Pharmacology Knowledge Test Quiz

112 Questions | Total Attempts: 113

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Pharmacology Knowledge Test Quiz

Pharmacology is all about drugs that patients are given to either nurse them back to health or help them maintain a healthy life. Test your Pharmacology knowledge that has been gathered these past months by taking up the interesting quiz below It is basically divided into Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics and pharmacogenetics. All the best and come back for more Pharmacology tests.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Butyrlcholinesterase, an enzyme that degrades choline esters, can be most likely found in which of the following organs?
    • A. 

      Kidney

    • B. 

      Liver

    • C. 

      Heart

    • D. 

      Bladder

  • 2. 
    Myasthenia Gravis, a disease where the body makes antibodies to Nm-type Nicotinic receptors would most likely be treated with what medication?
    • A. 

      Pyridostigmine

    • B. 

      Nicotine

    • C. 

      Curare

    • D. 

      Dopamine

  • 3. 
    Which of the following is an irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor?
    • A. 

      Physostigmine

    • B. 

      Sitagliptin

    • C. 

      Pioglitazone

    • D. 

      Echothiophate

  • 4. 
    Which of these is not a therapeutic use of nicotinic receptor antagonists?
    • A. 

      Therapy with tracheal intubation

    • B. 

      Adjunct therapy to surgical anaesthesia

    • C. 

      Treatment of convulsions

    • D. 

      ADHD

  • 5. 
    The fluroquinolones that are ONLY available for opthalmic use are: (Check all that apply)
    • A. 

      Gatifloxacin

    • B. 

      Gemifloxacin

    • C. 

      Besifloxacin

    • D. 

      Ofloxacin

  • 6. 
    The fluoroquinolone with the most activity against Pseudomonas is
    • A. 

      Ciprofloxacin

    • B. 

      Levofloxacin

    • C. 

      Norflaxacin

    • D. 

      Moxifloxacin

  • 7. 
    Which of the following aminoglycosides is used for parasitic worms (helminths)?
    • A. 

      Paromomycin

    • B. 

      Streptomycin

    • C. 

      Neomycin

    • D. 

      Gentamycin

  • 8. 
    Which of the following is true regarding fluroquinolones?
    • A. 

      Ofloxacin was the first quinolone

    • B. 

      They have poor bioavailability

    • C. 

      Inhibition of topoisomerase II prevents decatenation of DNA

    • D. 

      Mutations to strand cutting subunits is a common mechanism of resistance

  • 9. 
    In this structural drawing of Gemifloxacin, the Nitrogen that is present in the "Group X" position, will likely attribute what adverse effect to this medication?
    • A. 

      Theophylline interaction

    • B. 

      Photosensitivity

    • C. 

      NSAID interaction

    • D. 

      Chelation by cations

  • 10. 
    Which of the following inhibit P450 enzymes?
    • A. 

      Azithromycin

    • B. 

      Telithromycin

    • C. 

      Chloramphenicol

    • D. 

      Streptogramins

  • 11. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      All preganglionic sympathetic neurons synapse with cholinergic receptors

    • B. 

      All postganglionic sympathetic neurons synapse with cholinergic receptors

    • C. 

      Cholinergic receptors exist in the CNS

    • D. 

      All postganglionic parasympathetic neurons synapse cholinergic receptors

    • E. 

      Cholinergic receptors exist in neuromuscular junctions

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      Acetylcholine is incorporated into the vesicle in the cell body of the neuron

    • B. 

      Hemicholinium inhibits the incorporation of acetycholine into the vesicle.

    • C. 

      There is one molecule of acetylcholine per vesicle.

    • D. 

      Botulinum toxin inhibits the exocytosis of acetylcholine

    • E. 

      Acetycholine is transported across the synapse by active transport

  • 13. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      M2 and M4 are autoreceptors that respond to acetylcholine at parasympathetic terminals

    • B. 

      Acetylcholine can inhibit the release of norepinephrine by binding to autoreceptors

    • C. 

      Acetycholine can affect both cholinergic and adrenergic receptors

    • D. 

      Curare inhibits nicotinic receptors

    • E. 

      Nicotinic receptors can be found in the neuromuscular junction

  • 14. 
    Check all that are false
    • A. 

      Stimulation of nicotinic receptors in the adrenal medulla causes the release of EPI and NE

    • B. 

