CMA Pretest 2-20-14

123 Questions

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CMA Quizzes & Trivia

Practice questions for Registered Medical Assistant


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The largest bone of the body is the
    • A. 

      Ulna

    • B. 

      Tibia

    • C. 

      Radius

    • D. 

      Femur

  • 2. 
    An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the
    • A. 

      Knee

    • B. 

      Elbow

    • C. 

      Hip

    • D. 

      Ankle

  • 3. 
    Muscles are attached to bones by
    • A. 

      Fascia

    • B. 

      Tendons

    • C. 

      Ligaments

    • D. 

      Joints

  • 4. 
    When a muscle contracts, it becomes
    • A. 

      Shorter and thinner

    • B. 

      Longer and thicker

    • C. 

      Shorter and thicker

    • D. 

      Longer and thinner

  • 5. 
    Growth hormone is produced in the
    • A. 

      Thymus

    • B. 

      Thyroid

    • C. 

      Pancreas

    • D. 

      Pituitary

  • 6. 
    The fuction of insulin is to
    • A. 

      Promote carbohydrate synthesis

    • B. 

      Convert glucose into fat

    • C. 

      Accelerate liver glycogenolysis

    • D. 

      Assist glucose into the cells

  • 7. 
    The cavity within the kidney that colects urine is the
    • A. 

      Ureter

    • B. 

      Renal pelvis

    • C. 

      Urinary bladder

    • D. 

      Bowman's capsule

  • 8. 
    The kidneys are located behind the
    • A. 

      Peritoneum

    • B. 

      Spinal column

    • C. 

      Bladder

    • D. 

      Sternum

  • 9. 
    The site of fertilization is usually the
    • A. 

      Ovary

    • B. 

      Vagina

    • C. 

      Uterus

    • D. 

      Fallopian tube

  • 10. 
    Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at
    • A. 

      Conception

    • B. 

      Birth

    • C. 

      Puberty

    • D. 

      Menopause

  • 11. 
    The three sctions of the small intestine are the
    • A. 

      Cecum, duodenum, and ileum

    • B. 

      Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum

    • C. 

      Duodenum, sigmoid, and jejunum

    • D. 

      Ascending, transverse, and descending

  • 12. 
    The internal folds of the stomach are known as
    • A. 

      Villi

    • B. 

      Rugae

    • C. 

      Cilia

    • D. 

      Convolutions

  • 13. 
    The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is vitamin
    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      E

    • C. 

      K

    • D. 

      D

  • 14. 
    The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called the
    • A. 

      Cerebrum

    • B. 

      Cerebellum

    • C. 

      Cerebral cortex

    • D. 

      Corpus callosum

  • 15. 
    A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by
    • A. 

      An axon

    • B. 

      A neuron

    • C. 

      A dendrite

    • D. 

      A neurotransmitter

  • 16. 
    During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the
    • A. 

      Tongue

    • B. 

      Epiglottis

    • C. 

      Soft palate

    • D. 

      Uvula

  • 17. 
    The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the
    • A. 

      Nasopharynx

    • B. 

      Oropharynx

    • C. 

      Laryngopharynx

    • D. 

      Larynx

  • 18. 
    The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery?
    • A. 

      Aorta

    • B. 

      Carotid

    • C. 

      Coronary

    • D. 

      Pulmonary

  • 19. 
    The outermost of the pericardial membranse is the
    • A. 

      Epicardium

    • B. 

      Fibrous pericardium

    • C. 

      Visceral pericardium

    • D. 

      Parietal pericardium

  • 20. 
    The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is
    • A. 

      Elastin

    • B. 

      Keratin

    • C. 

      Melanin

    • D. 

      Collagen

  • 21. 
    The outer layer of the skin is the
    • A. 

      Dermis

    • B. 

      Corium

    • C. 

      Epidermis

    • D. 

      Subcutaneous

  • 22. 
    The receptors for hearing and equilibrium are located in the
    • A. 

      Eardrum

    • B. 

      Inner ear

    • C. 

      Middle ear

    • D. 

      External ear

  • 23. 
    The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the
    • A. 

      Cornea

    • B. 

      Choroid

    • C. 

      Sclera

    • D. 

      Conjunctiva

  • 24. 
    The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is
    • A. 

      Lordosis

    • B. 

      Scoliosis

    • C. 

      Kyphosis

    • D. 

      Spondylosis

  • 25. 
    A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is
    • A. 

      An open fracture

    • B. 

      A compound fracture

    • C. 

      A comminuted fracture

    • D. 

      A greenstick fracture

  • 26. 
    An abnormal scar formation is
    • A. 

      Nevus

    • B. 

      Keloid

    • C. 

      Angioma

    • D. 

      Melanoma

  • 27. 
    Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation?
    • A. 

      Freezing

    • B. 

      Incubation

    • C. 

      Protection from light

    • D. 

      Refrigeration

  • 28. 
    A genetic disorder characterized by the inablility of the blood to clot properly is
    • A. 

      Galactosemia

    • B. 

      Hemophilia

    • C. 

      Thalassemia

    • D. 

      Thrombocythemia

  • 29. 
    Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of
    • A. 

      Niacin

    • B. 

      Thiamin

    • C. 

      Vitamin A

    • D. 

      Vitamin D

  • 30. 
    A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia?
    • A. 

