3s353 Volume 4 Ec 01

80 Questions

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3s353 Volume 4 Ec 01

Study material for EOC


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Deliberate planning prepares for possible contingencies using forces the Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP) pre-identified as
    • A. 

      Required

    • B. 

      Assigned

    • C. 

      Authorized

    • D. 

      Apportioned

  • 2. 
    Situations that extend major combat operations across combatant command (CCMD) boundaries use the deliberate planning to develop a
    • A. 

      Campaign plan

    • B. 

      Supporting plan

    • C. 

      Contingency plan

    • D. 

      Global campaign plan

  • 3. 
    When planning time is limited and actual deployment is expected, the planner relies on which type of planning?
    • A. 

      Campaign

    • B. 

      Deliberate

    • C. 

      Crisis action

    • D. 

      Mobilization

  • 4. 
    Which type of Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) orders initiates development of a course of action (COA)?
    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Planning

  • 5. 
    Which type of execution planning order incorporates the President and Secretary of Defense's (SecDef) approval of the course of action (COA) derived from the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) consultations?
    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Planning

  • 6. 
    Which type of execution planning order refines the estimated C-day (the unnamed date on which deployment is to commence) and L-hour (the specific hour on C-day at which a deployment operation commences or is to commence) and confirms lift allocations for the deploying forces?
    • A. 

      Alert

    • B. 

      Execute

    • C. 

      Warning

    • D. 

      Planning

  • 7. 
    In the joint operation planning process (JOPP), the staff completes the commander’s estimate during what step?
    • A. 

      1–Planning initiation.

    • B. 

      2–Mission analysis.

    • C. 

      4– Course of action analysis and war gaming development.

    • D. 

      6– Course of action approval.

  • 8. 
    What system is used to translate policy decisions into operation plans (OPLAN) and operation orders (OPORD) in support of national security objectives?
    • A. 

      Joint Strategic Planning System (JSPS).

    • B. 

      Planning, Programming, and Budgeting System (PPBE).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging system (MEFPAK).

  • 9. 
    Which plan establishes requirements for the development of mobilization and production planning programs to support sustained contingency operations of the programmed forces?
    • A. 

      Strategic

    • B. 

      Deliberate

    • C. 

      Crisis action

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization

  • 10. 
    Which plan establishes requirements for the development of mobilization and production planning programs to support sustained contingency operations of the programmed forces?
    • A. 

      Strategic

    • B. 

      Deliberate

    • C. 

      Crisis action

    • D. 

      War and Mobilization

  • 11. 
    In the joint planning cycle, where does the deliberate planning process begin?
    • A. 

      National Command Authorities' (NCA) mission tasking

    • B. 

      Office of the President's Defense Programming Guidance (DPG)

    • C. 

      Secretary of Defense's (SecDef) annual Contingency Planning Guidance (CPG)

    • D. 

      Joint Planning and Execution Community's (JPEC) annual CPG

  • 12. 
    Which part of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP), volume 3, Combat and Support Forces, lists all available combat forces by type aircraft, unit identification, unit availability date, and scenarios or theaters for which they are apportioned for deliberate planning?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 13. 
    Which part of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP), volume 3, Combat and Support Forces, is a listing of all Air Force unit type codes (UTC) approved for planning?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      6

  • 14. 
    Which USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume reflects the joint Headquarters USAF and major command (MAJCOM) position on the use of bases in wartime?
    • A. 

      1, Basic Plan and Supporting Supplements.

    • B. 

      3, Combat and Support Forces.

    • C. 

      4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.

    • D. 

      5, Planning Factors and Data.

  • 15. 
    A unit type code (UTC) package normally represents
    • A. 

      Personnel only

    • B. 

      Equipment only

    • C. 

      Deployment positions

    • D. 

      Both personnel and equipment

  • 16. 
    A unit type code (UTC) becomes standard when it is registered in the
    • A. 

      Type unit characteristics file (TUCHA).

    • B. 

      Manpower force packaging system (MANFOR).

    • C. 

      Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD).

    • D. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging system (MEFPAK).

  • 17. 
    Which unit type code (UTC) suffix lets the planner know it is a standard, Headquarters USAF-approved, and distributed UTC?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

  • 18. 
    Which USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume contains the wartime sortie and attrition rates including sortie duration?
    • A. 

      1, Basic Plan and Supporting Annexes.

    • B. 

      3, Combat and Support Forces.

