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100 Questions

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  • 1. 
    (001) The AFI that governs the current wing organization and operation is
    • A. 

      53-3

    • B. 

      39-1

    • C. 

      21-166

    • D. 

      21-101

  • 2. 
    (001) If you are assigned to a base with an OG and a MXG, then the base is applying which wing structure?
    • A. 

      Detached structure

    • B. 

      Centralized structure

    • C. 

      Operational structure

    • D. 

      Decentralized structure

  • 3. 
    (002) Which individual manages the squadron’s cannibalization program?
    • A. 

      Section chief

    • B. 

      Flight line expediter

    • C. 

      Flight commander/chief

    • D. 

      Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent

  • 4. 
    (002) Who is the key individual who allocates the resources for maintenance to meet required mission requirements?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      Resource commander

    • C. 

      Operations commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance commander

  • 5. 
    (002) Directing the overall maintenance effort of their unit is a responsibility of the
    • A. 

      Flight chief

    • B. 

      Squadron commander

    • C. 

      Production superintendent

    • D. 

      Maintenance superintendent

  • 6. 
    (002) Who is responsible for directing the maintenance effort using available resources and participating in the development and execution of the monthly, weekly flying and maintenance schedules/plans?
    • A. 

      Pro super

    • B. 

      MOO.

    • C. 

      QA.

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 7. 
    (003) Who or what coordinating/facilitating entity is responsible for monitoring and supporting the flight-line maintenance effort?
    • A. 

      WOC.

    • B. 

      MOC.

    • C. 

      OG/CC

    • D. 

      MXG/CC

  • 8. 
    (003) When the need for a controlling authority is created by more than one squadron involved in aircraft maintenance, or when squadrons must share resources or facilities, this need is filled by
    • A. 

      QA.

    • B. 

      The maintenance squadron

    • C. 

      The MOC

    • D. 

      The MXG/CC

  • 9. 
    (003) Whose role is it to assess, analyze, and identify problem areas that may exist; assess the quality of training; determine aircraft and equipment condition; and improve reliability/maintainability of aircraft and support equipment?
    • A. 

      Wing commander

    • B. 

      QA.

    • C. 

      Weapons standardization

    • D. 

      MOC.

  • 10. 
    (003) Which activity is a responsibility of the MOC?
    • A. 

      Review the guidance provided by the MXG commander on cross-functional areas

    • B. 

      Ensure maintenance training is provided office, classroom, and hangar space

    • C. 

      Notify appropriate agencies of severe weather warnings

    • D. 

      Ensure quality assurance guidelines are being followed

  • 11. 
    (003) What flight in the maintenance squadron primarily performs off-equipment maintenance of avionics components and electronic warfare systems?
    • A. 

      TMDE flight

    • B. 

      Avionics flight

    • C. 

      Accessory flight.

    • D. 

      Maintenance support flight.

  • 12. 
    (003) If you are working on an aircraft that required a nondestructive inspection, then which flight would most likely be dispatched from the maintenance squadron?
    • A. 

      Avionics flight

    • B. 

      Fabrication flight

    • C. 

      Maintenance support flight

    • D. 

      TMDE flight

  • 13. 
    (004) What publication contains broad, enduring guidance for preparing and employing Air Force resources?
    • A. 

      Mission directives

    • B. 

      Air Force manuals

    • C. 

      Air Force policy directives

    • D. 

      Air Force doctrine documents

  • 14. 
    (004) What are AF policy directives?
    • A. 

      Directives that prescribe the mission, area or responsibility, organization, responsibilities, and command relationships of AF units

    • B. 

      Orders of the SAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct by AF activities at any level.

    • C. 

      Orders of the SAF approved in the Secretariat or the Air Staff and issued as departmental publications

    • D. 

      Guidance documents consisting of procedures that usually contain examples for performing standard tasks

  • 15. 
    (004) Statements of the Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and Headquarters United States Air Force that are used to initiate, govern, or regulate actions are called
    • A. 

      Mission directives.

    • B. 

      Air Force manuals

    • C. 

      Air Force instructions

    • D. 

      Air Force policy directives

  • 16. 
    (005) Informational publications that include procedures for implementing Air Force policies are called
    • A. 

