions necessary to protect your equipment from the effects of an electromagnetic pulse produced by an atomic blast is best described as
    • A. 

      A. emissions control.

    • B. 

      B. electromagnetic hardening.

    • C. 

      C. electromagnetic compatibility.

    • D. 

      D. early warning frequency deconfliction.

  • 24. 
    22. (A03) A repeater jamming technique that copies enemy radar pulses and returns incorrect target information to the enemy radar is an example of
    • A. 

      A. imitative deception.

    • B. 

      B. imitative reception.

    • C. 

      C. simulative deception.

    • D. 

      D. manipulative deception.

  • 25. 
    30. (A06) What Air Force aircraft is used extensively to collect electronic intelligence (ELINT) and communications intelligence (COMINT) data?
    • A. 

      A. E–6B.

    • B. 

      B. EC–130H.

    • C. 

      C. KC–135R.

    • D. 

      D. RC–135V/W.

  • 26. 
    32. (A06) What electronic intelligence (ELINT) equipment is used to determine the location of emitters?
    • A. 

      A. Pulse analyzer.

    • B. 

      B. Direction finder

    • C. 

      C. Spectrum analyzer.

    • D. 

      D. Panoramic receiver.

  • 27. 
    29. (A05) What electronic support (ES) equipment provides antenna scan-type, scan rate, pulse recurrence frequency, pulse width, and pulse shape?
    • A. 

      A. Oscilloscope.

    • B. 

      B. Pulse analyzer.

    • C. 

      C. Spectrum analyzer.

    • D. 

      D. Panoramic receiver.

  • 28. 
    27. (A05) What are electronic warfare (EW) reconnaissance crews called?
    • A. 

      A. Crows.

    • B. 

      B. Ferrets.

    • C. 

      C. Sparks.

    • D. 

      D. Ravens.

  • 29. 
    31. (A06) What major subdivision of signal intelligence (SIGINT) collects and processes data on radar?
    • A. 

      A. Photo intelligence (PHOTINT).

    • B. 

      B. Electronic intelligence (ELINT).

    • C. 

      C. Human intelligence (HUMINT).

    • D. 

      D. Communications intelligence (COMINT).

  • 30. 
    23. (A04) The steps taken to limit the incidental or accidental emissions from electronic equipment is best described as
    • A. 

      A. electronic attack.

    • B. 

      B. emissions control.

    • C. 

      C. electromagnetic hardening.

    • D. 

      D. electronic counter countermeasures.

  • 31. 
    26. (A05) The steps taken to locate the intentional and unintentional emissions from radar equipment is best described as
    • A. 

      A. electronic attack.

    • B. 

      B. electronic support

    • C. 

      C. electronic protection.

    • D. 

      D. electronic management.

  • 32. 
    28. (A05) Which piece of equipment is considered the heart of the electronic support system?
    • A. 

      A. Pulse analyzer.

    • B. 

      B. Cathode-ray tube.

    • C. 

      C. Spectrum analyzer.

    • D. 

      D. Panoramic receiver.

  • 33. 
    38. (A08) The radar’s ability to separate targets into individual returns that are close together is called
    • A. 

      A. azimuth.

    • B. 

      B. elevation.

    • C. 

      C. definition.

    • D. 

      D. resolution.

  • 34. 
    40. (A09) What range of coverage does the radar warning receiver’s (RWR) antennas provide?
    • A. 

      A. 45°.

    • B. 

      B. 90°.

    • C. 

      C. 180°.

    • D. 

      D. 360°.

  • 35. 
    39. (A08) When determining a radar’s azimuth, the
    • A. 

      A. wider the horizontal beamwidth (HBW), the poorer the resolution.

    • B. 

      B. wider the vertical beamwidth (VBW), the greater the resolution.

    • C. 

      C. narrower the HBW, the poorer the resolution.

    • D. 

      D. narrower the VBW, the greater the resolution.

  • 36. 
    44. (A10) What three properties are common to both visible and infrared (IR) light?
    • A. 

      A. Frequency, reflection, refraction.

    • B. 

      B. Absorption, reflection, refraction.

    • C. 

      C. Frequency, absorption, refraction.

    • D. 

      D. Absorption, frequency, reflection.

  • 37. 
    43. (A09) What component of the radar warning receiver (RWR) selects the mode of operation?
    • A. 

