7 Lvl 3

101 Questions

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7 Lvl 3

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass?
    • A. 

      There is no dirt in the dial.

    • B. 

      The numbers are easy to read.

    • C. 

      The arrows can be seen at night.

    • D. 

      The dial or arrow moves freely.

  • 2. 
    Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?
    • A. 

      High crawl.

    • B. 

      Low crawl.

    • C. 

      Rush

    • D. 

      Roll

  • 3. 
    Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?
    • A. 

      Low crawl.

    • B. 

      Moving at night.

    • C. 

      Moving with stealth.

    • D. 

      Moving with precision.

  • 4. 
    When writing paragraph 2-mission in the operations order, how often do you state the mission?
    • A. 

      One time.

    • B. 

      Two times.

    • C. 

      Three times.

    • D. 

      Four times.

  • 5. 
    In paragraph 3-execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of operations?
    • A. 

      Detailed and understandable and describe how the unit finish its mission.

    • B. 

      Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission.

    • C. 

      Concise describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish.

    • D. 

      Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish.

  • 6. 
    In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in detail?
    • A. 

      Execution

    • B. 

      Maneuver

    • C. 

      Offensive

    • D. 

      Defensive

  • 7. 
    Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 8. 
    Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?
    • A. 

      To change an existing order.

    • B. 

      To order a fragmentary grenade.

    • C. 

      To advise personnel of a fragile operation.

    • D. 

      To indicate a change in the command structure of the unit.

  • 9. 
    Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas?
    • A. 

      Rough draft.

    • B. 

      Concept sketch.

    • C. 

      Operations overlay.

    • D. 

      Terrain Scale model.

  • 10. 
    Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control indirect fires for the squad flight?
    • A. 

      Assault

    • B. 

      Support

    • C. 

      Breach

    • D. 

      Demolition

  • 11. 
    Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal, defines
    • A. 

      An ambush.

    • B. 

      An assault.

    • C. 

      A hasty.

    • D. 

      A raid.

  • 12. 
    Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?
    • A. 

      Area

    • B. 

      Silent

    • C. 

      Zone

    • D. 

      Route

  • 13. 
    Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specified zone?
    • A. 

      Zone

    • B. 

      Route

    • C. 

      Area

    • D. 

      Silent

  • 14. 
    When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term, continuously gathering information?
    • A. 

      Multiple area reconnaissance.

    • B. 

      Successive sector method.

    • C. 

      Converging routes method.

    • D. 

      Stationary teams.

  • 15. 
    Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base
    • A. 

      Of fire.

    • B. 

      Support plan.

    • C. 

      Camp retrograde.

    • D. 

      Deflection maneuver.

  • 16. 
    In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forces fire support come?
    • A. 

      Mortars, MK19s, and M2.50 calibers.

    • B. 

      Your support team weapons.

    • C. 

      Fire and maneuver elements.

    • D. 

      Your team's own weapons.

  • 17. 
    Why do squads use formations?
    • A. 

      For control flexibility and security.

    • B. 

      Flexibility and movement.

    • C. 

      Flexibility only.

    • D. 

      For control only.

  • 18. 
    The basic formation for the fire team is the
    • A. 

      File

    • B. 

      Wedge

    • C. 

      Squad file.

    • D. 

      Squad line.

  • 19. 
    Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?
    • A. 

      Column

    • B. 

      Wedge

    • C. 

      Line

    • D. 

      File

  • 20. 
    When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?
    • A. 

      Bounding overwatch.

    • B. 

      Traveling overwatch.

    • C. 

      Traverse overwatch.

    • D. 

      Leap frog movement.

  • 21. 
    Which bounding method is easier to control?
    • A. 

      Alternate

    • B. 

      Successive

    • C. 

      Progressive

    • D. 

      Leap frog

  • 22. 
    Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot bypass it due to the time required to accomplish the mission?
    • A. 

      Overwatch and bounding overwatch

    • B. 

      Traveling overwatch and traversing overwatch.

    • C. 

      Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch.

    • D. 

      Traversing overwatch and bounding overwatch.

  • 23. 
    You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You decide to a use a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is reached, then continue the mission. Which movement method did you elect to use?
    • A. 

      Night walking.

    • B. 

      Detour bypass method.

    • C. 

