Pharmacology Knowledge Test Quiz

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Pharmacology Knowledge Test Quiz

Pharmacology is all about drugs that patients are given to either nurse them back to health or help them maintain a healthy life. Test your Pharmacology knowledge that has been gathered these past months by taking up the interesting quiz below It is basically divided into Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics and pharmacogenetics. All the best and come back for more Pharmacology tests.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Butyrlcholinesterase, an enzyme that degrades choline esters, can be most likely found in which of the following organs?
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Bladder

  • 2. 
    Myasthenia Gravis, a disease where the body makes antibodies to Nm-type Nicotinic receptors would most likely be treated with what medication?
    • A. 

      Pyridostigmine

    • B. 

      Nicotine

    • C. 

      Curare

    • D. 

      Dopamine

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is an irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Physostigmine

    • B. 

      Sitagliptin

    • C. 

      Pioglitazone

    • D. 

      Echothiophate

  • 4. 
    Which of these is not a therapeutic use of nicotinic receptor antagonists?
    • A. 

      Therapy with tracheal intubation

    • B. 

      Adjunct therapy to surgical anaesthesia

    • C. 

      Treatment of convulsions

    • D. 

      ADHD

  • 5. 
    The fluroquinolones that are ONLY available for opthalmic use are: (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Gatifloxacin

    • B. 

      Gemifloxacin

    • C. 

      Besifloxacin

    • D. 

      Ofloxacin

  • 6. 
    The fluoroquinolone with the most activity against Pseudomonas is
    • A. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • B. 

      Levofloxacin

    • C. 

      Norflaxacin

    • D. 

      Moxifloxacin

  • 7. 
    Which of the following aminoglycosides is used for parasitic worms (helminths)?
    • A. 

      Paromomycin

    • B. 

      Streptomycin

    • C. 

      Neomycin

    • D. 

      Gentamycin

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is true regarding fluroquinolones?
    • A. 

      Ofloxacin was the first quinolone

    • B. 

      They have poor bioavailability

    • C. 

      Inhibition of topoisomerase II prevents decatenation of DNA

    • D. 

      Mutations to strand cutting subunits is a common mechanism of resistance

  • 9. 
    In this structural drawing of Gemifloxacin, the Nitrogen that is present in the "Group X" position, will likely attribute what adverse effect to this medication?
    • A. 

      Theophylline interaction

    • B. 

      Photosensitivity

    • C. 

      NSAID interaction

    • D. 

      Chelation by cations

  • 10. 
    Which of the following inhibit P450 enzymes?
    • A. 

      Azithromycin

    • B. 

      Telithromycin

    • C. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • D. 

      Streptogramins

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      All preganglionic sympathetic neurons synapse with cholinergic receptors

    • B. 

      All postganglionic sympathetic neurons synapse with cholinergic receptors

    • C. 

      Cholinergic receptors exist in the CNS

    • D. 

      All postganglionic parasympathetic neurons synapse cholinergic receptors

    • E. 

      Cholinergic receptors exist in neuromuscular junctions

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine is incorporated into the vesicle in the cell body of the neuron

    • B. 

      Hemicholinium inhibits the incorporation of acetycholine into the vesicle.

    • C. 

      There is one molecule of acetylcholine per vesicle.

    • D. 

      Botulinum toxin inhibits the exocytosis of acetylcholine

    • E. 

      Acetycholine is transported across the synapse by active transport

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      M2 and M4 are autoreceptors that respond to acetylcholine at parasympathetic terminals

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine can inhibit the release of norepinephrine by binding to autoreceptors

    • C. 

      Acetycholine can affect both cholinergic and adrenergic receptors

    • D. 

      Curare inhibits nicotinic receptors

    • E. 

      Nicotinic receptors can be found in the neuromuscular junction

  • 14. 
    Check all that are false
    • A. 

      Stimulation of nicotinic receptors in the adrenal medulla causes the release of EPI and NE

    • B. 

      Stimulation of nicotinic receptors in the neuromuscular junction causes a hyperpolarization that relaxes the muscle

    • C. 

      Muscarinic receptors are ligand gated ion channels that require two ligands to bind

    • D. 

      M2 and M4, when bound, have inhibitory action on the cell

    • E. 

      Muscarinic receptors in the heart, when bound by acetycholine, would increase heart rate

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is true concerning the design of muscarinic agonists?
    • A. 