    • C. 

      4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.

    • D. 

      5, Basic Planning Factors and Data.

  • 19. 
    Which unit type code (UTC) suffix lets the planner know the UTC has excessive reject conditions and has been returned to the major command (MAJCOM)?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

  • 20. 
    Which USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume is the most valuable source document used in base support planning?
    • A. 

      1, Basic Plan and Supporting Annexes.

    • B. 

      2, Plans Listing and Summary.

    • C. 

      3, Combat and Support Forces.

    • D. 

      4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.

  • 21. 
    How often is the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) revised?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 22. 
    Which document consists of parts 1 through 3 within volume 4 of the USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) and identifies each geographical location that has aircraft passing through it or operating out of it during wartime?
    • A. 

      Base support plan (BSP)

    • B. 

      Operation plan (OPLAN)

    • C. 

      Wartime aircraft activity (WAA)

    • D. 

      Mission-oriented items activity (MOIA)

  • 23. 
    The specific manpower required to perform the mission as defined in the unit type codes mission capability statement (MISCAP) is found in the
    • A. 

      Joint strategic planning system (JSPS).

    • B. 

      Type unit characteristics file (TUCHA).

    • C. 

      Manpower force packaging system (MANFOR).

    • D. 

      Air and space expeditionary force reporting tool (ART).

  • 24. 
    Which USAF War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume contains the basic planning factors and data that the Air Force approves for expenditure of all war consumables that support wartime flying activities, except munitions, fuel tanks, launchers, racks, adapters, and pylons?
    • A. 

      1, Basic Plan and Supporting Annexes.

    • B. 

      4, Wartime Aircraft Activity.

    • C. 

      5, Basic Planning Factors and Data.

    • D. 

      6, Air Force Industrial Mobilization Plan.

  • 25. 
    A new unit type code (UTC) should not be requested when
    • A. 

      New equipment types enter the inventory.

    • B. 

      Minor program changes occur in manpower or equipment.

    • C. 

      Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission.

    • D. 

      Significant program or operational changes occur that reduce a unit’s Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) capability level (C-level) below C–2.

  • 26. 
    During what step of the joint operation planning process (JOPP) is an operation order (OPORD) developed directly from crisis action planning (CAP)?
    • A. 

      2 - Mission anaylsis

    • B. 

      4 - Course of action analysis and war gaming development

    • C. 

      5 - Course of action comparison

    • D. 

      7 - Plan or order development

  • 27. 
    Which agency receives the request for a new unit type code (UTC) by way of Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)?
    • A. 

      HQ USAF/Directorate of Requirements Determination (AF/A1M).

    • B. 

      AF Manpower Agency/Manpower Integration Division (AFMA/MAZ).

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/Directorate of War Planning and Policy Division (AF/A5XW).

    • D. 

      AF Manpower Agency/Manpower Wartime Analysis Branch (AFMA/MASR).

  • 28. 
    Which agency is responsible for entering a new unit type code (UTC) into the manpower force packaging system (MANFOR)?
    • A. 

      HQ USAF/Directorate of Requirements Determination (AF/A1M).

    • B. 

      AF Manpower Agency/Manpower Integration Division (AFMA/MAZ).

    • C. 

      HQ USAF/Directorate of War Planning and Policy Division (AF/A5XW).

    • D. 

      AF Manpower Agency/Manpower Wartime Analysis Branch (AFMA/MASR).

  • 29. 
    In developing UTCs, who makes sure that an accurate logistic detail is built for the finalized manpower detail?
    • A. 

      Pilot unit.

    • B. 

      Responsible major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      Command manpower plans manpower force packaging system (MANFOR) manager.

    • D. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging system (MEFPAK) office of primary responsibility (OPR).

  • 30. 
    War planners use unit type codes (UTC) to document requirements for which types of planning?
    • A. 

      Crisis action and initial.

    • B. 

      Deliberate and execution.

    • C. 

      Execution and crisis action.

    • D. 

      Deliberate and crisis action.

  • 31. 
    The timed-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is the primary concern and central foundation for
    • A. 

      Force and logistics planning, assigning units, and sourcing units.

    • B. 

      Force and logistics planning, movement scheduling, and plan execution.

    • C. 

      Force and logistics planning, movement scheduling, and assigning units.

    • D. 

      Capabilities planning, assigning units, sourcing units, and requirements planning.

