4n071 Volume 1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 628

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The movement of stabilized patients from forward medical locations to another pre-arranged destination is the definition of
    • A. 

      AEF

    • B. 

      EMEDS

    • C. 

      AE

    • D. 

      AFTH

  • 2. 
    What kind of change to casualty survival rates occurs when AE is available?
    • A. 

      Significantly increase

    • B. 

      Significantly Decrease

    • C. 

      Increase by only 10%

    • D. 

      Decrease by only 10%

  • 3. 
    What is the ratio of C-17's used for EMEDS versus 25 bed air transportable hospital?
    • A. 

      1:2

    • B. 

      1.7:3

    • C. 

      3:1

    • D. 

      4:2

  • 4. 
    The EMEDS components are broken down into which 3 increments
    • A. 

      25 bed ATH, Clinical units and UTC's

    • B. 

      AEF, EMEDS, AFTH

    • C. 

      EMEDS intermediate, ATH, UTC

    • D. 

      EMEDS Basic, +10, +25

  • 5. 
    Which EMEDS increment has no inpatient beds?
    • A. 

      EMEDS Basic

    • B. 

      EMEDS +10

    • C. 

      EMEDS +25

    • D. 

      All EMEDS have inpatient beds

  • 6. 
    Which EMEDS increment is capable of performing 10 major surgeries in 24 hours?
    • A. 

      Only AFTHS have surgery capabilities

    • B. 

      EMEDS +25

    • C. 

      EMEDS +10

    • D. 

      EMEDS Basic

  • 7. 
    Who is qualified to preform a critical incident stress debriefing
    • A. 

      Mental Health personnel and the AEF/EMEDS CC

    • B. 

      Aerospace Medical Specialist and AEF/EMEDS CC

    • C. 

      Mental Health personnel and Aerospace Medical Specialists with additional training

    • D. 

      The AEF/EMEDS CC and Aerospace Medical Specialist with additional training

  • 8. 
    UTC FFEP1, the Expanded Critical Care team will be operational within how many hours upon arrival?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      24

    • C. 

      36

    • D. 

      72

  • 9. 
    EMEDS Basic requires both routine AE support and urgent AE support within how many hours of notification?
    • A. 

      12 Routine / 2 Urgent

    • B. 

      12 Routine / 4 Urgent

    • C. 

      24 Routine / 12 Urgent

    • D. 

      36 Routine / 24 Urgent

  • 10. 
    What capabilities does UTC FFMFS, Medical Mobile Field Surgical Team, responsible for providing?
    • A. 

      Only provides care for battle injured using pain meds and blood transfusion

    • B. 

      Set up operations aside from main EMEDS location

    • C. 

      Provide care to all battle wounded where they are found

    • D. 

      Provide primary disaster medical capability for EMEDS

  • 11. 
    How many personnel are assigned to EMEDS +10?
    • A. 

      26

    • B. 

      36

    • C. 

      56

    • D. 

      76

  • 12. 
    How many tents make up the EMEDS +10?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 13. 
    How many critical care patients can the EMEDS +10 care for
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      7

  • 14. 
    What combination of teams makes up the EMEDS +25
    • A. 

      EMEDS Basic, UTC FFEP4, UTC FFEE3

    • B. 

      EMEDS +10, UTC FFEP4/5, UTC FFEE3

    • C. 

      EMEDS Basic, EMEDS +10, UTC FFEE3

    • D. 

      EMEDS Basic, EMEDS +10, UTC FFEP4/5, UTC FFEE3

  • 15. 
    What is the total number of personnel assigned to EMEDS +25
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      51

    • C. 

      86

    • D. 

      94

  • 16. 
    EMEDS +25 provides primary care support for how many personnel
    • A. 

      3000-5000

    • B. 

      6000-8000

    • C. 

      9000/10000

    • D. 

      11000-13000

  • 17. 
    How many major surgeries are the EMEDS +25 teams able to provide in 72 hours?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      25

  • 18. 
    Which EMEDS increment provides advanced surgical and trauma support
    • A. 

      EMEDS Intermediate

    • B. 

      EMEDS Basic

    • C. 

      EMEDS +10

    • D. 

      EMEDS +25

  • 19. 
    What function does UTC FFEP5, Expeditionary Medical Support Surgical Augmentation team, provide
    • A. 

      24 hour sick call

    • B. 

      24 hour surgical capability

    • C. 

      24 hour AE support

    • D. 

      24 hour medical logistics

  • 20. 
    The Medical Mental Health Augmentation Team UTC FFGKU deploys in conjunction with
    • A. 

      FFCCT - Medical Critical Care Air Transportation Team

    • B. 