      The larger the N-substituent the more potent the agonist

    • B. 

      The nitrogen must be capable of forming a negative charge

    • C. 

      There must be 5 atoms between the oxygen and nitrogen

    • D. 

      Molecules should have a hydrogen bond accepting oxygen

  • 16. 
    Acetylcholine can be given intraocularly in the formulation  "Miochol-E" to therapeutically induce miosis which is
    • A. 

      Iris constriction

    • B. 

      Iris dilation

    • C. 

      Pupillary Dilation

    • D. 

      Pupillary constriction

  • 17. 
    Pilocarpine, which is a muscarinic agonist, is used to treat xerostomia. The most likely therapeutic action for this medication is _________
    • A. 

      Increased salivation

    • B. 

      Urinary retention

    • C. 

      Urinary relaxation

    • D. 

      Bronchiole relaxation

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is not a valid contraindication of muscarinic agonists?
    • A. 

      Asthma: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists) can produce bronchoconstriction. In the predisposed patient, an asthmatic attack may be induced.

    • B. 

      Hyperthyroidism: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists) can induce atrial fibrillation in hyperthyroid patients.

    • C. 

      Peptic ulcer: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists), by increasing gastric acid secretion, may exacerbate ulcer symptoms.

    • D. 

      Coronary vascular disease: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists), as a result of their hypotensive effects, can further compromise coronary blood flow.

    • E. 

      Sjogren's Syndrome: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists), as a result of their decreased salivary secretions, can further exacerbate dry mouth

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is true concerning muscarinic antagonists?
    • A. 

      Quaternary N compounds are the most potent and absorbed most efficiently

    • B. 

      Atropine constricts the pupils

    • C. 

      More than 5 atoms between the terminal H and Nitrogen increases the potency

    • D. 

      The L isomer of atropine is the most potent

  • 20. 
    An overdose of a muscarinic antagonist drug would likely result in all of the following except
    • A. 

      Decreased heart rate

    • B. 

      Mydriasis

    • C. 

      Xerostomia

    • D. 

      Cycloplegia

    • E. 

      Temperature elevation

  • 21. 
    Which of the following would not increase the amount of acetylcholine able to react with muscarinic receptors?
    • A. 

      Sarin (Nerve gas)

    • B. 

      Parathion (Insecticide)

    • C. 

      Botulinum Toxin

    • D. 

      Entry of calcium into presynaptic knob

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is true concerning beta-lactams?
    • A. 

      They are most effective against gram negative organisms

    • B. 

      Gram negative organisms display resistance by secreting beta lactamase on the surface of their cell

    • C. 

      The pentaglycine bridge links two D-alanine together to form a cross bridge

    • D. 

      Enzymatic inactivation of beta lactams could occur by cleaving the beta lactam ring or the r group of the drug

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      It is not required that a beta-lactam bind to a PBP to exert any effect

    • B. 

      Beta-lactams are an effective treatment against the intracellular infections such as chlamydia.

    • C. 

      Beta-lactamase would most effective in the log phase of bacterial growth

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines causes GI distress and should be taken with food or milk

    • B. 

      An increase in dose of tetracyclines will lead to a lower percentage absorbed in the GI tract

    • C. 

      Doxycycline is available in intravenous formulation

    • D. 

      Tetracyclines block tRNA from binding to the A site in translation

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      Resistance to Tigecycline comes in the form of efflux pumps and ribosomal protection proteins

    • B. 

      Tigecycline has greater gram negative activity than the rest of the tetracyclines

    • C. 

      Erythromycin would be more stable to stomach acid than clarithromycin

    • D. 

      Tigecycline is available parenterally and orally only

  • 26. 
    Which of the following inhibit nucleic acid metabolism?
    • A. 

      Sulfonamides

    • B. 

      Beta-lactams

    • C. 

      Trimethoprim

    • D. 

      Fluroquinolones

    • E. 

      Macrolides

  • 27. 
    Sulfonamides have a structure similar to _________, which enables them to compete with the first molecule in the folic acid synthesis pathway for the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase
    • A. 

      Beta-lactam

    • B. 

      Dihydrofolic acid

    • C. 

      P-aminobenzoic acid

    • D. 

      Folic acid

  • 28. 
    Sulfonamides tend to precipitate in acidic urine because they are __________
    • A. 