      A. Scope.

    • B. 

      B. Signal processor.

    • C. 

      C. Receiver/amplifier.

    • D. 

      D. Interface control unit.

  • 38. 
    42. (A09) The radar warning receiver (RWR) does not provide signal
    • A. 

      A. relative location.

    • B. 

      B. identification.

    • C. 

      C. frequency.

    • D. 

      D. amplitude.

  • 39. 
    37. (A08) What radar display indicator displays range or velocity?
    • A. 

      A. A scope.

    • B. 

      B. B scope.

    • C. 

      C. Range height.

    • D. 

      D. Plan position.

  • 40. 
    35. (A07) How long does it take radio frequency (RF) energy to travel a radar mile?
    • A. 

      A. 24.72μ.

    • B. 

      B. 18.54μ.

    • C. 

      C. 12.36μ

    • D. 

      D. 6.18μ.

  • 41. 
    34. (A07) The angle of incidence required to get a reflection back to the source is
    • A. 

      A. 30°.

    • B. 

      A. 45°.

    • C. 

      A. 90°.

    • D. 

      A. 120°.

  • 42. 
    36. (A08) What unit of a pulse radar provides the pulse recurrence frequency (PRF) of the radar?
    • A. 

      A. Modulator.

    • B. 

      B. Master timer.

    • C. 

      C. Power amplifier.

    • D. 

      D. Waveform generator.

  • 43. 
    33. (A07) Which military frequency band designator denotes a frequency range higher than the others?
    • A. 

      A. Echo.

    • B. 

      B. Golf.

    • C. 

      C. Charlie.

    • D. 

      D. Foxtrot.

  • 44. 
    41. (A09) What component of the radar warning receiver (RWR) identifies radar signals?
    • A. 

      A. Antenna.

    • B. 

      B. Signal processor.

    • C. 

      C. Control indicator.

    • D. 

      D. Receiver/amplifier.

  • 45. 
    45. (A10) The amount of infrared (IR) energy emitted by an object is
    • A. 

      A. double the object’s absolute Kelvin temperature.

    • B. 

      B. equal to the object’s absolute Kelvin temperature.

    • C. 

      C. directly proportional to the fourth power of the object’s absolute temperature.

    • D. 

      D. indirectly proportional to the fourth power of the object’s absolute temperature.

  • 46. 
    46. (A10) What is the emissivity factor of a theoretical black body?
    • A. 

      A. 0.5.

    • B. 

      B. 0.8.

    • C. 

      C. 1.0.

    • D. 

      D. 1.2.

  • 47. 
    47. (A10) What infrared (IR) detector device requires a bias current or voltage to operate?
    • A. 

      A. Photovoltaic.

    • B. 

      Photographic.

    • C. 

      C. Photoemissive.

    • D. 

      D. Photoconductive.

  • 48. 
    48. (A10) In relation to land and water, thermal crossover indicates both objects
    • A. 

      A. have sharp contrasts.

    • B. 

      B. exchange infrared energy.

    • C. 

      C. with the same temperature

    • D. 

      D. with different temperatures.

  • 49. 
    49. (A11) Most infrared (IR) missiles operate in the region of
    • A. 

      A. 1 to 5 microns.

    • B. 

      B. 6 to 10 microns.

    • C. 

      C. 7 to 12 microns.

    • D. 

      D. 10 to 15 microns.

  • 50. 
    50. (A11) What area of the aircraft will have the least infrared (IR) signature?
    • A. 

      A. Plume.

    • B. 

      B. Engine.

    • C. 

      C. Skin.

    • D. 

      D. Engine afterburner.

  • 51. 
    51. (A11) What infrared (IR) seeker generates a frequency-modulated signal directly proportional to the amount of target displacement from the center of the seeker scan?
    • A. 

      A. Spin.

    • B. 

      B. Image.

    • C. 

      C. Staring.

    • D. 

      D. Conical.

  • 52. 
    52. (A11) What infrared (IR) seeker uses many detectors and each one detects a small portion of a scene?
    • A. 

      A. Staring.

    • B. 

      B. Scanning.

    • C. 

      C. Chopping.

    • D. 

      D. Spinning.

  • 53. 
    53. (A12) The primary countermeasure to defeat infrared (IR) missiles is
    • A. 

      A. maneuvering into the sun.

    • B. 

