King Air 350i

138 Preguntas

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Electronic Quizzes & Trivia

Procedimientos Normales, Anormales y Sistemas


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Electrical power for the Emergency Exit Signs are provided through
    • A. 

      Battery bus

    • B. 

      Triple fed bus

    • C. 

      Dual fed bus

    • D. 

      Four C-cell alkaline batteries

  • 2. 
    To open the emergency exit from the inside, pull down on the "Exit-Pull" handle
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 3. 
    What normally terminates an engine start sequence?
    • A. 

      Motive flow pressure switch

    • B. 

      Strart disengage button

    • C. 

      Start switch moved to OFF at 50% N1

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      No loss of aircraft flight instruments or data

    • B. 

      No adverse condition as the 350 has no inverters for AC avionics systems

    • C. 

      A red warning annunciator and loss of appropiate AC bus equipment

  • 5. 
    What does illumination of a single GEN TIE OPEN annunciator indicate?
    • A. 

      A generator is offline

    • B. 

      Respective generator bus has been isolated from center bus

    • C. 

      Battery has been completely isolated

  • 6. 
    The entry light circuit powers the cockpit emergency lights which is powered by the  _______ bus
    • A. 

      Battery

    • B. 

      Triple fed

    • C. 

      Dual fed

    • D. 

      Either battery or dual fed

  • 7. 
    Normal generator voltaje is __________ VDC
    • A. 

      24.0

    • B. 

      28.25 +- .25

    • C. 

      28.75

  • 8. 
    Generator load is limited to ____________ percent during ground operations below 70% N1
    • A. 

      75

    • B. 

      88

    • C. 

      100

  • 9. 
    With th ebattery switch OFF and the battery bus switch EMER OFF, what should the battery bus voltaje read?
    • A. 

      24 VDC

    • B. 

      Battery volts

    • C. 

      0 volts

  • 10. 
    What are the three sources from which the triple fed bus receives voltaje?
    • A. 

      Battery, left & right generator buses

    • B. 

      Center bus, left &right generator buses

    • C. 

      Triple fed relay, left & right generator bus ties

  • 11. 
    The battery bus voltaje with the battery switch in the OFF position can still be read on the voltmeter with the voltmeter selector switch in the battery position.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 12. 
    The EXT POWER annunciator flashes with a GPU voltaje low or the GPU is electrically disconnected fron the aircraft.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 13. 
    Placing the BAT BUS switch in EMER OFF will open the battery relay, BAT tie and the RCCB.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 14. 
    The White LDG/TAXI advisory light indicates which of the following?
    • A. 

      The landing and taxi lights should be switched on for landing

    • B. 

      At least one of the three landing and taxi lights switches are ON, and the nose gear uplock switch is engaged

    • C. 

      At least one of the three landing and taxi lights are burned out.

  • 15. 
    The cabin headliner lights will illuminate full-bright when oxygen pressure is supplied to the passenger masks.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 16. 
    The PT6 used in the King Air 350 is described as a ___________________ engine.
    • A. 

      Reverse-flow, free turbine.

    • B. 

      Turboshaft

    • C. 

      Free-flow, reverse-turbine, horizontally opposed

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 17. 
    The conpressor bleed valve is closed above approximately _______________% N1
    • A. 

      97.8

    • B. 

      60.5

    • C. 

      90.0

  • 18. 
    When should engine oil be checked for an accurate quantity Reading?
    • A. 

      During preflight inspection

    • B. 

      Within 15-20 minutes after engine shutdown

    • C. 

      Within 30 minutes after engine shutdown

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 19. 
    What is the máximum ITT allowed during engine start with no inspection required?
    • A. 

      1,090°F for 5 seconds

    • B. 

      820°C - 850°C for 20 seconds

    • C. 

      1,000°C for 5 seconds

  • 20. 
    If the start swich is left in the IGNITION and ENGINE START position, which of the following cannot be activated?
    • A. 

      Auxiliary fuel transfer

    • B. 