      Weakly acidic

    • B. 

      Weakly basic

    • C. 

      Neutral

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 29. 
    Resistance to sulfonamides include all of the following mechanisms except?
    • A. 

      Increased production of PABA

    • B. 

      Decreased intracellular accumulation of drug

    • C. 

      Methylation of PABA

    • D. 

      Production of a folic acid synthesizing enzyme

  • 30. 
    This muscarinic receptor is found in the smooth muscle and glands and causes excitation when bound
    • A. 

      M1

    • B. 

      M2

    • C. 

      M3

    • D. 

      M4

    • E. 

      M5

  • 31. 
    Which antibiotics are known for causing tooth discoloration? 
    • A. 

      Penicillins

    • B. 

      Cephalosporins

    • C. 

      Tetracyclines

    • D. 

      Macrolides

  • 32. 
    Vesamicol
    • A. 

      Inhibits the release of acetycholine from the vesicle

    • B. 

      Inhibits the choline uptake system

    • C. 

      Inhibits the fusion of SNAPS and VAMPS

    • D. 

      Inhibits the movement of acetylcholine into the vesicle

  • 33. 
    Which of the following is false concerning muscarinic receptors?
    • A. 

      Stimulation of the muscarinic receptor in SA node would decrease heart rate

    • B. 

      Stimulation of the muscarinic receptor in the bronchiolar smooth muscle would relax that muscle

    • C. 

      Stimulation of the muscarinic receptor in GI tract would increase motility and tone

    • D. 

      Stimulation of the muscarinic receptor in the lacrimal gland would increase secretion

  • 34. 
    This muscarinic receptor is found in the heart and causes inhibition when bound
    • A. 

      M1

    • B. 

      M2

    • C. 

      M3

    • D. 

      M4

    • E. 

      M5

  • 35. 
    What effect would the binding of acetylcholine to muscarinic autoreceptors have on the presynaptic sympathetic neuron?
    • A. 

      Inhibition of further ACh release

    • B. 

      Inhibition of NE release from adjacent neuron

    • C. 

      Stimulation of further ACh release

    • D. 

      No effect

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      Butyrlcholinesterase limits the effectiveness of giving acetylcholine orally

    • B. 

      Muscarinic agonists decrease cardiac output

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine can easily cross the BBB

    • D. 

      Muscarinic agonists decrease blood pressure

  • 37. 
    Antibacterial agents that are used for antibiotics are produced by all of the following except
    • A. 

      Bacteria

    • B. 

      Fungi

    • C. 

      Actinomycetes

    • D. 

      Viruses

  • 38. 
    An example of an antimicrobial that increases permeability and leakage of the cell membrane is
    • A. 

      Polymyxin

    • B. 

      Clindamycin

    • C. 

      Rifamycin

    • D. 

      Tetracycline

  • 39. 
    An example of an antimetabolite antimicrobial is
    • A. 

      Polymyxin

    • B. 

      Cephalosporin

    • C. 

      Minocycline

    • D. 

      Sulfamethoxazole

  • 40. 
    Which of the following is false concerning mycobacterium?
    • A. 

      Tuberculosis is an example of a mycobacterial disease

    • B. 

      They are fairly resistant to antibiotics

    • C. 

      They grow very quickly

    • D. 

      Multiple antibiotics are usually necessary to treat mycobacterial diseases

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is false concerning nicotinic receptors?
    • A. 

      They require two molecules of acetycholine to bind to them to activate

    • B. 

      They are ligand gated ion channels

    • C. 

      They are located only on preganglionic neurons

    • D. 

      Nn and Nm are both pentamers

    • E. 

      The binding sites are associated with the alpha subunit

  • 42. 
    Which of the following is false concerning non-depolarizing nicotinic antagonists?
    • A. 

      They can cause the release of histamine

    • B. 

      75-80% of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors must be blocked to have an effect

    • C. 

      Acetylcholine can decrease their effect

    • D. 

      Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors increase the effect of these antagonists through synergism

  • 43. 
    The mechanism of action for macrolide antibiotics is
    • A. 

      Macrolides interfere with the transpeptidation step of translation

    • B. 

      Macrolides bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibit the tRNA from binding to the A site

    • C. 

      Macrolides bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit the tRNA from binding to the A site

    • D. 