      B. deploying a self-protection flare.

    • C. 

      C. releasing smoke into the engine exhaust.

    • D. 

      D. jamming by an active infrared countermeasures system.

  • 54. 
    54. (A12) An effective infrared countermeasures (IRCM) tactic by using the natural environment is
    • A. 

      A. ejection of flares.

    • B. 

      B. maneuvering into the sun.

    • C. 

      C. reducing the engine power setting.

    • D. 

      D. introducing smoke into engine exhaust.

  • 55. 
    55. (A12) What infrared countermeasures (IRCM) tactic is used to reduce an engine infrared (IR) signature?
    • A. 

      A. Ejection of flares.

    • B. 

      B. Maneuvering into the sun.

    • C. 

      C. Jamming by an IRCM system.

    • D. 

      D. Introducing smoke into engine exhaust.

  • 56. 
    56. (A12) Using a modulated high intensity infrared (IR) energy to break an IR missile’s lock, is an example of
    • A. 

      A. use of the natural environment.

    • B. 

      B. active infrared countermeasures.

    • C. 

      C. passive infrared countermeasures.

    • D. 

      D. introduction of smoke into engine exhaust.

  • 57. 
    57. (A13) In what frequency region do the missile approach warning systems (MAWS) operate?
    • A. 

      A. Radio.

    • B. 

      B. Gamma.

    • C. 

      C. Infrared.

    • D. 

      D. Visible light.

  • 58. 
    58. (A13) What feature of a missile approach warning systems (MAWS) relates to timeliness?
    • A. 

      A. Low false alarm rate.

    • B. 

      B. Accurate threat positioning reporting.

    • C. 

      C. Multiple false targets due to maneuvers.

    • D. 

      D. Rapid identification of infrared missile threats.

  • 59. 
    60. (A13) What is one disadvantage of active missile approach warning system (MAWS)?
    • A. 

      A. It operates only in the ultraviolet frequency spectrum.

    • B. 

      B. It is unable to pull targets out of clutter.

    • C. 

      C. Can be tracked by passive detection.

    • D. 

      D. It uses Pulse Doppler radar.

  • 60. 
    59. (A13) What feature of a missile approach warning systems (MAWS) relates to reliability?
    • A. 

      A. Low false alarm rate.

    • B. 

      B. Automatic dispensing of flares.

    • C. 

      C. Rapid identification of infrared (IR) missile threat.

    • D. 

      D. Continuous radiation to ward off threats.

  • 61. 
    61. (A13) The advantage of a passive missile approach warning system (MAWS) is
    • A. 

      A. it uses Pulse Doppler radar.

    • B. 

      B. the ability to pull targets out of clutter.

    • C. 

      C. continuous radiation to ward off threats.

    • D. 

      D. the system is tuned to look for infrared (IR) signature of missile’s exhaust plume.

  • 62. 
    62. (A14) When a photon causes the release of another photon, it is called
    • A. 

      A. stimulated emission.

    • B. 

      B. population inversion.

    • C. 

      C. spontaneous emission.

    • D. 

      D. population conversion.

  • 63. 
    63. (A14) Monochromatic, in relationship to laser theory, means single
    • A. 

      A. emitter.

    • B. 

      B. frequency.

    • C. 

      C. impact point.

    • D. 

      D. chronological mirror.

  • 64. 
    64. (A14) What region of the frequency spectrum is Air Force (AF) aircraft laser sensors used?
    • A. 

      A. Radio.

    • B. 

      B. Infrared.

    • C. 

      C. Ultraviolet.

    • D. 

      D. Visible light.

  • 65. 
    65. (A14) The relationship between a laser’s coherency and bandwidth is
    • A. 

      A. none.

    • B. 

      B. proportional.

    • C. 

      C. inversely proportional.

    • D. 

      D. logarithmically proportional.

  • 66. 
    66. (A14) When white light is compared to laser light,Which one do you like?
    • A. 

      A. laser light has a wider bandwidth than white light.

    • B. 

      B. white light has a wider bandwidth than laser light.

    • C. 

      C. laser light has the same bandwidth as white light.

    • D. 

      D. white light has a narrower bandwidth than laser light.

  • 67. 
    67. (A15) What is not a battlefield usage of the laser?
    • A. 

      A. Target ranging and designation.

    • B. 