      Indexes.

    • B. 

      Pamphlets.

    • C. 

      Directories.

    • D. 

      Supplements.

  • 17. 
    (005) Informational publications that guide, point out, or otherwise facilitate research are called
    • A. 

      Supplements.

    • B. 

      Directories.

    • C. 

      Pamphlets.

    • D. 

      Indexes.

  • 18. 
    (005) Informational publications that are compilations of systematically arranged information are called
    • A. 

      Supplements.

    • B. 

      Directories.

    • C. 

      Pamphlets.

    • D. 

      Indexes.

  • 19. 
    (006) Who uses MDC system information for validating manpower requirements?
    • A. 

      CC.

    • B. 

      Material command

    • C. 

      HQ USAF

    • D. 

      Work center supervisors

  • 20. 
    (006) The REMIS is designed to provide information to support Air Force
    • A. 

      Equipment maintenance program

    • B. 

      Data for the DDN

    • C. 

      Data for the IMDS

    • D. 

      Document production data for the MDC

  • 21. 
    (007) If you need to tie together all maintenance actions on a specific job, which MDC system data element do you use?
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      Job control number

    • D. 

      Identification number

  • 22. 
    (007) The first five digits of a JCN indicates the
    • A. 

      Year and Julian date.

    • B. 

      Last five digits of the equipment serial number

    • C. 

      First five digits of the equipment serial number

    • D. 

      Month and year that the maintenance discrepancy was discovered

  • 23. 
    007) Which work center contributes labor towards a maintenance requirement?
    • A. 

      Owning work center

    • B. 

      Reporting work center

    • C. 

      Performing work center

    • D. 

      Nonreporting work center

  • 24. 
    (007) The base computer translates equipment ID numbers into all of the following categories except
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Repair action taken

    • C. 

      Owning work center

    • D. 

      Standard reporting designator

  • 25. 
    (007) Which MDC system data element is published in manuals and REMIS tables for each weapon and support system?
    • A. 

      Work unit code

    • B. 

      Work center code

    • C. 

      Job control number

    • D. 

      Identification number

  • 26. 
    (008) The number entered in the TAG NUMBER block of AFTO Form 349 comes from
    • A. 

      A WUC manual

    • B. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • C. 

      The manufacturer’s data plate

    • D. 

      The illustrated parts breakdown

  • 27. 
    (008) What is entered in column C of AFTO Form 349 to document a TCTO?
    • A. 

      The WUC

    • B. 

      The TCTO support general code

    • C. 

      First five characters of the national item identification number

    • D. 

      First five characters of the TCTO data code or command-assigned data code.

  • 28. 
    (008) An entry of any number greater than 1 in column G of AFTO Form 349 indicates the number of
    • A. 

      Units completed

    • B. 

      Units requiring maintenance

    • C. 

      Technicians per unit of work

    • D. 

      Times the action taken was performed

  • 29. 
    (008) The entry in the CAT LAB block on AFTO Form 349 indicates the
    • A. 

      Rank/rating of the technician

    • B. 

      Type of work-hour expenditure.

    • C. 

      Type of equipment being repaired

    • D. 

      Number of technicians performing the work

  • 30. 
    30. (008) An X placed in the SCH CODE block of AFTO Form 349 indicates
    • A. 

      Additional maintenance must be scheduled

    • B. 

      The maintenance action has been completed

    • C. 

      An unscheduled maintenance action has been performed

    • D. 

      The computer must calculate the next calibration or maintenance due date

  • 31. 
    51. (013) One way you can be relieved of property responsibility is to
    • A. 

      Turn the property in to Supply

    • B. 

      Have the property declared surplus

    • C. 

      Have the property declared unserviceable

    • D. 

      Call the base equipment management office

  • 32. 
    53. (014) What document is used to acquire a piece of nonexpendable equipment?
    • A. 

      Tables of allowances.

    • B. 

      Custodian authorization/custody receipt

    • C. 

      AF Form 601

    • D. 

      DD Form 1348-1.

  • 33. 
    31. (008) What block of AFTO Form 349 is checked to indicate actions that affect the historical records of an end-item?
    • A. 

      UNITS.

    • B. 

      SCH CODE

    • C. 