      Auto-ignition

    • C. 

      Generator

    • D. 

      Auxiliary fuel transfer and generator

  • 21. 
    Which of the following engine limitations are correct?
    • A. 

      156% transient torque for 20 seconds

    • B. 

      ITT above 850°C. for 20 seconds transient and 1,000°C. for 5 seconds during start

    • C. 

      60 PSI mínimum oil pressure at a máximum 62% torque

    • D. 

      785°C máximum cruise climb ITT

    • E. 

      104% máximum N1

    • F. 

      All of the above

  • 22. 
    Below 1,000 propeller RPM, torque is limited to 62%
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 23. 
    Oil pressure between 60 and 90 PSI should be tolerated only for completion of the flight and torque limited to 62%
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 24. 
    Placing the test switch in the DET position illuminates the
    • A. 

      EXTENGUISHER PUSH switch lights

    • B. 

      ENGINE FIRE switch lights

    • C. 

      Both of the above

  • 25. 
    A portable fire extinguisher is in the cockpit
    • A. 

      Under the copilot's seat

    • B. 

      Under the pilot's seat

    • C. 

      Behind the copilot's seat

  • 26. 
    A portable cabin fire extinguisher is located
    • A. 

      Under the foremost right seat

    • B. 

      On the lower section of the divider

    • C. 

      Near the main cabin door

  • 27. 
    A loss the boyh DC generators does not affect the engine fire warning and extinghishing system, as long as the battery is charged
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 28. 
    Both the fuel and hydraulic firewall shutoff valves are closed when the EXTINGUISHER PUSH annunciators illuminate
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 29. 
    What is used as a variable forcé to counteract the spring-fixed forcé to adjust propeller blade-angle?
    • A. 

      Bleed air

    • B. 

      Hydraulic fluid

    • C. 

      Governor boosted engine oil

  • 30. 
    What will occur with a failure of the primary governor oil pump?
    • A. 

      A. Propeller overspeed

    • B. 

      B. Propeller feathers

    • C. 

      Either a or b depending on circumstances

  • 31. 
    What mechanism controls propeller speed in the event the propeller becomes fixed-pitch?
    • A. 

      Overspeed governor

    • B. 

      Fuel-topping governor

    • C. 

      Primary governor

  • 32. 
    The prop levers control propeller speed in what range?
    • A. 

      1,450 - 1,700

    • B. 

      1,000 - 1,400

    • C. 

      0 - 1,700

  • 33. 
    The autofeathe arming system is completed when the power levers are positioned above approximately ________ N1
    • A. 

      60%

    • B. 

      104%

    • C. 

      88%

  • 34. 
    Mínimum propeller RPM is 1,050 due to adverse vibrational characteristics
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 35. 
    PROP PITCH annunciators are provided to inforn the pilot of a propeller blade angle of more than 8° below flight idle low pitch stop
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 36. 
    Máximum propeller reverse RPM is 1,650
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 37. 
    The fuel topping governor will limit reverse RPM to 95% of the selected RPM
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 38. 
    Autofeather system is primary intended for use during takeoff and landing. It should be armed until the aircraft reaches cruise altitude.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 39. 
    The respective L/R FUEL QTY annunciator illuminates when the associated nacelle quantity decreases to approximately ________
    • A. 

      600 U.S gallons

    • B. 

      365 lbs

    • C. 

      300 lbs

  • 40. 
    The jet transfer pump normally receive motive flow fuel from what source?
    • A. 

      Electric boost pump

    • B. 

      Transfer ejector pumps

    • C. 

      Engine-driven boost pumps

  • 41. 
    The CROSSFEED valve illuminates when the _____________
    • A. 

      A. Crossfeed valve is in the open position

    • B. 

      B. Motive flow valve cycles from one position to another

    • C. 

      C. Crossfeed switch is placed either left or right

    • D. 

      D. Both a and c

  • 42. 
    Máximum fuel imbalance is ____________ pounds
    • A. 

      300

    • B. 

      1,000

    • C. 