      Contact danger method.

    • D. 

      Contouring around the open area.

  • 24. 
    At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone?
    • A. 

      The security elements.

    • B. 

      The outside buddy teams.

    • C. 

      The inside buddy teams.

    • D. 

      The ambush reserve teams.

  • 25. 
    A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team
    • A. 

      Has a specific target and predetermined location.

    • B. 

      Deploys to attack an enemy in a single kill zone.

    • C. 

      Deploys in two or more related point ambushes.

    • D. 

      Makes visual contact with an enemy force and has time to establish an ambush.

  • 26. 
    During a deliberate ambush, which action is not taken by the assault element?
    • A. 

      Identifying individual sectors of fire as assigned by you, the team leader

    • B. 

      Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning devices.

    • C. 

      Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning device

    • D. 

      Emplacing grenadiers to cover dead space within the kill zone.

  • 27. 
    Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element
    • A. 

      Point

    • B. 

      Linear

    • C. 

      I-shaped

    • D. 

      L-shaped

  • 28. 
    If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone which movement technique?
    • A. 

      Individual

    • B. 

      Fire team.

    • C. 

      Teams organized.

    • D. 

      Bounding fire team.

  • 29. 
    Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?
    • A. 

      In the reverse order that they established their positions

    • B. 

      In the order that they established their position.

    • C. 

      Two at a time so one can cover the other.

    • D. 

      Simultaneously.

  • 30. 
    What does a delay in an economy-of-force operation create to allow other actions to take place?
    • A. 

      Space

    • B. 

      Area

    • C. 

      Time

    • D. 

      Opportunity

  • 31. 
    What are the two types of withdrawals?
    • A. 

      Fast and slow.

    • B. 

      Aid and unaided.

    • C. 

      Assisted and unassisted.

    • D. 

      Forward and backward

  • 32. 
    Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?
    • A. 

      Under Enemy Pressure.

    • B. 

      Thinning the lines.

    • C. 

      Fire teams.

    • D. 

      By squads.

  • 33. 
    Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale?
    • A. 

      S-1.

    • B. 

      S-2.

    • C. 

      S-3.

    • D. 

      S-4 .

  • 34. 
    Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; amd relays weather information?
    • A. 

      S-4.

    • B. 

      S-3.

    • C. 

      S-2.

    • D. 

      S-1.

  • 35. 
    The S-4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations order?
    • A. 

      Paragraph 4.

    • B. 

      Paragraph 3.

    • C. 

      Paragraph 2.

    • D. 

      Paragraph 1.

  • 36. 
    The base commander form the base defense operations center with
    • A. 

      Personnel from the augmentation force

    • B. 

      Personnel who are on temporary duty.

    • C. 

      Personnel from the S-function staff.

    • D. 

      Available base assets.

  • 37. 
    Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?
    • A. 

      Commander, Security Forces.

    • B. 

      Commander, Base Defense Force.

    • C. 

      Commander, Area Defense Force

    • D. 

      Commander, Joint Response Task Force.

  • 38. 
    The CIS is responsilbe for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground combat intelligence. S2 CIS is responsible for all
    • A. 

      ABD affecting the GCI force.

    • B. 

      Support and supply functions.

    • C. 

      GCI affecting the ABD force.

    • D. 

      Operational matters with the ABD force.

  • 39. 
    What is EEI?
    • A. 

      Essential elements of information.

    • B. 

      Essential evaluation information

    • C. 

      Emergency enemy information

    • D. 

      Enemy evaluation information.

  • 40. 
    4Which operational step in the vulnerability/criticality analysis is concerned with determining specific threats?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 41. 
    When interviewing experts individually or as a group, you should ask the key questions during which operational step of the vulnerability, critically analysis?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      2

  • 42. 
    For planning purposes, what is the range for field wire circuits using battery-operated telephones?
    • A. 

      20.0 to 35.4 km.

    • B. 

      22.5 to 34.5 km.

    • C. 

      22.5 to 35.4 km.

    • D. 

      25.2 to 35.4 km.

  • 43. 
    Which installation methods are the easiest  to maintain and provide the most satisfactory service?
    • A. 

      Buried (underwater) wire/cable.

    • B. 

      Aerial (overhead) wire/cable.

    • C. 