      TYPE MAINT

    • D. 

      RECORDS ACTION

  • 34. 
    32. (008) Which form provides an interface between on- and off-equipment maintenance documentation and serves as an identification and status tag?
    • A. 

      AF Form 2413

    • B. 

      AF Form 2005

    • C. 

      AFTO Form 350

    • D. 

      AFTO Form 349

  • 35. 
    52. (013) What document is used to explain and record the circumstances involving the loss, damage, or destruction of a government equipment item that cost more than $500?
    • A. 

      Report of survey

    • B. 

      A statement of charges

    • C. 

      DD Form 114

    • D. 

      DD Form 362

  • 36. 
    54. (015) The purpose for the aircraft parts store is to
    • A. 

      Support the normal supply squadron functions

    • B. 

      Make assets immediately available to the using activity

    • C. 

      Maintain accurate supply records for each using activity

    • D. 

      Provide one-time issue of tools for maintenance personnel

  • 37. 
    34. (008) What is entered in block 15 of AFTO Form 350 if an item is not repairable?
    • A. 

      A description of the malfunction

    • B. 

      The letters NRTS and the NRTS code

    • C. 

      A brief description of the repair efforts

    • D. 

      Signature of the performing work center supervisor

  • 38. 
    55. (015) The on-hand quantity of bench stock items does not normally exceed
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      60 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      120 days

  • 39. 
    35. (009) How often are IMDS reports produced and sent to higher headquarters?
    • A. 

      Whenever requested

    • B. 

      At scheduled intervals

    • C. 

      At the end of each duty day

    • D. 

      Whenever the form entry count reaches 500

  • 40. 
    56. (016) How does the deficiency reporting system reduce total ownership cost?
    • A. 

      Through process standardization

    • B. 

      Identifies system deficiencies early in its life cycle

    • C. 

      Allows investigative findings to be applied to reappearances

    • D. 

      Provides feedback to the warfighters and other users in the field

  • 41. 
    37. (010) What types of errors may not be detected by IMDS?
    • A. 

      One-of-a-kind entries

    • B. 

      Incorrect menu selections

    • C. 

      Mismatched ID number and WORK UNIT codes

    • D. 

      Mismatched HOW MAL and ACTION TAKEN codes

  • 42. 
    57. (016) The originator sends a draft deficiency report for screening to
    • A. 

      Base Supply

    • B. 

      The screening point

    • C. 

      Option 3

    • D. 

      Option 4

  • 43. 
    57. (016) The originator sends a draft deficiency report for screening to
    • A. 

      Base Supply.

    • B. 

      The screening point

    • C. 

      The squadron commander

    • D. 

      The depot from which the item came

  • 44. 
    39. (010) An online inquiry option can be selected from IMDS screen 099 by inputting the
    • A. 

      Option number

    • B. 

      ID ASSIGNED and the option number

    • C. 

      YR/EVENT ID and the option number

    • D. 

      YR/EVENT ID, WCE, and the option number

  • 45. 
    58. (016) What type of deficiency report requires submission by message within three workdays after the discovery of the deficiency?
    • A. 

      CAT I.

    • B. 

      CAT II.

    • C. 

      Material.

    • D. 

      Software.

  • 46. 
    40. (010) What IMDS screen displays a maintenance snapshot inquiry?
    • A. 

      054.

    • B. 

      122.

    • C. 

      142.

    • D. 

      380.

  • 47. 
    59. (017) Who determines the supply delivery priority based on the severity of the malfunction and its impact on the mission?
    • A. 

      Technician.

    • B. 

      Base Supply

    • C. 

      Lead technician

    • D. 

      Production superintendent

  • 48. 
    60. (017) What UJC would be used for a routine aircraft part?
    • A. 

      AA.

    • B. 

      BA.

    • C. 

      CA.

    • D. 

      DA.

  • 49. 
    42. (011) Which is not part of G081 Automated Maintenance Information System advanced technology?
    • A. 

      Internet access

    • B. 

      Worldwide SATCOM access

    • C. 

      Mobile terminals in flight-line trucks

    • D. 

      Windows based computer operating system

  • 50. 
    61. (018) The TO numbering system is explained in detail in TO
    • A. 