      100

  • 43. 
    Illumination of the FUEL PRESS LO warning annunciator is an indication of a posible engine-driven boost pump failure
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 44. 
    Operation during illumination of the NO FUEL XFR caution annunciator is limited to 10 hours
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 45. 
    Which of the following statements is true of the braking system?
    • A. 

      A shuttle-valve prevents both pilots from applying brakes simultaneously

    • B. 

      Pressure fron either pilot's master cylinders can be used to set the parking brake

    • C. 

      The power brakes will operate normally without the anti-skid function

  • 46. 
    Upon gear retraction, electrical power is removed from the power-pack by which of the following?
    • A. 

      A. After a 14 seconds time delay

    • B. 

      B. After cocntac is made with all three uplock switches

    • C. 

      C. Whe hydraulic pressure reaches 2,775 PSI

    • D. 

      D. Either a or c

  • 47. 
    Hydraulic pressure keeps the landing gear retracted
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 48. 
    The nose gear actuator is held in the extended position by hydraulic pressure
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 49. 
    Main gear drag braces are mechanically locked in the down position
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 50. 
    Never tow or taxi with a flat strut, even breif taxiing or towing with a deflated struts can cause damage
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 51. 
    The parking brake should be left in a set condition while the aircraft is left unchocked and unattended
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 52. 
    Which of the following statements is correct concerning the pilot's elevtric pitch trim switch?
    • A. 

      The pilot's electric trim switch overrides the copilot's electric switch trim

    • B. 

      Moving either side of the split switch activates the electric trim

    • C. 

      The copilot's electric trim switch overrides the pilot's electric trim switch

  • 53. 
    Which of the following occurs when the flaps are extended beyond 40% with the landing gear up?
    • A. 

      The landing gear warning horn can be silenced

    • B. 

      The landing gear warning horn cannot be silenced

    • C. 

      The landing gear warning horn sounds only if aircraft is below 150 KIAS

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      Pneumatic pressure transducers detect a loss of bleed air in the associated pneumatic line

    • B. 

      Engine torque gauges are monitored and rudder boost is initiated at 50% torque indication

    • C. 

      ENgine torque meter oil pressure is compared and rudder boost is initiated after 30% torque differential

  • 55. 
    Yaw dumper must be on and operative for operations at or above _____________ except for takeoff and landings
    • A. 

      A. 5,000 ft AGL

    • B. 

      B. 5,000 ft MSL (350)

    • C. 

      C. 17,000 ft MSL with aft dual body strakes

    • D. 

      D. Either b or c

  • 56. 
    Under what condition is rudder boost required?
    • A. 

      All operations above 5,000 ft. MSL

    • B. 

      When autopilot is inoperative

    • C. 

      For all operations

  • 57. 
    Split flap protection is provided between the left and right wings
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 58. 
    Rudder boost has priority over Yaw dumper
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 59. 
    When conducting operations in icing conditions, theengine anti-ic system shuld be activated _______________
    • A. 

      At outside temperaturas of +5°C, or less, when flight free from visible moisture cannot be assured

    • B. 

      After encountering visible moisture (cabin heating system prevents fogging)

    • C. 

      Only by main system

  • 60. 
    The máximum ambient temperatura uthorized durin takeoff with engine anti-ice ON is limited to?
    • A. 

      10°C

    • B. 

      15°C

    • C. 

      32°F

  • 61. 
    The aximium authorized temperatura allowed for eratio of the surfce deice boots is _______________
    • A. 

      A. -40°F

    • B. 

      B. -40°C

    • C. 

      C. -53.9°C

    • D. 

      Either a or b

  • 62. 
    Engine ant-ice should be used during all ground operations
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 63. 
    Sufficient electrical current during the use of normal prop deice can be monitored on the prop ammeter
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 64. 
    Regulated bleed air is used for the operation of pneumatic boots, bleed air warning, door seal inflation and rudder boost
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 65. 
    The pneumatic bleed air shutoff valve is normally open valve
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 66. 
    Enviromental (Prior FL 493, and FL 494 thru FL 499) The enviromental bleed switch ______________
    • A. 