  • 32. 
    What is the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) database part of an operation plan that planners use to identify the movement data associated with deploying forces?
    • A. 

      Type unit characteristics file (TUCHA).

    • B. 

      Manpower force packaging system (MANFOR).

    • C. 

      Time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD).

    • D. 

      Air and space expeditionary force reporting tool (ART).

  • 33. 
    Which type of timed-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) is used to assess the Air Force’s methods to sustain air and space forces?
    • A. 

      Capabilities-driven.

    • B. 

      Requirements-driven.

    • C. 

      Deployment data.

    • D. 

      Deliberate planning.

  • 34. 
    Timed-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD) maintenance focuses on changes that occurred to the
    • A. 

      Deployment data since refinement.

    • B. 

      Real-world requirements data since refinement.

    • C. 

      National Command Authorities (NCA) concept.

    • D. 

      NCA phased forces.

  • 35. 
    All of the following data are translated through Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) except
    • A. 

      Real world crisis execution.

    • B. 

      Unit manning documents.

    • C. 

      Local exercise taskings.

    • D. 

      Contingency planning.

  • 36. 
    Who is the final approval authority for changes to the operation plan (OPLAN) time-phased force and deployment data (TPFDD)?
    • A. 

      Component planners

    • B. 

      Component operations

    • C. 

      Supported commander

    • D. 

      Supporting commander

  • 37. 
    Which is not a scalable modular element of the air and space expeditionary task force (AETF)?
    • A. 

      Command and control.

    • B. 

      Generate the mission.

    • C. 

      Robust the airbase.

    • D. 

      Rotate hourly shifts.

  • 38. 
    When used in concert, force modules provide capabilities to open, establish, and operate
    • A. 

      An air expeditionary wing (AEW).

    • B. 

      A squadron.

    • C. 

      A command.

    • D. 

      An air base.

  • 39. 
    Which air and space expeditionary task force (AETF) force module (FM) contains capabilities designed to support missions or weapon systems?
    • A. 

      Open the airbase.

    • B. 

      Command and control.

    • C. 

      Establish the airbase.

    • D. 

      Robust the airbase.

  • 40. 
    The air and space expeditionary task force (AETF) force module (FM) that is considered part of the baseline structure for the AETF is
    • A. 

      Establish the airbase.

    • B. 

      Generate the mission.

    • C. 

      Operate the airbase.

    • D. 

      Robust the airbase.

  • 41. 
    The director of which headquarters United States Air Force (HQ USAF) agency approves requests to incorporate unique systems into Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)?
    • A. 

      Manpower, Integration Office (A1MZ).

    • B. 

      War Planning and Policy Division (A5XW).

    • C. 

      Manpower, Requirements Division (A1MR).

    • D. 

      Operations Operational Training Division (A3WO).

  • 42. 
    During Air Force specialty code (AFSC) cross utilization, enlisted requirements may be satisfied by substituting two
    • A. 

      Grades lower.

    • B. 

      Skill levels lower.

    • C. 

      Grades higher.

    • D. 

      Skill levels higher.

  • 43. 
    Each time we compare the unit type code (UTC) or a deployment requirements manning document (DRMD) requirement to the manpower authorizations, we are assessing the adequacy of the
    • A. 

      Air Force support force.

    • B. 

      Joint Strategic Capabilities Plan (JSCP).

    • C. 

      Analysis of base support planning.

    • D. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

  • 44. 
    Which program uses total force assessment (TFA) results to fill shortfalls in critical areas?
    • A. 

      Emergency essential (EE) civilians.

    • B. 

      Contract manpower equivalents (CME).

    • C. 

      Individual mobilization augmentees (IMA).

    • D. 

      Resource augmentation duty (READY) augmentees.

  • 45. 
    During Air Force specialty code (AFSC) cross utilization, officer requirements may be satisfied by substituting
    • A. 

      One grade higher.

    • B. 

      One skill level lower.

    • C. 

      Two grades lower.

    • D. 

      Two skill levels higher.

  • 46. 
    Forces are assigned to the combatant commanders (CCDR) by the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) through the Service secretaries based on which agency’s recommendations?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense.

    • B. 

      Global force management board (GFMB).

    • C. 

      Global force management rotational forces allocation process (RFAP).

    • D. 

      Military departments.

  • 47. 
    The manpower force packaging system (MANFOR) is a subsystem of
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) and mission capability (MISCAP).

    • B. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging system (MEFPAK) and Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      JOPES and DCAPES.

