ALS Skills
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- 1.
- A.
For administration of resuscitation medication
- B.
For life threatening fluid volume administration
- C.
A and B
- D.
Any time just like a regular IV
- 2.In a non life threatening emegency, medical consultation is required for all ALS providers to access a patient's central venous access cateter.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 3.CPAP is indicated for patients under 15 years of age.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 4.The easyTube 28 Fr is indicated for what size patients?
- A.
35-51 inches or 3-4 ft
- B.
Patient over 75 inches
- C.
Patients over 51 inches
- D.
Patients below 35 inches
- 5.The easyTube 41 Fr is indicated for what size patients?
- A.
Patients under 51 inches
- B.
Patients over 51 inches or over 4 feet
- C.
Patients under 35 inches
- D.
All of the above
- 6.An EasyTube can be used in a patient that is under 35.5 inches or 3 feet.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 7.
- A.
A oxygen saturation of less than or equal to 90% in a patient on 100% be face mask and respiratory distress
- B.
Allowable in closed head injury patients with clenched teeth
- C.
A respiratory rate of 8 or less or greater than 35 a minute
- D.
Loss of gag reflex
- 8.
- A.
Patient receiving anticoagulants
- B.
Upper airway hemorrhage or significant mid-facial trauma
- C.
Patient less than 12 years of age
- D.
Patient with cerebral spinal fluid leakage or evidence of basilar skull fracture
- 9.
- A.
Patients with a suspected simple pneumothorax
- B.
Patient whose tension pneumothorax can be relieved by the removal of an occlusive dressing from an open chest wound
- C.
A and B
- D.
Patien with direct damage to the chest
- 10.A patient must be unconscious and supine before direct laryngoscopy is attempted.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 11.Patient can be defibrillate while moving in an ambulance.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 12.Adult (12 years and older) are paced at 80 beats per minute.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 13.Infants (less than 1 year) should be paced at what rate?
- A.
60 BPM
- B.
120 BPM
- C.
100 BPM
- D.
80 BPM
- 14.Children (1-11 years) should be paced at what rate?
- A.
100 BPM
- B.
75 BPM
- C.
150 BPM
- D.
175 BPM
- 15.
- A.
A patient trapped in heavy machinery requiring pain management to perform extrication
- B.
A patient survivng a building collapse requiring an amputation to enable extrication
- C.
A patient with prolonged extrication requiring advanced fluid resuscitation including the administration of blood products
- D.
Insertion of chest tubes or gastric and urinary catheters during the corse of prolonged extrication
- E.
Requested by the on-scene incident commander
- 16.If unable to initiate an IV and blood glucose is less than 70mg/dl administer glucagon 1 mg IM for adults and 0.5 mg if patient is less than 25 kg.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 17.Medical consultation is needed to administer an additional dose of dextrose if blood glucose is less 40 mg/dl after the first dose.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 18.
- A.
The distal tibial site
- B.
Proximal tibial site
- C.
Proximal humerus site
- D.
The sternum
- 19.An IO needle with 18 G should be used in patients less than 3 kg.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 20.
- A.
V-Fib
- B.
Ventricular tachycardia without a pulse or BP
- C.
Bradycardia
- D.
A-Fib
- E.
A Flutter
- 21.
- A.
360 J monophasic or 120-200 J biphasic
- B.
50 J
- C.
2 J/kg
- D.
All of the above
- 22.The initial pediatric energy dose for defibrillating should be 2 J/kg (monophasic or biphasic) with subsequent doses at 4 J/kg, 6 J/kg, 8 J/kg, and such.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 23.
- A.
Initial 50 J; Subsequent 100 J, 200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- B.
Initial 360 J; Subsequent 100 J
- C.
Initial 100 J; Subsequent 200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- D.
200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- 24.
- A.
300 J, 360 J
- B.
Initial 200 J; Subsequent 200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- C.
Initial 100 J; Subsequent 200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- D.
Initial 50 J; Subsequent 100 J, 200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- 25.
- A.
Initial 100 J; Subsequent 200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- B.
Initial 50 J; Subsequent 200 J, 300 J, 360 J
- C.
Initial 200 J; Subsequent 300 J, 360 J,
- D.
Initial 50 J; Subsequent 100 J, 150 J, 200 J
- 26.
- A.
Initial 0.5 J/kg or the lowest setting; Subsequent 1 J/kg, 2 J/kg, 4 J/kg, and such
- B.
Initial 10 J/kg; Subsequent 20 J/kg, 25 J/kg, 50 J/kg, and such
- C.
Initial 1 J/kg ; Subsequent 5 J/kg, 10 J/kg, 15 J/kg, and such
- D.
None of the above
- 27.Patient suffering from tachydysrhythmias due to digitalis toxicity should be cardioverted.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 28.An unsynchronized shock can result in V Fib.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 29.
- A.
70 mg/dl
- B.
30 mg/dl
- C.
50 mg/dl
- D.
100 mg/dl
- 30.If a stroke patient is hypotensive, medical consultation should be obtained to determine what treatment should be provided.
- A.
True
- B.
False
- 31.
- A.
GCS less than 13
- B.
2 or more proximal long-bone fractures
- C.
Exposure to blast or explosion
- D.
Chest wall deformity
- E.
Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle
- F.
Crushed, degloved, mangled, or pulseless extremity
- G.
Open or depressed skull fracture
- H.
Penetrating injuries to head, neck, torso, or extremities proximal to elbow and knee
- I.
Pelvic fracture
- J.
Paralysis (spine)
- K.
Falls greater than 20 ft
- 32.
- A.
High risk auto crash
- B.
Falls greater than 20 feet for adults and 3 times the height for a pediatric patient
- C.
Exposure to blast or explosion
- D.
Auto vs pedestrian/bicyclist greater than 20 mph
- E.
Motorcycle crash greater than 20 mph
- 33.
- A.
Older adults
- B.
Children
- C.
Burns without other trauma
- D.
Pregnancy greater than 20 weeks
- E.
Bleeding disorders
- F.
EMS provider judgment
- 34.
- A.
Hypovolemia
- B.
Hypoxia
- C.
Hydrogen ion (acidosis)
- D.
Hypo-/hyperkalemia
- E.
Hypoglycemia
- F.
Hypothermia
- G.
Toxins
- H.
Tamonade
- I.
Tension pneumothorax
- J.
Thrombus
- K.
Trauma
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