      Buried wire/cable.

    • D. 

      Surface wire/cable

  • 44. 
    How often should you conduct visual inspections of individual communications systems equipment?
    • A. 

      Bi-weekly.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Daily.

  • 45. 
    When cleaning communication equipment, what should you use to dust the swithces and light emitting diodes?
    • A. 

      A soft bristled brush.

    • B. 

      An abrasive material.

    • C. 

      A soft damp cloth.

    • D. 

      A lint-free cloth.

  • 46. 
    To avoid injury and circuit damage, what should you always do before replacing components or making adjustments to electronic equipment?
    • A. 

      Clean, dry, and inspect the equipment.

    • B. 

      Remove equipment knobs, wires, and plugs.

    • C. 

      Remove power, discharge, and ground the equipment.

    • D. 

      Remove wires, plugs, and all control knobs.

  • 47. 
    The purpose is the communication security protective measure is to
    • A. 

      Deny unauthorized persons telecommunications information.

    • B. 

      prevent unauthorized users from using our communication system.

    • C. 

      Keep honest people honest by denying the enemy access to our communications equipment

    • D. 

      Listen in on all incoming and outgoing communications in the tactical area of responsibility

  • 48. 
    An authentication system is designed to protect a communications system against the
    • A. 

      Unauthorized use of fraudulent transmissions

    • B. 

      Acceptance of fraudulent transmissions.

    • C. 

      Sending of fraudulent transmissions

    • D. 

      Acceptance of faulty transmissions.

  • 49. 
    Before initiation of a nuclear weapon movement, the convoy commander is responsible for completing a
    • A. 

      Risk/vulnerability assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.

    • B. 

      Risk/location assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place

    • C. 

      Risk/vulnerability assessment and making sure deployment procedures are in place.

    • D. 

      route assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.

  • 50. 
    When conducting a general on-base nuclear weapon movement, which of the following is not an objective of a sweep?  To decrease the possibility of
    • A. 

      Involvement with traffic obstructions.

    • B. 

      Other hazards to safe movement.

    • C. 

      A breakdown in the road.

    • D. 

      Civil disturbances.

  • 51. 
    What is the response time of a back-up force supporting ground movements of nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      5 minutes.

    • B. 

      10 minutes.

    • C. 

      15 minutes.

    • D. 

      30 minutes.

  • 52. 
    Which term is best to use when arranging a general off-base nuclear weapon movement with local authorities?
    • A. 

      Sensitive movement.

    • B. 

      Nuclear movement.

    • C. 

      Secret movement.

    • D. 

      Hot movement.

  • 53. 
    What civilian law enforcement agent will be included in any off-base nuclear movement?
    • A. 

      Local patrolman.

    • B. 

      Deputy chief of police.

    • C. 

      United States Marshal.

    • D. 

      Local Federal Bureau of Investigations agent.

  • 54. 
    In reference to convoy communications, what is the frequency requirement for a convoy program report?
    • A. 

      Every 10 minutes.

    • B. 

      Every 15 minutes.

    • C. 

      Every 20 minutes.

    • D. 

      Every 30 minutes.

  • 55. 
    Most convoy planning in based on unit
    • A. 

      SOP.

    • B. 

      SOI.

    • C. 

      ROI.

    • D. 

      ESBI.

  • 56. 
    While a convoy is moving on a controlled route, where will the start point usually be located?
    • A. 

      Where the convoy commander designates.

    • B. 

      Where you pick up your convoy vehicle.

    • C. 

      At the last checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes

    • D. 

      At the first checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes.

  • 57. 
    Who is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles?
    • A. 

      Vehicle commander noncommissioned officer.

    • B. 

      Commander of the moving unit.

    • C. 

      Assistant driver.

    • D. 

      Driver.

  • 58. 
    When hardening vehicles using sandbags, as an additional precaution, what is placed over the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments?
    • A. 

      An additional layer of sandbags.

    • B. 

      A heavy rubber or fiber mat.

    • C. 

      Camo netting.

    • D. 

      Chicken wire.

  • 59. 
    What is the convoy driver's sector of observation?
    • A. 

      From 9 to 11 o'clock.

    • B. 

      From 6 to 1 o'clock.

    • C. 