    • D. 

      MEFPAK and DCAPES.

  • 48. 
    The primary emphasis when cross leveling unit type code (UTC) requirements within a command is to obtain the
    • A. 

      Stated grade requirement.

    • B. 

      Personnel who are prepared to deploy.

    • C. 

      Proper number of manpower authorizations.

    • D. 

      Stated Air Force specialty code (AFSC) requirements.

  • 49. 
    During mismatch resolution, a functional area manager (FAM) may eliminate a requirement from a unit type code (UTC) as a solution to an identified
    • A. 

      Authorization

    • B. 

      Augmentation

    • C. 

      Tasked unit

    • D. 

      Shortfall

  • 50. 
    During mismatch resolution, a functional area manager (FAM) may identify a suitable substitution for a particular AFSC as a solution to an identified
    • A. 

      Authorization

    • B. 

      Augmentation

    • C. 

      Tasked unit

    • D. 

      Shortfall

  • 51. 
    The joint operation planning process (JOPP) focuses on
    • A. 

      Defining the military mission.

    • B. 

      Synchronizing military budgets.

    • C. 

      Producing a time phased document.

    • D. 

      Ensuring the support of allied nations.

  • 52. 
    To calculate available resources a base level planner conducts a base-level planning process (BLPP) assessment by subtracting the number deploying from the in-place resources and
    • A. 

      Dividing the man-hour availability factor by the total.

    • B. 

      Subtracting additional resources deploying in.

    • C. 

      Adding any additional resources deploying in.

    • D. 

      Multiplying by the minimum manning needed.

  • 53. 
    What programs are used by installation commanders to alleviate shortfalls?
    • A. 

      Augmentation duty and emergency essential (EE) programs.

    • B. 

      EE and innovative development through employee awareness (IDEA) programs.

    • C. 

      Fast Payback Capital Investment (FASCAP) and resource augmentation duty (READY) programs.

    • D. 

      IDEA programs and READY programs.

  • 54. 
    Which is not accomplished by adaptive planning?
    • A. 

      Provides more and better options.

    • B. 

      Triggers updates of existing plans.

    • C. 

      Allocates budget funds for next fiscal year.

    • D. 

      Promotes increased agility in plan implementation.

  • 55. 
    Joint plans are constantly assessed and updated through a structured review, assessment, and modification by the
    • A. 

      Joint Force Support staff.

    • B. 

      Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).

    • C. 

      Joint Forces Commander (JFC).

    • D. 

      Joint Planning and Execution Community (JPEC).

  • 56. 
    Who is the base focal point for all actions concerning readiness plans?
    • A. 

      Functional area manager (FAM).

    • B. 

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • C. 

      Personnel readiness officer (PRU).

    • D. 

      Installation deployment officer (IDO).

  • 57. 
    Which one is not a Military Department?
    • A. 

      Coast Guard

    • B. 

      Air Force

    • C. 

      Army

    • D. 

      Navy

  • 58. 
    A unit’s resources and training status is based on the
    • A. 

      Equipment required to support wartime tasking.

    • B. 

      Aircraft type identified in the designed operational capability statement.

    • C. 

      Capability-level to support wartime tasking.

    • D. 

      Capabilities reflected in the designed operational capability statement.

  • 59. 
    A military service includes all of the following except
    • A. 

      All uniformed members, (active, guard, and reserve).

    • B. 

      United States Navy and Coast Guard.

    • C. 

      United States Air Force

    • D. 

      Department of Defense civil service personnel.

  • 60. 
    Which command authority has control over military capability or forces that are limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to carry out the mission?
    • A. 

      Combatant command (COCOM).

    • B. 

      Operational control (OPCON).

    • C. 

      Administrative control (ADCON).

    • D. 

      Tactical control (TACON).

  • 61. 
    The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) schedule operates on a life cycle of how many months?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      12

    • D. 

      24

  • 62. 
    Which is not a category of support provided by the combatant commander (CCDR)?
    • A. 

      General

    • B. 

      Mutual

    • C. 

      Tactical

    • D. 

      Direct

  • 63. 
    The command authority that gives the military departments authority over subordinate organizations in regards to support is
    • A. 

      Combatant command (COCOM).

    • B. 

      Operational control (OPCON).

    • C. 

      Administrative control (ADCON).

    • D. 

      Tactical control (TACON).

  • 64. 
    Which commander is tasked by the Joint Staff to develop recommended global sourcing solutions?
    • A. 