      FFBAT - Medical Biological Augmentation Team

    • C. 

      FFGKV - Medical Mental Health Rapid Response Team

    • D. 

      FFCCS - Critical Care Air Transportation support package

  • 21. 
    AF/ARC has how many personnel assigned
    • A. 

      67

    • B. 

      6700

    • C. 

      6,700

    • D. 

      67,000

  • 22. 
    AF/ARC has how many unit assigned aircraft
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      40

    • C. 

      400

    • D. 

      4000

  • 23. 
    How many Individual Mobilization Augmentees are assigned to AF/ARC
    • A. 

      1700

    • B. 

      7000

    • C. 

      17000

    • D. 

      70000

  • 24. 
    How many AF Reserve units are located in the U.S.
    • A. 

      60

    • B. 

      600

    • C. 

      6000

    • D. 

      60000

  • 25. 
    Aerospace Medical Service Superintendent, 4N091, is eligible to fill what positions
    • A. 

      Section Squadron Superintendent and MAJCOM Functional

    • B. 

      Group Superintendent and Functional

    • C. 

      CFM and Group Superintendent

    • D. 

      CFM and MAJCOM Functional

  • 26. 
    The AFCFM has what skill level
    • A. 

      4N000

    • B. 

      4N031

    • C. 

      4N051

    • D. 

      4N071

  • 27. 
    What percentage of the Air Force do SMSgt's make up
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 28. 
    What conference can you attend where you will have input to the CFETP
    • A. 

      Utilization and Training Workshop

    • B. 

      Executive Leadership Symposium

    • C. 

      Medical Service Managers Conference

    • D. 

      SKT Rewrite

  • 29. 
    The AFCFM utilizes what survey to determine jobs currently being performed by the career field
    • A. 

      Occupational Survey Report and Job Inventory Survey

    • B. 

      Health Evaluation Assessment Review and Enlisted Stratification Report

    • C. 

      Occupational Survey Report and Enlisted Stratification Report

    • D. 

      Health Evaluation Assessment Review and Job Inventory Survey

  • 30. 
    Who develops and maintains currency of the CFETP
    • A. 

      Group Superintendent

    • B. 

      Surgeon General

    • C. 

      CFM

    • D. 

      CDC Writer

  • 31. 
    When taking over as the custodian for a new supply account, what is the FIRST task to be accomplished
    • A. 

      Contact MEMO so they can perform an inventory

    • B. 

      Contact the group superintendent to perform an inventory

    • C. 

      Ensure you involve the entire duty section to perform an inventory

    • D. 

      Ensure you and the current custodian perform a thorough inventory

  • 32. 
    When do you submit an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, for a piece of equipment that needs replacing
    • A. 

      At the end of the month

    • B. 

      At the end of the year

    • C. 

      When the need for new equipment is identified

    • D. 

      When the "fall-out" money is available for new equipment

  • 33. 
    When transferring equipment who is required to initiate the AF Form 601 transfer request?
    • A. 

      The gaining custodian

    • B. 

      MTF CC

    • C. 

      Flight Chief

    • D. 

      The losing custodian

  • 34. 
    When requesting repairs on equipment a work order is submitted listing the malfunction to the
    • A. 

      Biomedical Equipment Repair Office

    • B. 

      Logistics department

    • C. 

      Previous Custodian

    • D. 

      Facility manager

  • 35. 
    Which equipment management list indicated each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility
    • A. 

      The custody receipt/locator list

    • B. 

      The equipment support list

    • C. 

      Back order equipment list

    • D. 

      Equipment turn-in list

  • 36. 
    How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      14

    • C. 

      20

    • D. 

      30

  • 37. 
    One man hour is the equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for how many minutes
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      90

  • 38. 
    The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade and skill level table, approved variances, and a processes analysis summary is the definition of a manpower
    • A. 

      Authorization

    • B. 

      Standard

    • C. 

      Requirement

    • D. 

      Unit measure

  • 39. 
    Information found in this document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within a MTF
    • A. 

      Unit Manpower Document

    • B. 

      Manpower Request Document

    • C. 

      Mission Support Plan Document

    • D. 

      Manpower Requirement Document

  • 40. 
    What is the numeric code that identifies a particular task that may also include an alpha prefix or suffix
    • A. 

      AFSC

    • B. 

      Program Element Code

    • C. 

      Position number

    • D. 

      Job number

  • 41. 
    What annotates special experience and training not otherwise reflected in the classification system
    • A. 

      Individuals required grade

    • B. 

      SEI

    • C. 

      Organizational Structure code

    • D. 