      From 9 to 1 o'clock.

    • D. 

      From 11 to 1 o'clock

  • 60. 
    Which formation is used to prevent third party traffic interference with the convoy's ability to change lanes?
    • A. 

      Diamond.

    • B. 

      Inverted "T".

    • C. 

      Changing lanes.

    • D. 

      Block and bump.

  • 61. 
    Which convoy drill is used for small to medium vehicles and not a heavy or tractor-trailor configuration?
    • A. 

      Bailout.

    • B. 

      Downed driver.

    • C. 

      Hasty vehicle recovery.

    • D. 

      In-stride hasty vehicle recovery.

  • 62. 
    Producing combat ready units that respond to known or suspected enemy activity and defeat the enemy is the goal of
    • A. 

      Mission readiness.

    • B. 

      Preparedness.

    • C. 

      Deploying.

    • D. 

      Training.

  • 63. 
     A collective action executed by a flight or smaller element without the application of a deliberate decision-making is a
    • A. 

      Crew drill.

    • B. 

      Battle drill.

    • C. 

      Drill rehearsal.

    • D. 

      Mission training experiment.

  • 64. 
    A collective action that a crew of a weapons system or a piece of equipment must perform to use the weapon or equipment successfully in combat or to preserve life describes a 
    • A. 

      Crew drill.

    • B. 

      Battle drill.

    • C. 

      Drill rehearsal.

    • D. 

      Mission training experiment.

  • 65. 
    If you are acting out the actions that will occur during a mission using the actual vehicles and equipment that will be used to conduct the operation, you are performing which type of mission rehearsal?
    • A. 

      Walk-through.

    • B. 

      Full-scale.

    • C. 

      Back brief.

    • D. 

      Rock drill.

  • 66. 
    When moving parallel to a building during an urban operation, how should you move from one covered position to another covered position?
    • A. 

      Stealthily.

    • B. 

      Quickly.

    • C. 

      Quietly.

    • D. 

      Easily.

  • 67. 
    Before entering a building through a window or door that was created by artillery fire, what should you throw into new entrance to reinforce the effects of the original blast?
    • A. 

      A helmet as a decoy.

    • B. 

      A cooked off hand grenade.

    • C. 

      A white handkerchief.

    • D. 

      A signal flare.

  • 68. 
    You would use precision room clearing techniques when
    • A. 

      The fire team leader feels a precision clearing operation needs to occur in a hostile environment.

    • B. 

      The tactical situation calls for room-by-room clearing of a relatively intact building in which enemy combatants and noncombatants may be intermixed

    • C. 

      You need to replace other techniques currently being used to clear buildings and rooms during high-intensity combat.

    • D. 

      There is a reasonable doubt that insurgents are held up inside the facility you would like to search.

  • 69. 
    What clearing task involves seizing control of the room with the purpose of neutralizing the enemy in the room?
    • A. 

      Precision.

    • B. 

      High threat.

    • C. 

      High energy.

    • D. 

      High intensity.

  • 70. 
    What advantage is gained by performing a rapid, violent assault?
    • A. 

      It conserves badly needed ammunition for future assaults and missions.

    • B. 

      It overwhelms and destroys the enemy force and seizes the objective.

    • C. 

      It only requires minimal manpower, due to the use of pyrotechnics.

    • D. 

      It scares the enemy into simply surrendering the objective at hand.

  • 71. 
    Which of the following statement concerning the reconnaissance in force (precision techniques) is not true?
    • A. 

      It reduces damage.

    • B. 

      It conserves ammunition.

    • C. 

      It causes minimal stress in those involved.

    • D. 

      It minimizes the chance of noncombatant casualties.

  • 72. 
    Which principle of precision room clearing is the key to a successful assault at close quarters?
    • A. 

      Controlled violence of action.

    • B. 

      Surprise.

    • C. 

      Timing.

    • D. 

      Speed.

  • 73. 
    What is often neede to defeat barriers that are more elaborate or to produce a desired effect to aid the initial entry?
    • A. 

      Demolitions

    • B. 

      Battering rams.

    • C. 

      Sledgehammers.

    • D. 

      Small arms (5.56 or 7.62)

  • 74. 
    After entering a room, which enemy threat is engaged first?
    • A. 