      B. Contrail detection

    • C. 

      C. Guided weapon.

    • D. 

      D. Acquisition.

  • 68. 
    68. (A15) The laser danger zone for direct beam viewing extends over an extremely
    • A. 

      A. long distance because the beam spreads so little.

    • B. 

      B. short distance because the beam spreads so little.

    • C. 

      C. long distance because the beam spreads so wide.

    • D. 

      D. short distance because the beam spreads so wide.

  • 69. 
    69. (A15) Specular laser reflections from flat objects like mirrors, window glass, and reflectors on vehicle tail lights have
    • A. 

      A. no minimum safe range.

    • B. 

      B. a decreased minimum safe range.

    • C. 

      C. an increased minimum safe range.

    • D. 

      D. the same minimum safe range as direct viewing.

  • 70. 
    70. (A16) In what altitude range are contrails most likely to form?
    • A. 

      A. 10,000 to 25,000 ft.

    • B. 

      B. 15,000 to 35,000 ft

    • C. 

      C. 20,000 to 35,000 ft.

    • D. 

      D. 25,000 to 40,000 ft.

  • 71. 
    71. (A16) How many major components make up the Pilot Alert System (PAS)?
    • A. 

      A. 1.

    • B. 

      B. 2

    • C. 

      C. 5.

    • D. 

      D. 7.

  • 72. 
    72. (A16) What technology does the Pilot Alert System (PAS) employ to detect contrail from the #3 engine exhaust?
    • A. 

      A. Laser.

    • B. 

      B. Acoustic.

    • C. 

      C. Microwave.

    • D. 

      D. Millimeter wave.

  • 73. 
    73. (A16) In which mode of operation does Pilot Alert System (PAS) search for contrails?
    • A. 

      A. Initialize.

    • B. 

      B. Standby.

    • C. 

      C. Tuning.

    • D. 

      D. Detect.

  • 74. 
    74. (A17) Each strip of chaff is a dipole reflector that is cut to
    • A. 

      A. one-quarter the wavelength of the radar’s frequency.

    • B. 

      B. one-half the wavelength of the radar’s frequency.

    • C. 

      C. equal the wavelength of radar’s frequency.

    • D. 

      D. double the wavelength of radar’s frequency.

  • 75. 
    75. (A17) What chaff characteristic is the length of time that chaff is at an effective altitude?
    • A. 

      A. Bloom rate.

    • B. 

      B. Persistence.

    • C. 

      C. Radar cross section.

    • D. 

      D. Frequency coverage.

  • 76. 
    76. (A17) What chaff dispensing tactic confuses radar operators with multiple false targets?
    • A. 

      A. Area saturation.

    • B. 

      B. Self-protection.

    • C. 

      C. Preplanned burst.

    • D. 

      D. Corridor operation.

  • 77. 
    77. (A17) The chaff tactic that dispenses large quantities of chaff in a continuous ribbon is called
    • A. 

      A. area saturation.

    • B. 

      B. self-protection.

    • C. 

      C. preplanned burst.

    • D. 

      D. corridor operation.

  • 78. 
    78. (A17) What type of radar is self-protection chaff tactic used that causes errors in the azimuth, elevation, and range tracking circuits?
    • A. 

      A. Doppler.

    • B. 

      B. Monopulse

    • C. 

      C. Conical scan.

    • D. 

      D. Track-while-scan.

  • 79. 
    79. (A17) Against what type of radar is self-protection chaff tactics the least effective?
    • A. 

      A. Doppler.

    • B. 

      B. Monopulse.

    • C. 

      C. Conical scan.

    • D. 

      D. Track-while-scan.

  • 80. 
    80. (A18) What type of threat are flares used to counter?
    • A. 

      A. Infrared missiles.

    • B. 

      B. Radar guided missiles.

    • C. 

      C. Ground tracking radars.

    • D. 

      D. Terminal defense radars.

  • 81. 
    81. (A18) What important tactic must be performed with flare deployment to effectively defeat infrared threats?
    • A. 

      A. Deception jamming.

    • B. 

      B. Evasive maneuver.

    • C. 

      C. Noise jamming.

    • D. 

      D. Chaff.

  • 82. 
    82. (A18) A typical flare cartridge is composed of magnesium and tetraflouroethylene and burns at
    • A. 

      A. 1000 to 1200 °K.

    • B. 