      Macrolides bind to the 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibit the formation of the initiation complex

  • 44. 
    Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      Macrolides are bacteriostatic at all concentrations

    • B. 

      Macrolides are better gram negative agents

    • C. 

      Gram negative bacilli are generally resistant to macrolides

    • D. 

      Bacteria that are resistant to clindamycin generally do not show cross resistance with macrolides

  • 45. 
    Which of the following is not a mechanism of resistance for macrolide antibiotics?
    • A. 

      Efflux pumps

    • B. 

      Decreased permeability

    • C. 

      Mutation of 30S ribosome

    • D. 

      Ribosomal protection

    • E. 

      Hydrolysis of macrolide

    • F. 

      All of the above are mechanisms of resistance

  • 46. 
    Which of these macrolides has the greatest half-life and volume of distribution and thus can be dosed less often?
    • A. 

      Erythromycin

    • B. 

      Azithromycin

    • C. 

      Clarithromycin

  • 47. 
    A patient requiring erythromycin that cannot take medications by mouth could take which of the following that represents a parenteral formulation of the medication?
    • A. 

      Erythromycin stearate

    • B. 

      Erythromycin estolate

    • C. 

      Erythromycin ethylsuccinate

    • D. 

      Erythromycin lactobionate

  • 48. 
    Bacteria that are resistant to azithromycin would also likely be resistant to
    • A. 

      Clarithromycin

    • B. 

      Erythromycin

    • C. 

      Telithromycin

    • D. 

      A and B

    • E. 

      All of the above

    • F. 

      B and C

  • 49. 
    Which of the following is false concerning clindamycin?
    • A. 

      It is able to penetrate bone and abscesses to exert its effect

    • B. 

      It is not particularly effective against anaerobes

    • C. 

      It is very effective against gram positive bacteria

    • D. 

      It is associated with fatal antibiotic-associated colitis

    • E. 

      Clindamycin is metabolized by the liver

  • 50. 
    Which of the following is false concerning chloramphenicol?
    • A. 

      It is commonly prescribed because of its low toxicity

    • B. 

      It has good activity against anaerobes

    • C. 

      It is bactericidal towards some organisms

    • D. 

      It inhibits P450 enzyme

  • 51. 
    Which of the following is known to cause Grey Baby Syndrome?
    • A. 

      Penicillin

    • B. 

      Tetracycline

    • C. 

      Moxifloxacin

    • D. 

      Chloramphenicol

  • 52. 
    The ratio of dalfopristin to quinupristin that optimizes microbial killing in Streptogramins is:
    • A. 

      50:50

    • B. 

      70:30

    • C. 

      90:10

    • D. 

      95:10

  • 53. 
    Which of the following is false concerning streptogramins?
    • A. 

      Nearly all their activity is against gram positives

    • B. 

      They are effective at killilng Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium

    • C. 

      They inhibit CYP450

    • D. 

      They are reserved for serious infections

  • 54. 
    Which of the following drugs would have a potential adverse reaction of increasing levels of epinephrine (a catecholamine), causing hypertensive crisis?
    • A. 

      Streptogramin

    • B. 

      Linezolid

    • C. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • D. 

      Minocycline

  • 55. 
    Which of the following antibiotics does not have activity against enterococcus faecalis?
    • A. 

      Tigecycline

    • B. 

      Streptogramins

    • C. 

      Linezolid

    • D. 

      All of the above have activity againt faecalis

  • 56. 
    Which of the following has activity against both E faecium and E faecalis?
    • A. 

      Linezolid

    • B. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • C. 

      Streptogramins

    • D. 

      Tigecycline

  • 57. 
    Which of the following is true concerning aminoglycosides?
    • A. 

      They bind to the 50S ribosomal subunit

    • B. 

      Tobramycin is the first drug considered for treatment

    • C. 

      They are time dependent killers

    • D. 

      Nephrotoxicity is a concern

  • 58. 
    If a patient was to receive 1200 mg of gentamycin daily for treatment of an infection, how would you dose this using a traditional regimen?
    • A. 

      300mg every 6 hours

    • B. 

      600mg every 12 hours

    • C. 

      400mg every 8 hours

    • D. 

      1200mg daily

  • 59. 
    What is the only orally available aminoglycoside?
    • A. 

      Amikacin

    • B. 

      Neomycin

    • C. 