      Functional Account Code

  • 42. 
    Each position in the UMD is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end
    • A. 

      1 Jun / 30 May

    • B. 

      1 Jan / 31 Dec

    • C. 

      1 Sep / 30 Aug

    • D. 

      1 Oct / 30 Sep

  • 43. 
    Who authorizes changes to manpower requests
    • A. 

      Logistics Officer

    • B. 

      MTF CC

    • C. 

      Group Superintendent

    • D. 

      Resource Management Office

  • 44. 
    When considering the time management process, what is the first element you should take into account
    • A. 

      Identifying

    • B. 

      Prioritizing

    • C. 

      Organizing

    • D. 

      Planning

  • 45. 
    What is the most efficient time management tool utilized
    • A. 

      Categorizing priorities

    • B. 

      Streamlining priorities

    • C. 

      Memorizing priorities

    • D. 

      Creating priorities

  • 46. 
    When reviewing and approving staff schedules, with whom does the responsibility lie
    • A. 

      NCOIC / Nurse manager

    • B. 

      Group Superintendent

    • C. 

      Chief Nurse

    • D. 

      Flight Chief

  • 47. 
    When developing a schedule which publication would you reference to ensure you are following policy
    • A. 

      AFI 36-2618

    • B. 

      AFI 36-2903

    • C. 

      AFI 36-3003

    • D. 

      AFI 10-248

  • 48. 
    Which would not be referenced in a local unit operating instruction
    • A. 

      Off duty education

    • B. 

      Civilian employment

    • C. 

      Preparation of schedules

    • D. 

      Orientation plans

  • 49. 
    When considering adequate staffing coverage what must you know
    • A. 

      Sex of staff members

    • B. 

      Knowledge of staff members

    • C. 

      Patient preferences

    • D. 

      Patient census

  • 50. 
    When scheduling duties how many hours between shifts should you allow
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      8.5

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      6

  • 51. 
    The conventional schedule is the easiest to develop because everyone works how many hour days
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      6

  • 52. 
    Why are position descriptions and performance standards in place
    • A. 

      To protect the supervisor from any liability

    • B. 

      To protect staff from being asked to do things they are not qualified to do

    • C. 

      To allow members to orient quicker

    • D. 

      It is mandated

  • 53. 
    When you want to document the quality of quantity of a task where would you write it
    • A. 

      Job description

    • B. 

      Performance description

    • C. 

      Performance standard

    • D. 

      Position descripton

  • 54. 
    When developing performance standards what must you do FIRST
    • A. 

      State job duties clearly

    • B. 

      Complete the unit orientation checklist

    • C. 

      Complete an initial performance feedback

    • D. 

      Take input from all workers on the unit

  • 55. 
    Performance can be broken down into what two types of criteria
    • A. 

      Visible and qualitative

    • B. 

      Visible and quantitative

    • C. 

      Qualitative and understood

    • D. 

      Qualitative and quantitative

  • 56. 
    When performance can be evaluated by how much, how fast or how often what performance criterion do you use
    • A. 

      Qualitative

    • B. 

      Understood

    • C. 

      Quantitative

    • D. 

      Visible

  • 57. 
    What document contains complete information regarding education and training
    • A. 

      Specialty Training Standard

    • B. 

      Career field education and training plan

    • C. 

      AF Form 156, Student training report

    • D. 

      AF Form 623a, OJT Continuation record

  • 58. 
    When upgrading to a 7 skill level, what is the MINIMUM time needed in training in months
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      18

    • D. 

      24

  • 59. 
    When referring to tasks applicable to the members duty section, which document would you need
    • A. 

      CFETP

    • B. 

      JQS

    • C. 

      STS

    • D. 

      MTL

  • 60. 
    When there are new personnel arriving to your duty section, which document would you need
    • A. 

      CFETP

    • B. 

      6 part folder

    • C. 

      Maintenance record

    • D. 

      MTP

  • 61. 
    When there are approved changes to the CFETP, who is the approval authority
    • A. 

      MTF CC

    • B. 

      USAF Surgeon General

    • C. 

      Education and Training flight

    • D. 

      MAJCOM Functional Manager

  • 62. 
    When looking for specific tasks that are performed in a duty section, where would you look
    • A. 

      MTL

    • B. 

      MTP

    • C. 

      Qualification training packets

    • D. 

      CFETP

  • 63. 
    The CFETP is constructed during the
    • A. 

      Air Staff Conference

    • B. 

      Executive Leadership Conference

    • C. 

      Medical Service Managers Meeting

    • D. 

      Utilization and Training Workshop

  • 64. 
    Re-engineering primary care services known as Primary Care Optimization and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector are being accomplished through
    • A. 