      Diverts air to the emergency pressurization system in HIGH

    • B. 

      Regulates the flow of bleed air to the ACM (ecu)

    • C. 

      Should be selected to the LOW position during operations at ambient temperaturas of +10°C or greater

  • 67. 
    Enviromental (Prior FL 493, and FL 494 thru FL 499) The funcion of the enviromental bleedwitch is to ______________
    • A. 

      Allow more warm air to be diverted to the rear of the aircraft cabin

    • B. 

      Turn on both flow control units simultaneously

    • C. 

      Increase or decrease output of both flow control units in the NORMAL versus the LOW setting

  • 68. 
    Enviromental (Prior FL 493, and FL 494 thru FL 499) __________ N1 is required to engage the air conditioner compressor clutch
    • A. 

      High Idle

    • B. 

      60%

    • C. 

      62%

  • 69. 
    Enviromental (Prior FL 493, and FL 494 thru FL 499) Slect the enviromental bleed air NORMAL postion for increased heaing or if increased pressurization airflow is required
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 70. 
    Enviromental (Prior FL 493, and FL 494 thru FL 499) ____________ (350)The CABIN ALTITUDE annunciator iluminates at 10,000 f. cain ltitude
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 71. 
    Enviromental (FL 493, FL 500 and subsequent) AUTO position on the ENVIRONMENTAL BLEED AIR Switch is used for _______________________
    • A. 

      A. Cold ambient temperatures

    • B. 

      B. Hot ambient temperatures

    • C. 

      C. Both a. and b. are correct

  • 72. 
    Enviromental (FL 493, FL 500 and subsequent) LOW posiion on the ENVIRONMENTAL BLEED AIR Switch is used for __________________
    • A. 

      Increased take-off performance during very cold days

    • B. 

      Increased take-off performance during very hot days

    • C. 

      Increased take-off performance from low altitude airports (elevations less tan 2,000 ft)

  • 73. 
    Environmental (FL 493, FL 500 and subsequent) Whc statemet is tre regarding the presssurization controlsystem?
    • A. 

      A. The damp solenoid is energized OPEN on the ground

    • B. 

      B. The preset solenoid is de-energized CLOSED on the ground

    • C. 

      Both a. and b. are correct

  • 74. 
    Envronmental (FL 493 FL 500 an subsequnt) The safety valve provides pressure relief _________________
    • A. 

      Only if the cabin pressure switch is in the TEST position

    • B. 

      Only if the ram air door does not open

    • C. 

      If the normal outflow valve fails or ''Dump'' is selected to depressurize the aircraft

  • 75. 
    Environmental (FL 493, FL 500 and subsequent) Where should the pressurization controller be set for landing?
    • A. 

      500 ft. above field elevation

    • B. 

      Field elevation

    • C. 

      500 ft. above field pressure altitude

  • 76. 
    Environmental (FL 493, FL 500 and subsequent) Altitude limiters nly allow th outfow/safety valves o dump the cabin to approimately what cabin altitude?
    • A. 

      10,000 ft.

    • B. 

      12,000 ft.

    • C. 

      13,500 ft.

    • D. 

      15,000 ft.

  • 77. 
    Oxygen is provided to both passengers and crew via the ____________________
    • A. 

      Oxygen generators

    • B. 

      Liquid oxygen tank for the crew, gaseous oxygen to the passengers

    • C. 

      Gaseous oxygen bottle mounted in the tail

  • 78. 
    With the shoutoff valve (T-handle) closed, which is the only place where oxygen is available?
    • A. 

      The bottle

    • B. 

      First aid mask

    • C. 

      First aid and crew masks

  • 79. 
    Where can oxygen pressure be monitored?
    • A. 

      A. The cockpit gauge

    • B. 

      B. At the filler door

    • C. 

      C. On the bottle

    • D. 