      Gentamycin

    • D. 

      Tobramycin

  • 60. 
    Aminoglycosides are effective against :
    • A. 

      Gram positive aerobes

    • B. 

      Gram negative aerobes

    • C. 

      Gram positive anaerobes

    • D. 

      Gram negative anaerobes

  • 61. 
    Bacterial modification of a single amino acid of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase would confer resistance to what antibiotic?
    • A. 

      Streptomycin

    • B. 

      Trimethoprim

    • C. 

      Tetracycline

    • D. 

      Linezolid

  • 62. 
    Which of the following is false concerning sulfa antibiotics?
    • A. 

      Patients should be counseled to take with lots of water

    • B. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim should be dosed in a 20:1 ratio

    • C. 

      Resistance is plasma-mediated

    • D. 

      Trimethoprim is 20-100 times more potent than sulfamethoxazole

  • 63. 
    Photosensitivity is a common adverse effect of which of these drug classes?
    • A. 

      Sulfonamides

    • B. 

      Beta-lactams

    • C. 

      Macrolides

    • D. 

      Aminoglycosides

  • 64. 
    Which of these antibiotics has primarily gram positive activity?
    • A. 

      Clindamycin

    • B. 

      Sulfonamides

    • C. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • D. 

      Aminoglycosides

  • 65. 
    Which of the following is not considered to a respiratory quinolone?
    • A. 

      Moxifloxacin

    • B. 

      Gemifloxacin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      Levofloxacin

  • 66. 
    Which of these quinolones has the greatest half-life?
    • A. 

      Gemifloxacin

    • B. 

      Norfloxacin

    • C. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • D. 

      Moxifloxacin

  • 67. 
    The only quinolone that requires hepatic adjustment is:
    • A. 

      Norfloxacin

    • B. 

      Ofloxacin

    • C. 

      Levofloxacin

    • D. 

      Moxifloxacin

  • 68. 
    Precaution should be used with patients with elevated ALT/AST levels when using what quinolone?
    • A. 

      Moxifloxacin

    • B. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • C. 

      Levofloxacin

    • D. 

      Ofloxacin

  • 69. 
    Fluoroquinolones that inhibit Topoisomerase II have greater ___________ activity?
    • A. 

      Gram Positive

    • B. 

      Gram Negative

    • C. 

      Anaerobic

    • D. 

      Aerobic

  • 70. 
    Select all of the following that in general exhibit greater gram positive activity than gram negative bacteria:
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines

    • B. 

      Macrolides

    • C. 

      Clindamycin

    • D. 

      Aminoglycosides

    • E. 

      Sulfonamides

  • 71. 
    Which of these binds to the 23S subunit of the 50S ribosome?
    • A. 

      Linezolid

    • B. 

      Streptomycin

    • C. 

      Tetracycline

    • D. 

      Doxycycline

  • 72. 
    Which of the following is not a general mechanism of resistance to antibiotics for mycobacterium?
    • A. 

      Lipid rich cell membrane

    • B. 

      Slow growth

    • C. 

      Intracellular presence

    • D. 

      All of the above are mechanisms of resistance

  • 73. 
    Which of the following is false concerning INH (Isoniazid)?
    • A. 

      A well known ADR of this medication is peripheral neuropathy

    • B. 

      It has no activity against non-mycobacteria

    • C. 

      Dosage depends on the patients genetics

    • D. 

      It has good activity against Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium Avium

  • 74. 
    All of the following can be considered for treatment of MRSA except:
    • A. 

      Tigecycline

    • B. 

      Minocycline

    • C. 

      Streptogramins

    • D. 

      Ampicillin

    • E. 

      Linezolid

    • F. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

  • 75. 
    Which of the following antibiotics could be used to treat SIADH by inhibiting ADH activity in the renal tubule?
    • A. 

      Minocycline

    • B. 

      Rifampin

    • C. 

      Demeclocycline

    • D. 

      Doxycycline

  • 76. 
    Which of these is not a beta lactamase inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Clavulonic Acid

    • B. 

      Rezbactam

    • C. 

      Tazobactam

    • D. 

      Sublactam

  • 77. 
    Which class of antibiotics is vancomycin grouped into?
    • A. 

      Aminoglycoside

    • B. 

      Glycopeptide

    • C. 