      TRICARE

    • B. 

      Managed Care

    • C. 

      Population Health Management

    • D. 

      Military Health Service Management

  • 65. 
    When enrolling in TRICARE Prime, what important decision is made
    • A. 

      How many appointments you will need in one year

    • B. 

      What type of specialty care you would like

    • C. 

      What facility you will choose for inpatient care

    • D. 

      Who your PCM will be to care for your family

  • 66. 
    What tool is used to assist PCM's in managing care for their enrolled population
    • A. 

      Health Evaluation Assessment Review

    • B. 

      PCM Review

    • C. 

      Occupational Survey Report

    • D. 

      Job Inventory Survey

  • 67. 
    To assess, monitor and encourage the demand for needed prevention services in the community are the goals for what kind of population health management
    • A. 

      Demand management

    • B. 

      Condition management

    • C. 

      Community health management

    • D. 

      Occupational health management

  • 68. 
    The demand management concept is based off what foundation
    • A. 

      Referring patients for specialty health care

    • B. 

      Assessing already ill patients

    • C. 

      Curing patients through treatment

    • D. 

      Teaching patients about prevention

  • 69. 
    When properly executed, condition management can provide
    • A. 

      The opportunity to seek care by any provider available

    • B. 

      Continuity in provider practices

    • C. 

      Increased health care costs

    • D. 

      Lower health care costs

  • 70. 
    What classifies health care financing for the poor
    • A. 

      TRICARE for Life

    • B. 

      TRICARE Standard

    • C. 

      Medicare

    • D. 

      Medicaid

  • 71. 
    Health Maintenance organizations gained federal support for corporate practices in
    • A. 

      1970

    • B. 

      1972

    • C. 

      1973

    • D. 

      1975

  • 72. 
    What is one of the goals upon which the TRICAR program was founded
    • A. 

      Divide the military services health care facilities

    • B. 

      Keep the retiree population out of MTF's

    • C. 

      Have all patients self treat at home

    • D. 

      Improve beneficiary access to care

  • 73. 
    With which Health Maintenance Organization does Region 2, the Mid-Atlantic area of the U.S., have a contract to manage TRICARE
    • A. 

      Health Net Federal Services

    • B. 

      Through a lead agent

    • C. 

      Sierra HMO

    • D. 

      Humana

  • 74. 
    Which of the TRICARE options is a fee for service
    • A. 

      TRICARE Prime

    • B. 

      TRICARE Standard

    • C. 

      TRICARE Extra

    • D. 

      TRICARE For Life

  • 75. 
    TRICARE for Life was made available
    • A. 

      1 Sep 96

    • B. 

      30 Oct 99

    • C. 

      30 Sep 00

    • D. 

      1 Oct 01

  • 76. 
    A 45 y/o patient presents to the emergency room with pain to her extremities. She complains the pain is worse at night. What type of neuropathy does she have?
    • A. 

      Focal

    • B. 

      Peripheral

    • C. 

      Proximal

    • D. 

      Autonomic

  • 77. 
    A patient just experienced a hypoglycemic episode. Which neuropathy affects the body system that restores blood glucose levels to normal?
    • A. 

      Autonomic

    • B. 

      Focal

    • C. 

      Peripheral

    • D. 

      Proximal

  • 78. 
    Why do you suction a tracheostomy tube?
    • A. 

      Promote a positive outlook for the patients family

    • B. 

      Clear the upper airway from any foreign body

    • C. 

      Remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage

    • D. 

      Clear out the vocal cords for better speech understanding

  • 79. 
    When you convers the units 0.001 grams what is the equivilent
    • A. 

      Milligram

    • B. 

      Centigram

    • C. 

      Microgram

    • D. 

      Decigram

  • 80. 
    When reviewing a medication order, the dosage ordered by the provider is different than the dosage of the medication supplied what is the first thing you need to do?
    • A. 

      Contact the provider

    • B. 

      Contact the nurse

    • C. 

      Perform conversions

    • D. 

      Calculate the order

  • 81. 
    When you gather supplies to approximate a wound, what can be used in place of sutures or staples?
    • A. 

      Pressure dressing

    • B. 

      Skin closure strips

    • C. 

      Band aid

    • D. 

      Occlusive dressing

  • 82. 
    When you have a patient who is apprehensive about needles and injections, which local anesthetic would you use to ease the pain
    • A. 

      Digital block

    • B. 

      Topical anesthetic

    • C. 

      Local infiltration

    • D. 

      Xylocaine

  • 83. 
    When calling housekeeping to clean a room what must the Aerospace Medical Service Craftsman still perform
    • A. 