      D. Either a or b

  • 80. 
    What are the three modes of crew mask operation?
    • A. 

      Normal, 100%, emergency

    • B. 

      100%, auto, normal

    • C. 

      Emergency, 100%, auto

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 81. 
    Under what conditions can oxygen be supplied to passengers if the system is on and ready?
    • A. 

      Pulling the manual dropout T-handle

    • B. 

      Cabin altitudes which exceed 12,500 ft. with electrical power on the triple feed

    • C. 

      Using the first-aid mask

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 82. 
    Once the passengers masks are deployed,, there is continuous oxygen flow through each mask
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 83. 
    What does illumination of one of the AC BUS annunciators indicate?
    • A. 

      Inverter failure

    • B. 

      Loss of power to the inverter

    • C. 

      Loss of either 115V or 26V output

    • D. 

      Any of the above

  • 84. 
    Choose the most correct description of a Hall Effect Device (HED)
    • A. 

      HED's are essentially remote control circuit breakers

    • B. 

      These current sensors are one-way electron check valves

    • C. 

      Set to 275A, HEDs will open the associated bus tie if properly polarized current flow becomes excessive

  • 85. 
    What is the corrective action for a tripped circuit breaker?
    • A. 

      A. Reset it once if it is essential to flight operation

    • B. 

      B. Never reset a tripped circuit breaker

    • C. 

      C. Do not reset a tripped circuit breaker a second time

    • D. 

      D. Both a and c are correct

  • 86. 
    What is the correct procedure for illumiation of the #1 AC BUS warning annuncator?
    • A. 

      AC circuit breakers - PULL, No. 2 Inverter - BUS TRANSFER

    • B. 

      AC circuit breakers - CHECK, No. 1 Inverter - BUS TRANSFER

    • C. 

      Inverter selection is automatic

  • 87. 
    If you experience a hot or a hung start, which of the following should be accomplished?
    • A. 

      A. Condition lever move to fuel cut-off

    • B. 

      B. Ignition and engine start switch move to starter only

    • C. 

      C. Pull the start cont CB and Press the start disengage button

    • D. 

      D. Both a and b are appropiate

  • 88. 
    The oil pressure is above 90 PSI, yet the L OIL PRES annunciator illuminates. What should be done in this case?
    • A. 

      Land as son as practical

    • B. 

      Reduce power on the affected engine and land at the nearest suitable airport

    • C. 

      Shut down the affected engine

    • D. 

      Monitor engine operation closely. Reduce power or perform engine shutdown if other conditions confirm low oil pressure

  • 89. 
    The markings on the dipstick corresponds to _____________
    • A. 

      Total capacity of the engine in U.S. quarts

    • B. 

      The chart in the operators handbook needed to calculate U.S. quarts of oil

    • C. 

      U.S. gallons to fill the reservoir

    • D. 

      U.S. quarts and indicate the amount of oil required to fill the tank to the full mark

  • 90. 
    An illumination of the chip detector annunciator and a flashing master caution annunciator ________________________
    • A. 

      1. Indicates contamination of the engine oil

    • B. 

      2. Requires engine parameters be monitored for abnormal indications

    • C. 

      3. May if the conditions permit at the pilots discretion be shut-down a. 1, 2 b. 1, 3 c. All of the above

  • 91. 
    CHIP DETECT illumination is reason for inmediate engine shutdown
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 92. 
    125 KIAS is used for both Vyse and single engine enroute climb
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 93. 
    Do not mix different brands of engine oil
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 94. 
    FUEL PRES LO annunciation could indicate a posible oil scavenge pump failure
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 95. 
    Airstarts should be attempted regardless of windmilling N1 indications
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 96. 
    The fuel topping governor, through a pneumatic line to the Fuel control unit (FCU), will reduce gas generator speed and propeller speed in the event of propeller over speeds due to an unresponsive propeller blade (stuck blade)
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 97. 
    A compressor stall may be evidence of a bleed valve stuck in the closed position
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 98. 
    When operating on battery power only, engine fire indication ___________________________
    • A. 