      B. 2000 to 2200 °K

    • C. 

      C. 3000 to 3200 °K.

    • D. 

      D. 4000 to 4200 °K.

  • 83. 
    83. (A18) What affect does rise time have on a flare decoying an infrared missile?
    • A. 

      A. Flare burns shorter at high altitude, but takes much shorter to reach peak intensity.

    • B. 

      B. Flare burns shorter at high altitude, but takes much longer to reach peak intensity.

    • C. 

      C. Flare burns longer at high altitude, but takes much shorter to reach peak intensity.

    • D. 

      D. Flare burns longer at high altitude, but takes much longer to reach peak intensity.

  • 84. 
    84. (A18) What flare characteristic determines how far the infrared (IR) seeker will be pulled off the target?
    • A. 

      A. Rise time.

    • B. 

      B. Burn time.

    • C. 

      C. Peak intensity.

    • D. 

      D. Wavelength match.

  • 85. 
    85. (A18) What type of flare does not leave a visual signature such as smoke or flame?
    • A. 

      A. Covert.

    • B. 

      B. Kinematic.

    • C. 

      C. Pyrotechnic.

    • D. 

      D. Conventional.

  • 86. 
    86. (A19) A spectrum analyzer is a receiver, with the output of a
    • A. 

      A. paper chart printer.

    • B. 

      B. signal indicating board.

    • C. 

      C. audio monitoring speaker.

    • D. 

      D. cathode-ray tube display instead of a speaker.

  • 87. 
    87. (A19) What indicates the relative signal strength of the received radio frequency (RF) signal?
    • A. 

      A. Horizontal deflection of the trace.

    • B. 

      B. Vertical deflection of the trace.

    • C. 

      C. Span per division.

    • D. 

      D. Center frequency.

  • 88. 
    88. (A19) The span of the display, on a spectrum analyzer, is the size of the band of frequencies that are displayed and adjusted with the
    • A. 

      A. FREQUENCY control.

    • B. 

      B. MIN/RF ATTEN control.

    • C. 

      C. FREQUENCY SPAN control.

    • D. 

      D. REFERENCE LEVEL control.

  • 89. 
    89. (A20) How many operating modes does the pulse generator have?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 90. 
    90. (A20) On the pulse generator, selection of NORM mode produces
    • A. 

      A. a gated trigger output.

    • B. 

      B. a single trigger output.

    • C. 

      C. a continuous pulse output.

    • D. 

      D. an intermittent pulse output.

  • 91. 
    91. (A20) What mode generates a preselected number of pulses from 1 to 1999?
    • A. 

      A. E.BUR.

    • B. 

      B. E.WID.

    • C. 

      C. GATE.

    • D. 

      D. TRIG.

  • 92. 
    92. (A20) The four control modes allow you to vary the output
    • A. 

      A. time only.

    • B. 

      B. period only.

    • C. 

      C. frequency only.

    • D. 

      D. pulse characteristics.

  • 93. 
    93. (A21) The Multipurpose Electro-Optical end-to-end tester (MEON) sources are harmful to eyes and skin at ranges less than
    • A. 

      A. 3 feet

    • B. 

      B. 5 feet.

    • C. 

      C. 10 feet.

    • D. 

      D. 15 feet.

  • 94. 
    94. (A21) While the Multipurpose Electro-Optical end-to-end tester (MEON) laser is or may be operating, approved eyewear must be worn within the nominal hazard zone of
    • A. 

      A. 75 feet.

    • B. 

      B. 123 feet.

    • C. 

      C. 187 feet

    • D. 

      D. 207 feet.

  • 95. 
    95. (A22) What is the frequency range of the PLM−4 Radar simulator?
    • A. 

      A. 0.5 to 18.0 GHz.

    • B. 

      B. 5.0 to 18.0 GHz.

    • C. 

      C. 0.5 to 28.0 GHz.

    • D. 

      D. 5.0 to 28.0 GHz.

  • 96. 
    96. (A22) What does the radar signal simulator require for frequency stability?
    • A. 

      A. A/C power.

    • B. 

      B. D/C power.

    • C. 

      C. System warm up.

    • D. 

      D. Internal Batteries.

  • 97. 
    97. (A23) What test equipment is used to check the aircraft expendables (chaff and flare) systems?
    • A. 