      Empty trash container

    • B. 

      Terminally clean nonmedical equipment when patients are released from care

    • C. 

      Empty sharps containers

    • D. 

      Mop/clean any slipping hazards

  • 84. 
    A patient checks into your clinic for same day surgery; what can you do to improve your customer service skills and make the patient feel at ease
    • A. 

      Build rapport and make a good first impression

    • B. 

      Ask your peers what works for them

    • C. 

      Never show empathy or concern

    • D. 

      Take as many classes on your off duty time to improve your customer service skills

  • 85. 
    You notice a patient looking lost at the main entrance of the hospital. You approach and ask if he needs assistance. The patient proceeds to complain about a previous visit with their provider. When attempting to resolve this issue, at what level should you initiate resolution?
    • A. 

      Lowest level

    • B. 

      Squadron commander level

    • C. 

      Hospital commander level

    • D. 

      Wing commander level

  • 86. 
    Why do you let the provider know if a QRS complex is wider than 3 blocks?
    • A. 

      Because the left atria is pacing the heart

    • B. 

      Because of a possible heart block

    • C. 

      You don't need to, the ventricles are normal

    • D. 

      Because of ventricular repolarization

  • 87. 
    Why do you need to know if your patient is dehydrated or on drugs prior to performing an ECG
    • A. 

      Because it elevates the P wave

    • B. 

      Because it decreases the P wave

    • C. 

      Because it gives an abnormal reading

    • D. 

      It could influence the QT interval

  • 88. 
    When you attempt to revive a patient, prior to administering any electricity to the heart what must you do
    • A. 

      Do a capillary refill

    • B. 

      Take the patients temperature

    • C. 

      Take the patients pulse

    • D. 

      Ask about all the patients medications

  • 89. 
    When there is no electrical activity in the heart the individual is in what arrhythmia
    • A. 

      Asystole

    • B. 

      Ventricular fibrillation

    • C. 

      Pulseless electrical activity

    • D. 

      Pulseless ventricular tachycardia

  • 90. 
    When you identify a member with a disability or medical condition what is the first step of the evaluation process
    • A. 

      MEB

    • B. 

      Appointment with the PCM

    • C. 

      PHA

    • D. 

      Applying an ALC

  • 91. 
    Why do you think medical standards and disqualifying medical conditions are more stringent for flyers
    • A. 

      Flyers are TDY more frequently

    • B. 

      Flyers are held to a higher standard

    • C. 

      Because they are a significant operational necessity of their mission

    • D. 

      Because flyer examinations happen ever 2 years

  • 92. 
    When a MEB has determined the individual is fit for duty, who is responsible to review the case and determine the need of an ALC
    • A. 

      HQ AFOC/DPAMM

    • B. 

      HQ MAJCOM

    • C. 

      Flight Surgeon

    • D. 

      MDG/CC

  • 93. 
    Which condition would a member me most likely to have an ALC-C?
    • A. 

      Pregnancy

    • B. 

      Hypertension

    • C. 

      OSA

    • D. 

      Mild Depression

  • 94. 
    When you are conducting medical reviews which circumstance would require a follow up
    • A. 

      Incomplete PHA

    • B. 

      Current Profile

    • C. 

      Completed lab work

    • D. 

      Patients last visit greater than 6 months

  • 95. 
    When would you instruct aircrew to use soft contact lenses
    • A. 

      Only during sleeping hours

    • B. 

      Only during waking hours

    • C. 

      Only during flight

    • D. 

      Any time they want

  • 96. 
    When you have patients that are new soft contact lens wearers, how often are the follow ups
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Every 6 Months

    • C. 

      One month, 6 Months, and yearly

    • D. 

      One week, one month, six months, yearly

  • 97. 
    Who is the on-scene commander for an accident on base
    • A. 

      Fire Chief

    • B. 

      Wing/CC

    • C. 

      Installation/CC

    • D. 

      Emergency Medical Technician

  • 98. 
    Once triage is complete, communicate patient transport through the
    • A. 

      Medical Control Center

    • B. 

      Command Post

    • C. 

      Security Forces

    • D. 

      Unit Control Center

  • 99. 
    Where would you send specimens being processed from aircrew fatalities
    • A. 

      AFPC

    • B. 

      Air Force institute of Pathology

    • C. 

      MTF

    • D. 

      Medical Control Center

  • 100. 
    Why would you choose the freezing method of preserving tissue
    • A. 

      Its the cheapest method

    • B. 

      It allows tissue to keep its form

    • C. 

      Its readily available

    • D. 

      It does not interfere with laboratory analysis