      Macrolide

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 78. 
    Which of the following aminoglycosides is effective in treating multi-drug resistant TB?
    • A. 

      Streptomycin

    • B. 

      Gentimycin

    • C. 

      Neomycin

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 79. 
    Which of these is not a mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?
    • A. 

      Inhibition of formation of initiation complex

    • B. 

      Premature release of an incomplete polypeptide

    • C. 

      Addition of an incorrect amino acid resulting in a non-functional polypeptide

    • D. 

      Binding to 50S ribosome and inhibiting transpeptidation

  • 80. 
    Which of the following would you administer with an aminoglycoside to improve gram positive activity?
    • A. 

      Sulfonamide

    • B. 

      Trimethoprim

    • C. 

      Fluoroquinolone

    • D. 

      Beta-lactam

  • 81. 
    Which of the following is true concerning clindamycin?
    • A. 

      It is a very good gram negative agent

    • B. 

      It is a very good agent against aerobes

    • C. 

      It is effective against Enterococci

    • D. 

      It is indicated for intraabdominal infections

  • 82. 
    Which of the following is a first line agent for tuberculosis?
    • A. 

      Ethionamide

    • B. 

      Rifampin

    • C. 

      Cycloserine

    • D. 

      Amikacin

  • 83. 
    The second line TB agent that is known for psychological ADR's such as depression and psychosis is:
    • A. 

      P-aminosalicylic acid

    • B. 

      Rifampin

    • C. 

      Streptomycin

    • D. 

      Cylcoserine

  • 84. 
    Treatment of leprosy requires a combination of three drugs. Which of the following is not one of them?
    • A. 

      Isoniazid

    • B. 

      Dapsone

    • C. 

      Rifampin

    • D. 

      Clofazimine

  • 85. 
    Isoniazid, a mycolic acid inhibitor, would be effective against which bacteria other than mycobacterium?
    • A. 

      Staphylococcus aureus

    • B. 

      Streptococcus pyogenes

    • C. 

      Enterococcus faecalis

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 86. 
    Which of the following anti-tubercular agents has a potential ADR of peripheral neuropathy?
    • A. 

      Isoniazid

    • B. 

      Rifampin

    • C. 

      Ethambutol

    • D. 

      Pyrazinamide

  • 87. 
    A bacteria that is resistant to macrolides due to a ribosomal protection protein at the macrolide binding site would also show resistance to what other drugs? (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Clindamycin

    • B. 

      Aminoglycosides

    • C. 

      Streptogramin B

    • D. 

      Tetracyclines

  • 88. 
    Clarithromycin + Omeprazole + Amoxicillin is an example of combination drug therapy that would be given to treat what bacteria?
    • A. 

      MRSA

    • B. 

      E faecalis

    • C. 

      H pylori

    • D. 

      T pallidum

  • 89. 
    Which macrolide do you see more prevalence of ADR's such as GI distress, auditory impairment, and QT prolongation?
    • A. 

      Erythromycin

    • B. 

      Azithromycin

    • C. 

      Clarithromycin

    • D. 

      These are ADR's of tetracyclines

  • 90. 
    Which two antibiotics are used in the treatment of acne? (Propionibacterium)
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines/Clindamycin

    • B. 

      Beta-lactams/Ketolides

    • C. 

      Tetracyclines/Sulfonamides

    • D. 

      Sulfonamides/Clindamycin

  • 91. 
    Which of the following would be a likely choice for a counseling point of red-orange secretions (Urine, Feces, Tears, Saliva)
    • A. 

      Ethambutol

    • B. 

      Pyrazinamide

    • C. 

      Rifampin

    • D. 

      Tetracyclines

  • 92. 
    Which of the following would decrease the half-life of warfarin?
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines

    • B. 

      Macrolides

    • C. 

      Rifampin

    • D. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • E. 

      Streptogramins

  • 93. 
    Which of the following has an ADR associated with QT prolongation?
    • A. 

      Telithromycin

    • B. 

      Rifampin

    • C. 

      Erythromycin

    • D. 

      Doxycycline

  • 94. 
    Which of the following is associated with aplastic anemia as an ADR?
    • A. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • B. 

      Tetracycline

    • C. 

      Azithromycin

    • D. 

      Streptogramins

  • 95. 
    Which of the following causes pain at injection site as an ADR?
    • A. 

      Capreomycin

    • B. 