      The least immediate enemy threat.

    • B. 

      The most immediate enemy threat.

    • C. 

      The most heavily armed enemy threat.

    • D. 

      The enemy threat furthest from the entry point.

  • 75. 
    When performing building clearing, what must squad and fire team leaders consider to achieve the desired results?
    • A. 

      The method they are to use.

    • B. 

      The task and purpose they have been given.

    • C. 

      The firepower they have been given and the method they are to use.

    • D. 

      The task and purpose they have been given and the method they are to use.

  • 76. 
    Whose duties include the supervision, morale, welfare, and discipline of the flight personnel as well as evaluating the performance of flight personnel?
    • A. 

      Flight Chief

    • B. 

      Flight Commander

    • C. 

      Flight Chief and Flight Commander

    • D. 

      Security Forces Manager

  • 77. 
    What is the primary responsibility of the unit scheduler?
    • A. 

      Review and update the schedule monthly and coordinate and schedule ancillary training with unit duty sections and base agencies.

    • B. 

      Review and update the schedule monthly only.

    • C. 

      Reviews and coordinate ancillary training within each duty sections.

    • D. 

      Schedule monthly training with unit duty sections with each base agencies.

  • 78. 
    Which one do you like? How often does the Stan Eval conduct an inspection on each functional area workcenter?
    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      At least once a year.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 79. 
    When using MWD in security operations, what must you consider prior to posting?
    • A. 

      Wind speed and direction to determine hostile and non-hostile individuals

    • B. 

      Wind speed and direction, locations of resources, and likely avenues of approach.

    • C. 

      Locations of resources and likely avenues of approach.

    • D. 

      Wind speed and direction and avenues of approach.

  • 80. 
    What is the main vehicle for distributing anticipated funding (both direct and reimbursable) for the upcoming execution year in an equitable manner?
    • A. 

      Each squadron's cost center.

    • B. 

      The financial plan.

    • C. 

      The squadron commander.

    • D. 

      The Office of Management and Budget. (OMB).

  • 81. 
    In field conditions, at a minimum, how should category I and II weapons be protected when normal protection is not available?
    • A. 

      Two person concept due to the category of the resources.

    • B. 

      A five minute response from a External SRT

    • C. 

      Constant surveillance.

    • D. 

      30 min. checks by the Internal SRT.

  • 82. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring the ISI is issued, approved, and implemented?
    • A. 

      Chief of security forces.

    • B. 

      Installation Security Council.

    • C. 

      Installation Commander.

    • D. 

      Support Group Commander.

  • 83. 
    What actions must you take if you discover classified material unsecured?
    • A. 

      Notify OSI of the incident.

    • B. 

      Take it to the Law Enforcement desk to be processed as loss items.

    • C. 

      Secure it and notify your security manager or commander of the incident immediately.

    • D. 

      Notify your Security manager only.

  • 84. 
    What is the primary goal of motor vehicle traffic supervision?
    • A. 

      To reduce traffic accidents and maintain a free flow of traffic.

    • B. 

      To try to catch would-be law breakers.

    • C. 

      To better enforce the base's traffic laws.

    • D. 

      To maintain a free flow of traffic in high populated areas

  • 85. 
    What three tests make-up the standard field sobriety tests?
    • A. 

      The one leg stand, walk and turn, horizontal gaze nystagamus.

    • B. 

      Walk and turn, A-B-C count, and the one leg stand.

    • C. 

      Walk and turn, number count, and horizontal gaze nystagamus.

    • D. 

      The one leg stand, walk and turn, and number count.

  • 86. 
    What protection level is contained in controlled areas with owner/users being primarily responsible for security?
    • A. 

      PL 3.

    • B. 

      PL 2.

    • C. 

      PL 4.

    • D. 

      PL 1.

  • 87. 
    What command does the second element leader give their rank upon the approach of the inspecting official?
    • A. 

      "Second element, Attention".

    • B. 

      " Element Attention".

    • C. 

      "Second Element prepare for inspection".

    • D. 

      Nothing, the element is already at attention.

  • 88. 
    In addition to ensure personnel are in possession of the required equipment, what else should the flight chief ensure?
    • A. 

      That the equipment is with the right owner.

    • B. 

      Equipment is in working condition

    • C. 