      Is available

    • B. 

      Is not available

    • C. 

      Is available if the rotary TEST switch is in the TPL FED position

    • D. 

      Is not available if the rotary TEST switch is not in the FIRE WARN position

  • 99. 
    During the preflight, the left fire detectort test switch fails to produce a L ENGINE FIRE annunciation. What does this indicate?
    • A. 

      The left fire detect CB may have tripped

    • B. 

      The detector loop may have been severed

    • C. 

      The switch may be bad

    • D. 

      All of the above are posible but the aircraft cannot be dispatched

  • 100. 
    The fire extinguishers are armed when the firewall switch is depressed
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 101. 
    Propeller overspeeds can be caused by which of the following conditions?
    • A. 

      A. Primary governor flyweight assembly failure

    • B. 

      B. A sheared primary governor drive shaft

    • C. 

      C. Propeller hub malfunction causing blades to be unresponsive to changes in governor oil pressure

    • D. 

      D. Both a and c

  • 102. 
    Propeller RPM exceeding 1,700 RPM could indicate ____________________
    • A. 

      A primary governor failure if RPM overspeed to 1,768 RPM

    • B. 

      Fixed pitch propeller if RPM excedes 1,768 RPM

    • C. 

      The pilot will need the longest runway available

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 103. 
    What is the function of the ''fuel topping governor'' ?
    • A. 

      A. A back-up means of propeller control in the event both primary and overspeed governors fail

    • B. 

      B. Used to control reverse RPM during landing

    • C. 

      C. Used in the event of propeller hub malfunction

    • D. 

      D. Both b and c

  • 104. 
    Although the system test normal during the runups, only one autofeather annunciator illuminates during takeoff. Wha action should be taken? 
    • A. 

      Continue takeoff since the system tested normally

    • B. 

      Continue the takeoff. The autofeather annunciator is not a RED or YELLOW light

    • C. 

      Abort the takeoff. The 88% power lever switches were not tested during runup

  • 105. 
    If the PROP GND SOL annunciator illuminates in flight, __________________
    • A. 

      One or both propellers may reduce to the ground low pitch after power and airspeed are reduced

    • B. 

      Attempt to disarm system by pulling PROP GOV TEST CB

    • C. 

      Fly a shallow power-on approach with the propeller levers at mínimum, and enough torque to produce 1,450 RPM

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 106. 
    A sustained propeller RPM of 1,768 is an indication of a failed primary governor
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 107. 
    Reverse thrust may not be controlable after landing with a failed primary governor
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 108. 
    Maintain engine torque to 96% or less with a failed primary governor
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 109. 
    The AUTOFEATHER OFF annunciator indicates the system is not armed and landing gear extended
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 110. 
    Illumanation of the FUEL QTY annunciator indicates fuel quantity, as determined by an optic switch, is below __________ usable on the designated side
    • A. 

      300 lbs.

    • B. 

      30 minutes at máximum endurance

    • C. 

      30 minutes at maximim continuous power

    • D. 

      300 U.S. gallons

  • 111. 
    The FUEL CROSSFEED annunciator fails to illuminate after moving the crossfeed switch to a crossfeed position. Which of the following is likely to occur?
    • A. 

      Crossfeeding may not occur

    • B. 

      The valve did not open

    • C. 

      The crossfeed CB has tripped

    • D. 

      Any of the above

  • 112. 
    The receiving side standby boost pump was left on prior to fuel crossfeed. Which of the following is likely to occur?
    • A. 

      No crossfeeding will occur

    • B. 

      The system will feed fuel in reverse

    • C. 

      The receiving side auxiliary tank can overfill

    • D. 

      Engines will flame-out from fuel starvation

  • 113. 
    The receiving side aux transfer switch was left in override prior to fuel crossfeed
    • A. 

      No crossfeed will occur

    • B. 

      The system will feed fuel in reverse

    • C. 

      The receiving side auxiliary tank can overfill

    • D. 