      Linezolid

    • C. 

      INH

    • D. 

      Pyrizinamide

  • 96. 
    Which of the following have potential ADR's of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?
    • A. 

      Capreomycin

    • B. 

      Streptogramins

    • C. 

      Tetracyclines

    • D. 

      Aminoglycosides

  • 97. 
    Which of the following have photosensitivity as a potential ADR? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
    • A. 

      Tetracylines

    • B. 

      Fluoroquinolones

    • C. 

      Macrolides

    • D. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

  • 98. 
    Which of the following can be used to treat Pneumocystic carinii, a common infection in AIDS patients? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
    • A. 

      Clindamycin

    • B. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

    • C. 

      Rifamycin

    • D. 

      INH

  • 99. 
    Check all of the following muscarinic receptors that are Gq G-protein receptors?
    • A. 

      M1

    • B. 

      M2

    • C. 

      M3

    • D. 

      M4

    • E. 

      M5

  • 100. 
    Which of the following represents the mechanism of action for glycopeptides?
    • A. 

      Inhibition of RNA polymerase

    • B. 

      Inhibition of transpeptidase

    • C. 

      Inhibition of transglycosylase

    • D. 

      None of the above

  • 101. 
    Which of the following are bacteriocidal?
    • A. 

      Aminoglycosides

    • B. 

      Quinolones

    • C. 

      Beta-lactams

    • D. 

      Tetracyclines

    • E. 

      INH

    • F. 

      Rifampin

    • G. 

      Sulfonamides

  • 102. 
    After discontinuing the causative antibiotic of pseudomembranous colitis, which of the following would be treatment options? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
    • A. 

      Vancomycin

    • B. 

      Fidaxomicin

    • C. 

      Clindamycin

    • D. 

      Clarithromycin

    • E. 

      Metronidazole

  • 103. 
    Which of the following fluroquinolones can be given parenterally? (CHECK ALL THAT APPLY)
    • A. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • B. 

      Levofloxacin

    • C. 

      Moxifloxacin

    • D. 

      Gemifloxacin

    • E. 

      Ofloxacin

  • 104. 
    Which of the following is false concerning ethionamide?
    • A. 

      A potential ADR is metallic taste

    • B. 

      50 percent of patients report GI upset

    • C. 

      Pyridoxine is recommended for coadministration of the drug

    • D. 

      Phototoxicity is a concern

  • 105. 
    Which of the following is an important counseling point for p-aminosalicylic acid?
    • A. 

      Take with food

    • B. 

      Take on empty stomach

    • C. 

      Take with lots of water

    • D. 

      Take 2 hours before antacids or 4 hours after

  • 106. 
    For which of the following drugs is Steven-Johnson a concern for ADR?
    • A. 

      Telithromycin

    • B. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

    • C. 

      Clindamycin

    • D. 

      Rifampin

  • 107. 
    Which 3 represent the combination therapy for MAC pneumonia?
    • A. 

      Azithromycin

    • B. 

      Ethambutol

    • C. 

      Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

    • D. 

      Rifampin

  • 108. 
    Which 3 represent the combination therapy for leprosy?
    • A. 

      Rifampin

    • B. 

      Clofazimine

    • C. 

      Isoniazid

    • D. 

      Dapson

  • 109. 
    Choose the antibiotic that is represented by the following mechanism of action: Binding to 50S ribosome and causing a conformational change.
    • A. 

      Linezolid

    • B. 

      Macrolides

    • C. 

      Streptogramins

    • D. 

      Tetracyclines

  • 110. 
    Which of the following has serious hematological adverse effects due to its effect on mammalian protein synthesis and cause possibly cause fatal pancytopenia?
    • A. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • B. 

      Clindamycin

    • C. 

      Linezolid

    • D. 

      Macrolides

  • 111. 
    Which of the following drug classes has a potential ADR of tendon rupture?
    • A. 

      Fluoroquinolones

    • B. 

      Tetracyclines

    • C. 

      Macrolides

    • D. 

      Streptogramins

  • 112. 
    Which of the following is false concerning anti-mycobacterial drugs?
    • A. 

      Streptomycin is the least used first line agent

    • B. 

      Streptomycin is effective against intracellular tubercles

    • C. 

      Extracellular tubercles represent active disease

    • D. 

      Dapsone inhibits dihydropteroate synthase