      0-4-2

    • B. 

      0-1-01

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-18

  • 51. 
    43. (011) Under the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System profanity program, who is not contacted by the G081 system when profanity is detected?
    • A. 

      HQ AMC

    • B. 

      G081 system user

    • C. 

      G081 management section

    • D. 

      Logistics group commander

  • 52. 
    45. (011) Of the four types of programs used in the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System, which is considered to be the “heart” of the system?
    • A. 

      VIRP.

    • B. 

      Batch.

    • C. 

      Data input

    • D. 

      Data output.

  • 53. 
    62. (018) The first group of characters in TO number 33D7-10-1 identifies the
    • A. 

      Kind of TO

    • B. 

      Equipment’s major system

    • C. 

      Specific item of equipment

    • D. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO

  • 54. 
    46. (012) One of the basic principles of supply discipline is to
    • A. 

      Use supplies to fulfill any purpose

    • B. 

      Know all equipment items on hand

    • C. 

      Stock excess property until needed

    • D. 

      Effectively safeguard and preserve property

  • 55. 
    48. (012) Which is one of the main reasons Air Force property becomes excess to a unit?
    • A. 

      Hoarding.

    • B. 

      Inaccurate records

    • C. 

      Slow consumption rate.

    • D. 

      Items rendered obsolete

  • 56. 
    63. (018) The JG in TO 1C-141B-2-9JG-10 indicates the
    • A. 

      Specific type of equipment

    • B. 

      Section of a sectionalized TO.

    • C. 

      Functional indicator of the TO

    • D. 

      Specific model

  • 57. 
    64. (019) In the TO system, an index TO contains
    • A. 

      A listing of other TOs

    • B. 

      An index of TO revisions

    • C. 

      A group breakdown of category-specific TOs

    • D. 

      A group breakdown of major Air Force equipment

  • 58. 
    65. (019) In the TO system, which index TO contains a cross-reference listing of data code numbers assigned to active TCTOs?
    • A. 

      0-4-1..

    • B. 

      0-4-2..

    • C. 

      00-5-1

    • D. 

      00-5-2.

  • 59. 
    49. (013) What type of property responsibility requires that directives and instructions be issued?
    • A. 

      Custodial.

    • B. 

      Command.

    • C. 

      Supervisory.

    • D. 

      Administrative.

  • 60. 
    66. (020) Which Air Force technical manuals contain data for the operation and servicing of aircraft equipment?
    • A. 

      Job guides

    • B. 

      Aircraft TOs

    • C. 

      Commercial manuals

    • D. 

      Other equipment TOs

  • 61. 
    68. (020) In the Air Force, COTS technical manuals are normally identified by an
    • A. 

      Assigned TO number

    • B. 

      Equipment part number

    • C. 

      Air Force stock number

    • D. 

      Equipment manufacturer ID number

  • 62. 
    67. (020) Which publications contain instructions for use of equipment, in addition to data contained in other manuals?
    • A. 

      Supplements.

    • B. 

      Other equipment TOs

    • C. 

      Supplemental manuals

    • D. 

      COTS manuals

  • 63. 
    69. (021) What type of TCTO is used to correct conditions that could result in fatal or serious injury?
    • A. 

      Urgent.

    • B. 

      Routine.

    • C. 

      Immediate.

    • D. 

      Emergency.

  • 64. 
    70. (021) What type of TCTO can be identified by red border markings—either red Xs or circled red Xs alternately spaced?
    • A. 

      Routine and urgent

    • B. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • C. 

      Routine and emergency

    • D. 

      Emergency and immediate

  • 65. 
    72. (022) The TO that is not an abbreviated TO is the
    • A. 

      Checklist.

    • B. 

      Automation guide

    • C. 

      Inspection work card

    • D. 

      Inspection sequence chart

  • 66. 
    73. (022) What type of TO is prepared in limited quantities?
    • A. 

      Automation.

    • B. 

      Preliminary.

    • C. 

      Abbreviated.

    • D. 

      Methods and procedures

  • 67. 
    71. (022) Which index lists all Air Force MPTOs?
    • A. 

      TO 0-1-1

    • B. 

      TO 0-1-02

    • C. 