      Engines will flame-out from fuel starvation

  • 114. 
    Operation during illumination of the FUEL PRES LO annunciator is limited to 10 hours between engine overhaul
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 115. 
    Máximum allowable fuel imbalance is limited to 300 lbs.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 116. 
    If the red light in the gear handle extinguishes, but the Green NOSE annunciator fails to illuminate during manual extensión _______________________
    • A. 

      The nose drag base is damaged

    • B. 

      The center electrical bus has zero voltage

    • C. 

      The nose actuator has not reached full extension

    • D. 

      The nose actuator has not locked into position

  • 117. 
    If the powerpack operates for longer tan 14 seconds, __________________
    • A. 

      System will overheat and hydraulic fluid is vented overboard

    • B. 

      The control Printed Circuit Breaker (PCB) will trip the landing gear control relay CB

    • C. 

      The control PCB will trip the landing gear power CB

    • D. 

      There is not time delay protection

  • 118. 
    Intermittent powerpack cycling (once per 20-30 min) after gear retraction _________________________
    • A. 

      Is indicative of a failed pressure switch

    • B. 

      Is normal

    • C. 

      Is indicative of a chattering power relay

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 119. 
    Never tow or taxi with a deflated strut even brief towing or taxing can cause damage
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 120. 
    Without Green downlock indication, manual gear extensión handle shoul be pumped until máximum resistance is felt, followed by stowing the handle.
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 121. 
    The autopilot must satisfactorily pass a preflight test prior to each flight on which it is intended to be used
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 122. 
    Split flap protection is provided between each wing
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 123. 
    Rudder boost must be operational for all flights
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 124. 
    Illumination of the WING DEICE annunciator indicates proper operation of the wing and tail boots
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 125. 
    Illumination of either ENG ANTI.ICE annunciator should always be confirmed by predictable and coordinated changes in engine torque indications
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 126. 
    Vacuum has been lost. Which statement is correct concerning the pressurization system?
    • A. 

      A. Cabin will slowly depressurize

    • B. 

      B. Cabin will achieve máximum differential and controller will be unresponsive to commands

    • C. 

      C. Cabin will slowly depressurize upon landing when door seal deflates

    • D. 

      D. Both b and c are correct

  • 127. 
    After accomplishing the electrical smoke/fire checklist, electrical switches identified with a White circle indicate which of the following?
    • A. 

      Ítems that not been automatically shed

    • B. 

      Ítems which are powered from either the triple-fed or center bus

    • C. 

      Ítems that must be turned OFF if not neccesary

    • D. 

      All of the above

  • 128. 
    Illumination of the PASS OXY ON annunciator always means the manual override T-handle has been pulled
    • A. 

      True

    • B. 

      False

  • 129. 
    What is the zero fuel weight?
    • A. 

      Basic empty weight plus the payload limited to 15,000 lbs.

    • B. 

      Basic empty weight plus the payload limited to 16,300 lbs.

    • C. 

      Max takeoff weight minus payload limited to 11,000 lbs.

    • D. 

      The airplane ramp weight minus the weight of usable fuel on board limited to 12,500 lbs.

  • 130. 
    Which of the following is an element of Takeoff Field Length (TOFL) ?
    • A. 

      A. Distance of the runway in use

    • B. 

      B. Distance to accelerate and recognize an engine failure at V1 and bring the airplane to a stop

    • C. 

      C. An all engine-operating distance to accelearte to and rotate at Vr, then climb and accelerate in order to achieve V35 at 35 ft. above the runway; plus 15%

    • D. 

      D. Both b and c are correct

  • 131. 
    The King Air 350 is certified under which category?
    • A. 

      FAR Part 23 Normal Category

    • B. 

      FAR Part 23 Commuter Category

    • C. 

      FAR Part 25 Transport Category

  • 132. 
    The certified takeoff climb requirement for the King Air 350 at 400 ft. AGL is _____________
    • A. 

      Measurably positive

    • B. 

      2.4 %

    • C. 

      2.0 %