      The equipment has security markings.

    • D. 

      The equipment has security markings and is in working condition.

  • 89. 
    What should you question your personnel about during post check visits?
    • A. 

      SF basic duties, responsibilities, and (SSIs) Special Security Instructions.

    • B. 

      Procedures for the post and SF basic responsibilities only.

    • C. 

      SF basic duties, responsibilities, (SSIs) Special Security Instructions, and post procedures.

    • D. 

      Nothing, it is just a morale check.

  • 90. 
    Why should you avoid asking questions that could be open for argument?
    • A. 

      To avoid the risk of argument.

    • B. 

      It could turn subordinates off to the real purpose of post checks.

    • C. 

      To avoid the risk of argument and it could turn subordinates off to the real purpose of post checks.

    • D. 

      To avoid the risk of debate.

  • 91. 
    Explain why you, as a supervisor, should maintain a record of each subordinate's qualifications and certifications qualification.
    • A. 

      To assist in assigning posts.

    • B. 

      For a fair post rotation.

    • C. 

      Assists in keeping flight morale high

    • D. 

      To keep up on weapons certifications.

  • 92. 
    What does the SFT program provide a squadron?
    • A. 

      A feedback tool for the squadron commander.

    • B. 

      A standardized unit training that complements other training conducted either through formal courses or through OJT.

    • C. 

      It establishes SF position and performance-oriented training

    • D. 

      A tool used to certify personnel formally in the squadron.

  • 93. 
    Define collective skills training.
    • A. 

      Builds on individual skills training only.

    • B. 

      Collective sills training combine groups of individuals who normally functions as a team.

    • C. 

      It only provides the opportunity to use skills in a team effort.

    • D. 

      It is used for only in air base defense operations training and contingency support operations.

  • 94. 
    While preserving the crime scene, whose names will SF patrolmen record that enters or exits the crime scene?
    • A. 

      Key personnel entering the crime scene.

    • B. 

      All individuals at the scene

    • C. 

      No one, all personnel is pre-announced.

    • D. 

      Non-security personnel.

  • 95. 
    When you are going to release a crime scene to SFOI/AFOSI, when would it be appropriate to advise a suspect of his of her Article 31/5th Amendment rights?
    • A. 

      If the subject wants to talk and SF Investigations/AFOSI have not arrived on-scene.

    • B. 

      When making initial contact with the individual.

    • C. 

      Once they are notified they are part of a crime

    • D. 

      Before speaking to any security forces personnel.

  • 96. 
    What are the key actions during the preliminary examination while searching for evidence?
    • A. 

      Note items, conditions, and locations of all elements.

    • B. 

      Collect fragile items that may suffer contamination only

    • C. 

      Observe and record the area.

    • D. 

      Record the items in relations to each other and to a victim.

  • 97. 
    What do you have to do if you interview a member of the opposite sex?
    • A. 

      A female only.

    • B. 

      Two interviewers or a witness that is of the same gender.

    • C. 

      One interviewer and a camera system

    • D. 

      One interviewer and their supervisor or commander.

  • 98. 
    What are the three elements used for preparing for a suspect interview?
    • A. 

      Know the case, the background of the suspect, and have an estimate of the information you are seeking.

    • B. 

      Know the individual you are questioning and what type of questions you are asking the individual.

    • C. 

      Approach, know the case, and the background of the suspect.

    • D. 

      Approach, information sought, and knows the case.

  • 99. 
    When is the alternating approach used during an interview?
    • A. 

      Never, direct or indirect only.

    • B. 

      When looking for specific information.

    • C. 

      To confuse the suspect to tell the truth.

    • D. 

      During indirect questioning, when you become certain of the suspect's guilt and switch to the direct approach.

  • 100. 
    How do you establish rapport with a suspect during an interview?
    • A. 

      By relating to the suspect through their likes, such as sports.

    • B. 

      By relating to the suspect through their likes, such as sports.

    • C. 

      No rapport is needed during the interview.

    • D. 

      No rapport is needed during the interview.

  • 101. 
    What are the two key elements during an interview?
    • A. 

      Patience and honesty.

    • B. 

      Patience and perseverance.

    • C. 

      Caring and perseverance.

    • D. 

      Acing and honesty.