      A. Spectrum analyzer.

    • B. 

      B. Radar simulator set.

    • C. 

      C. Countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT).

    • D. 

      D. Radiofrequency transmission line test set (RFTLTS).

  • 98. 
    98. (A23) The specific type of payload and magazine presence are simulated by
    • A. 

      A. fastening pins.

    • B. 

      B. a safety interlock.

    • C. 

      C. a breechplate adapter.

    • D. 

      D. coding plunger pins.

  • 99. 
    99. (A23) The countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) performs all of the following test functions except
    • A. 

      A. FIRE.

    • B. 

      B. JETTISON.

    • C. 

      C. RESET ALE−45.

    • D. 

      D. STRAY VOLTAGE.

  • 100. 
    100. (A23) What countermeasures dispenser tester (CDT) functional check measures the firing pulse amplitude and pulse duration?
    • A. 

      A. Fire.

    • B. 

      B. Misfire.

    • C. 

      C. Jettison.

    • D. 

      D. Stray voltage.

  • 101. 
    101. (A24) Which message describes the impact of threat changes on an electronic warfare (EW) system?
    • A. 

      A. System impact message.

    • B. 

      B. Reprogramming impact message.

    • C. 

      C. Time compliance technical order.

    • D. 

      D. Maintenance instruction message.

  • 102. 
    102. (A24) What describes in detail how an Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) change affects an Electronic Warfare (EW) system?
    • A. 

      A. System impact message.

    • B. 

      B. Reprogramming impact message.

    • C. 

      C. Time compliance technical order.

    • D. 

      D. Maintenance instruction message.

  • 103. 
    103. (A24) The software that contains algorithms, that receive, identify, process, and do jamming tasks is the
    • A. 

      A. mission data file.

    • B. 

      B. code form message.

    • C. 

      C. operational flight program

    • D. 

      D. emitter identification data.

  • 104. 
    104. (A24) What notifies units to upload a specific Electronic Warfare (EW) software change?
    • A. 

      A. Unit loading message.

    • B. 

      B. Implementation message.

    • C. 

      C. Time compliance technical order.

    • D. 

      D. Maintenance instruction message.

  • 105. 
    105. (A25) What is not a part of the Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) exercise?
    • A. 

      A. Smooth flow of information during crisis.

    • B. 

      B. Evaluation of routine operational change request.

    • C. 

      C. Readiness in response to threat parameter changes.

    • D. 

      D. Training of operations, intelligence, communications, and maintenance personnel.

  • 106. 
    106. (A25) What category of exercise evaluates the entire Electronic Warfare Integrated Reprogramming (EWIR) process?
    • A. 

      A. Locally directed.

    • B. 

      B. Air Force directed.

    • C. 

      C. MAJCOM directed.

    • D. 

      D. Maintenance directed.

  • 107. 
    107. (A25) Which of the following is an Air Force reprogramming exercise?
    • A. 

      A. BRAVE BYTE.

    • B. 

      B. PROUD BYTE.

    • C. 

      C. SERENE BYTE.

    • D. 

      D. NEPTUNE BYTE.

  • 108. 
    108. (A25) What two primary reprogramming exercises will you probably be involved in?
    • A. 

      A. BRAVE BYTE and PROUD BYTE.

    • B. 

      B. PROUD BYTE and SERENE BYTE.

    • C. 

      C. SERENE BYTE and PACER WARE.

    • D. 

      D. NEPTUNE BYTE and PACER WARE.

  • 109. 
    109. (A26) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) uses what type of computer?
    • A. 

      A. Ruggedized laptop.

    • B. 

      B. Solid-state personal computer.

    • C. 

      C. Ruggedized personal data assistant.

    • D. 

      D. Portable unit with programmable cartridge.

  • 110. 
    110. (A26) The common aircraft portable reprogramming equipment (CAPRE) is powered by a(n)
    • A. 

      A. alkaline battery only.

    • B. 

      B. lithium-Ion battery only.

    • C. 

      C. AC adapter and alkaline battery.

    • D. 

      D. AC adapter and lithium-Ion battery.

  • 111. 
    111. (A26) Which is a DOD-owned network approved for classified data transfer?
    • A. 

      A. SIPRNET.

    • B. 

      B. NIPRNET.

    • C. 

      C. INTERNET.

    • D. 

      D. INTRANET.