      TO 00-1-02

    • D. 

      TO 00-1-20

  • 68. 
    74. (023) Where are change pages inserted in existing TOs?
    • A. 

      After the last page of the TO

    • B. 

      After the page of the same number

    • C. 

      Before the page of the same number

    • D. 

      In place of the page of the same number

  • 69. 
    76. (024) Before an AFTO Form 22 is submitted, the submitter’s supervisor assesses it in terms of mission impact, personnel and system safety, and
    • A. 

      Budget constraints

    • B. 

      Time required to implement

    • C. 

      Urgency of need for change.

    • D. 

      Approving official’s workload

  • 70. 
    75. (023) The authorized types of TO supplements are
    • A. 

      Routine, safety, and formal

    • B. 

      Routine, safety, and operational

    • C. 

      Safety, operational, and interim

    • D. 

      Interim, safety, and operational

  • 71. 
    77. (024) The types of TO improvement reports are
    • A. 

      Immediate and urgent

    • B. 

      Emergency and urgent.

    • C. 

      Emergency, urgent, and routine

    • D. 

      Emergency, immediate, and routine

  • 72. 
    78. (025) What does the -003 in system/subsystem/subject number 34-11-10-003 identify?
    • A. 

      LRU identification

    • B. 

      SRU identification

    • C. 

      General procedure

    • D. 

      Functional procedure

  • 73. 
    79. (025) What part of GRT number 40-GRT-27-05 identifies the specific test procedure?
    • A. 

      40.

    • B. 

      -GRT.

    • C. 

      -27.

    • D. 

      -05

  • 74. 
    80. (026) What type of OMMS manual would you use to find an overall description of aircraft systems?
    • A. 

      WD.

    • B. 

      GS.

    • C. 

      GV.

    • D. 

      IPB.

  • 75. 
    81. (026) A GS manual provides
    • A. 

      General overview of the aircraft

    • B. 

      Detailed schematics of systems wiring

    • C. 

      Fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures

    • D. 

      Detailed procedures for on-aircraft maintenance

  • 76. 
    82. (026) An FR manual provides
    • A. 

      Detailed schematics of systems wiring

    • B. 

      A means of conveying fault information

    • C. 

      Identity of fault codes at pre-flight briefings

    • D. 

      Fault descriptions and fault isolation procedures

  • 77. 
    83. (026) In fault code 32-41-19-001-2, the -001 identifies faulty
    • A. 

      Subsystem.

    • B. 

      Sub-subsystem

    • C. 

      SRU.

    • D. 

      LRU.

  • 78. 
    84. (027) The introduction to section I of the IPB provides the user the capability of cross-referencing
    • A. 

      Part numbers and figure numbers

    • B. 

      Part numbers and reference designators

    • C. 

      Reference designators and index numbers

    • D. 

      Reference designators and figure numbers

  • 79. 
    85. (028) In section III of the IPB, parts numbers are arranged
    • A. 

      Numerically.

    • B. 

      Alphabetically.

    • C. 

      Alphanumerically.

    • D. 

      By order of assembly

  • 80. 
    86. (029) The ACPINS provides a standardized system that performs all of the tasks listed below except
    • A. 

      Manage software

    • B. 

      Develop software

    • C. 

      Identify software

    • D. 

      Distribute software

  • 81. 
    87. (030) Which major function of the ACPINS provides a short summary of information for each CPIN?
    • A. 

      Compendium requirements

    • B. 

      Interactive CPIN assignments

    • C. 

      Compendiums and cross-references

    • D. 

      CPIN data entry and database management

  • 82. 
    88. (030) Which ACPINS major function is used to deny unauthorized requests?
    • A. 

      Distribution.

    • B. 

      Requirements.

    • C. 

      Management products

    • D. 

      Data entry and database maintenance

  • 83. 
    89. (031) How many separate components may a CPIN have?
    • A. 

      One.

    • B. 

      Two.

    • C. 

      Three.

    • D. 

      Four.

  • 84. 
    90. (031) A CPIN prefix indicates that the CPIN is
    • A. 

      A revision

    • B. 

      Identified for a specific category

    • C. 

      Assigned a major function identifier

    • D. 