      Stimulation of nicotinic receptors in the neuromuscular junction causes a hyperpolarization that relaxes the muscle

    • C. 

      Muscarinic receptors are ligand gated ion channels that require two ligands to bind

    • D. 

      M2 and M4, when bound, have inhibitory action on the cell

    • E. 

      Muscarinic receptors in the heart, when bound by acetycholine, would increase heart rate

  • 15. 
    Which of the following is true concerning the design of muscarinic agonists?
    • A. 

      The larger the N-substituent the more potent the agonist

    • B. 

      The nitrogen must be capable of forming a negative charge

    • C. 

      There must be 5 atoms between the oxygen and nitrogen

    • D. 

      Molecules should have a hydrogen bond accepting oxygen

  • 16. 
    Acetylcholine can be given intraocularly in the formulation  "Miochol-E" to therapeutically induce miosis which is
    • A. 

      Iris constriction

    • B. 

      Iris dilation

    • C. 

      Pupillary Dilation

    • D. 

      Pupillary constriction

  • 17. 
    Pilocarpine, which is a muscarinic agonist, is used to treat xerostomia. The most likely therapeutic action for this medication is _________
    • A. 

      Increased salivation

    • B. 

      Urinary retention

    • C. 

      Urinary relaxation

    • D. 

      Bronchiole relaxation

  • 18. 
    Which of the following is not a valid contraindication of muscarinic agonists?
    • A. 

      Asthma: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists) can produce bronchoconstriction. In the predisposed patient, an asthmatic attack may be induced.

    • B. 

      Hyperthyroidism: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists) can induce atrial fibrillation in hyperthyroid patients.

    • C. 

      Peptic ulcer: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists), by increasing gastric acid secretion, may exacerbate ulcer symptoms.

    • D. 

      Coronary vascular disease: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists), as a result of their hypotensive effects, can further compromise coronary blood flow.

    • E. 

      Sjogren's Syndrome: Choline esters (muscarinic agonists), as a result of their decreased salivary secretions, can further exacerbate dry mouth

  • 19. 
    Which of the following is true concerning muscarinic antagonists?
    • A. 

      Quaternary N compounds are the most potent and absorbed most efficiently

    • B. 

      Atropine constricts the pupils

    • C. 

      More than 5 atoms between the terminal H and Nitrogen increases the potency

    • D. 

      The L isomer of atropine is the most potent

  • 20. 
    An overdose of a muscarinic antagonist drug would likely result in all of the following except
    • A. 

      Decreased heart rate

    • B. 

      Mydriasis

    • C. 

      Xerostomia

    • D. 

      Cycloplegia

    • E. 

      Temperature elevation

  • 21. 
    Which of the following would not increase the amount of acetylcholine able to react with muscarinic receptors?
    • A. 

      Sarin (Nerve gas)

    • B. 

      Parathion (Insecticide)

    • C. 

      Botulinum Toxin

    • D. 

      Entry of calcium into presynaptic knob

  • 22. 
    Which of the following is true concerning beta-lactams?
    • A. 

      They are most effective against gram negative organisms

    • B. 

      Gram negative organisms display resistance by secreting beta lactamase on the surface of their cell

    • C. 

      The pentaglycine bridge links two D-alanine together to form a cross bridge

    • D. 

      Enzymatic inactivation of beta lactams could occur by cleaving the beta lactam ring or the r group of the drug

  • 23. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      It is not required that a beta-lactam bind to a PBP to exert any effect

    • B. 

      Beta-lactams are an effective treatment against the intracellular infections such as chlamydia.

    • C. 

      Beta-lactamase would most effective in the log phase of bacterial growth

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is false?
    • A. 

      Tetracyclines causes GI distress and should be taken with food or milk

    • B. 

      An increase in dose of tetracyclines will lead to a lower percentage absorbed in the GI tract

    • C. 

      Doxycycline is available in intravenous formulation

    • D. 

      Tetracyclines block tRNA from binding to the A site in translation

  • 25. 
    Which of the following is true?
    • A. 

      Resistance to Tigecycline comes in the form of efflux pumps and ribosomal protection proteins

    • B. 

      Tigecycline has greater gram negative activity than the rest of the tetracyclines

    • C. 

      Erythromycin would be more stable to stomach acid than clarithromycin

    • D. 

      Tigecycline is available parenterally and orally only