      Combatant

    • B. 

      Joint Force

    • C. 

      Unified combatant

    • D. 

      Air and space expeditionary task force

  • 65. 
    Which option is not a transitional stage of adaptive planning and execution (APEX)?
    • A. 

      Initiation

    • B. 

      Evaluation

    • C. 

      Integration

    • D. 

      Implementation

  • 66. 
    How many unit capability levels (C-levels) are in the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS)?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      7

  • 67. 
    What complements the readiness data reported in the Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS)?
    • A. 

      Force allocation.

    • B. 

      Manpower programming and execution system (MPES).

    • C. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • D. 

      Air and space expeditionary force unit type code status reporting tool (ART).

  • 68. 
    What is the basis for both Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS) and air and space expeditionary force unit type code status reporting tool (ART)?
    • A. 

      Mission capability (MISCAP) statement.

    • B. 

      Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • C. 

      Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) TPFDD library.

    • D. 

      Manpower and equipment force packaging systems (MEFPAK).

  • 69. 
    Who is the Air Force specialty (AFS) representative in the readiness community?
    • A. 

      Functional area manager (FAM).

    • B. 

      Personnel readiness unit (PRU).

    • C. 

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • D. 

      Installation deployment officer (IDO).

  • 70. 
    Who normally initiates and submits manpower change requests?
    • A. 

      Unit training manager.

    • B. 

      Installation commander.

    • C. 

      Squadron or group commander.

    • D. 

      Wing commander or higher.

  • 71. 
    Following redeployment, the Military Departments may reduce the number of civilian employees during which type of planning?
    • A. 

      Sustainment

    • B. 

      Deployment

    • C. 

      Employment

    • D. 

      Demobilization

  • 72. 
    In a deployed environment, who or what agency is the approval authority for an authorization change request (ACR)?
    • A. 

      The pilot unit.

    • B. 

      Combatant commander (CCDR).

    • C. 

      The major command (MAJCOM) that deployed the unit type code (UTC).

    • D. 

      The director of Manpower, Organization, and Resources (A1M).

  • 73. 
    What security classification must be assigned to all provisional organizations established for contingency operations?
    • A. 

      Secret

    • B. 

      Top Secret

    • C. 

      Confidential

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only

  • 74. 
    What step of the joint operation planning process (JOPP) results in a course of action (COA) recommendation and a COA decision by the commander?
    • A. 

      2–Mission analysis.

    • B. 

      4–COA analysis and war gaming development.

    • C. 

      5–COA comparison.

    • D. 

      7–Plan or order development.

  • 75. 
    Once the manpower and organization (MO) office is established at a deployed location, what is the purpose of a mission briefing?
    • A. 

      To provide manning numbers to the commander.

    • B. 

      To update the commander on any actions that affects the organizational structure.

    • C. 

      To provide key personnel a clear understanding of the responsibilities, capabilities, and services provided by the MO office.

    • D. 

      To coordinate authorization change requests with the commander before forwarding them to the commanders of the unified commands for approval.

  • 76. 
    What capability level (C-level) indicates that a unit requires additional resources or training to undertake its wartime mission but may be directed to undertake portions of its wartime mission with resources on hand?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 77. 
    The principal forum for deliberating national security policy issues is the
    • A. 

      National Security Council (NSC).

    • B. 

      President and Secretary of Defense (SecDef).

    • C. 

      Air Force Manpower Readiness Flight (AFMRF).

    • D. 

      Joint planning and execution community (JPEC).

  • 78. 
    In joint operation planning, planning for which activity is planning directed toward assembling and organizing national resources to support national objectives in times of war and for military operations other than war (MOOTW)?
    • A. 

      Sustainment

    • B. 

      Deployment

    • C. 

      Mobilization

    • D. 

      Redeployment

  • 79. 
    In what step of the joint operation planning process (JOPP) does Headquarters USAF advise component Air Force commanders of the resources available to support joint requirements?
    • A. 

      1–Planning initiation.

    • B. 

      2–Mission analysis.

    • C. 

      3–Course of action development.

    • D. 

      4–Course of action analysis and war gaming development.

  • 80. 
    In the joint planning process (JOPP), once a situation is analyzed, the planner will
    • A. 

      Complete a mission analysis.

    • B. 

      Forward analysis to supervisor.

    • C. 

      Develop various course of actions.

    • D. 

      Start war gaming development.