      Assigned to a country standard CSCI

  • 85. 
    91. (031) How many CPIN identifier fields are there?
    • A. 

      Three.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Five.

    • D. 

      Six.

  • 86. 
    92. (031) In the CPIN identifier, the first field consists of
    • A. 

      Software-type code

    • B. 

      CSCI baseline code

    • C. 

      Subsystem and system codes

    • D. 

      Category and major function codes

  • 87. 
    93. (032) How many general types of ACPINS compendiums are there?
    • A. 

      Three.

    • B. 

      Four.

    • C. 

      Five.

    • D. 

      Six.

  • 88. 
    94. (032) An ACPINS cross-reference compendium contains
    • A. 

      Command managed CPINS

    • B. 

      Quick references for research aids

    • C. 

      CSCIs assigned to major equipment

    • D. 

      A list of currently published ACPINS compendiums

  • 89. 
    95. (032) An ACPINS command compendium contains
    • A. 

      Country standard CSCIs

    • B. 

      Equipment to part number CPINS

    • C. 

      CSCIs assigned to fields of technology

    • D. 

      CPINs identified with a MAJCOM designator

  • 90. 
    96. (033) Which security classification guide section would list the transmit frequency of an electronic warfare system?
    • A. 

      Hardware.

    • B. 

      Operational data

    • C. 

      Performance and capabilities

    • D. 

      Funding, procurement, and production

  • 91. 
    97. (034) The SF 702 is used to
    • A. 

      List and record security inspection items

    • B. 

      Approve the storage of classified material

    • C. 

      Document opening and closure of the security container

    • D. 

      Provide an inventory of classified material in the security container

  • 92. 
    98. (034) If you order a Secret classified asset from base supply, what do you need to receive custody of the asset?
    • A. 

      Have a military identification card and valid need to know

    • B. 

      Hold a Top Secret security clearance and valid need to know

    • C. 

      Have a valid need to know and be listed on an authorized roster

    • D. 

      Have a military identification card and be listed on an authorized roster

  • 93. 
    99. (035) If an owner or user does not stay with an aircraft containing Secret classified equipment, how often will security forces perform periodic checks?
    • A. 

      On an hourly basis

    • B. 

      Once every eight hours

    • C. 

      No less than every three hours

    • D. 

      A continuous guard will be posted

  • 94. 
    38. (010) Which IMDS screen can be viewed and option-selected to allow narratives in a specific job data record that is to be modified?
    • A. 

      A. 907, option 12.

    • B. 

      B. 907, option 14.

    • C. 

      C. 929, option 12.

    • D. 

      D. 929, option 14.

  • 95. 
    47. (012) Supply discipline is best described as
    • A. 

      A. protection given to Air Force resources.

    • B. 

      B. command-directed supply procedures.

    • C. 

      C. instructions given to protect Air Force resources.

    • D. 

      D. extra consideration to get the most from available resources.

  • 96. 
    58. (016) What type of deficiency report requires submission by message within three workdays after the discovery of the deficiency?
    • A. 

      A. CAT I.

    • B. 

      B. CAT II.

    • C. 

      C. Material.

    • D. 

      D. Software.

  • 97. 
    44. (011) What must the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System user have prior to accessing the system?
    • A. 

      A. SSSN/ID and password.

    • B. 

      B. USER/ID and password.

    • C. 

      C. USER/ID and access code.

    • D. 

      D. SSSN/ID and access code.

  • 98. 
    41. (011) Which is not a function of the G081 Automated Maintenance Information System?
    • A. 

      A. Mission scheduling.

    • B. 

      B. Maintenance scheduling.

    • C. 

      C. Personnel leave scheduling.

    • D. 

      D. Personnel training management.

  • 99. 
    73. (022) What type of TO is prepared in limited quantities?
    • A. 

      A. Automation.

    • B. 

      B. Preliminary.

    • C. 

      C. Abbreviated.

    • D. 

      D. Methods and procedures.

  • 100. 
    100. (035) In the event of an emergency landing, responsibility for the security of classified equipment on an aircraft rests with the
    • A. 

      A. aircraft commander.

    • B. 

      B. unit commander.

    • C. 

      C. allied base commander.

    • D. 

      D. receiving base’s wing commander.