      Sickle Cell

    • B. 

      Hemolytic

    • C. 

      Pernicious

    • D. 

      Hemorrhagic

  • 31. 
    Which of the following is the most common eye condition associated with aging?
    • A. 

      Glaucoma

    • B. 

      Presbyopia

    • C. 

      Conjuncivitis

    • D. 

      Astigmatism

  • 32. 
    The combining form that means "red" is
    • A. 

      Xantho

    • B. 

      Leuko

    • C. 

      Erythro

    • D. 

      Melano

  • 33. 
    The combining form "hist/o" means
    • A. 

      Fat

    • B. 

      Tissue

    • C. 

      Organ

    • D. 

      Muscle

  • 34. 
    The suffix meaning "inflammation" is
    • A. 

      Osis

    • B. 

      Ectomy

    • C. 

      Itis

    • D. 

      Desis

  • 35. 
    Encephalopathy is defined as
    • A. 

      Swelling of the brain

    • B. 

      Deterioration of the brain

    • C. 

      Inflammation of the brain

    • D. 

      Any dysfunction of the brain

  • 36. 
    The medical term for inflammation of the liver is
    • A. 

      Hepatitis

    • B. 

      Hepatomegaly

    • C. 

      Cirrhosis

    • D. 

      Ascites

  • 37. 
    The term "myotomy" means incision into
    • A. 

      A tendon

    • B. 

      A muscle

    • C. 

      The eardrum

    • D. 

      The spinal cord

  • 38. 
    Which one of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
    • A. 

      E

    • B. 

      K

    • C. 

      C

    • D. 

      D

  • 39. 
    The abbreviation "QID" means
    • A. 

      Every day

    • B. 

      Two times per day

    • C. 

      Three times per day

    • D. 

      Four times per day

  • 40. 
    The abbreviation for "prescription" is
    • A. 

      Fx

    • B. 

      Bx

    • C. 

      Rx

    • D. 

      Tx

  • 41. 
    Which of the following is the correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils?
    • A. 

      Tonsilitis

    • B. 

      Tonsillitis

    • C. 

      Toncilitis

    • D. 

      Toncillitis

  • 42. 
    A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures?
    • A. 

      Blood test

    • B. 

      Lumbar puncture

    • C. 

      Organ donation

    • D. 

      Breast biopsy

  • 43. 
    HIPAA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims
    • A. 

      Through claims processing centers

    • B. 

      Through electronic data exchange

    • C. 

      By paper CMS 1500 forms

    • D. 

      By facsimile transmission

  • 44. 
    The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities?
    • A. 

      Physician advertising

    • B. 

      Suspected child abuse

    • C. 

      A minor with a positive pregnancy test

    • D. 

      Advertisements for surrogacy

  • 45. 
    The purpose of HIPAA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of
    • A. 

      Electronic exchange of patient information

    • B. 

      Insurance premium information

    • C. 

      Paper-based patient files

    • D. 

      Office employee files

  • 46. 
    The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from
    • A. 

      Loss of credentials

    • B. 

      Civil and criminal liability

    • C. 

      Contracting diseases

    • D. 

      Accidental injury

  • 47. 
    If a physician accepts payment from another physician solely for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of
    • A. 

      Fee spliting

    • B. 

      Insurance fraud

    • C. 

      A misdemeanor

    • D. 

      Violation of confidentiality

  • 48. 
    Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to
    • A. 

      Define what is included in the practice of medicine

    • B. 

      Provide medical leave for employees

    • C. 

      Prevent malpractice

    • D. 

      Institute arbitration

  • 49. 
    The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called
    • A. 

      Focusing

    • B. 

      Reflecting

    • C. 

      Restating

    • D. 

      Clarification

  • 50. 
    Positioning or sitting behind a dest communicates the message of
    • A. 

      Authority

    • B. 

      Impartiality

    • C. 

      Congruency

    • D. 

      Acknowledgment

  • 51. 
    The term "total permanent impairment" mean that the patient
    • A. 

      Is unable to work for one year

    • B. 

      Is unable to perform duties for 30 days

    • C. 

      May return to full occupational duty

    • D. 

      Is unable to perform previous occupational duties

  • 52. 
    Which one of the following is an insurance claim processing error?
    • A. 

      Entering all diagnoses on the claim

    • B. 

      Using "rule out" diagnoses

    • C. 

      Recording one item per line

    • D. 

      Using both ICD-9 and CPT codes

  • 53. 
     A "non-duplication of benefits " is also called
    • A. 

      Major medical

    • B. 

      Service benefit plan

    • C. 

      Co-payment plan

    • D. 

      Coordination of benefits

  • 54. 
    Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule?
    • A. 

      PPO

    • B. 

      Medicaid

    • C. 

      Medicare

    • D. 

      Capitated

  • 55. 
    The policy describing a period of non coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called
    • A. 

      An exclusion

    • B. 

      A special risk rider

    • C. 

      A hold-harmless clause

    • D. 

      A pre-existing conditions waiver

  • 56. 
    Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician
    • A. 

      Are responsible for billing Medicare

    • B. 

      Are covered 100% of the physician's charge

    • C. 

      Pay a higher deductible

    • D. 

      Are responsible for a portion of the fee

  • 57. 
    Medicare Part B covers
    • A. 

      Prescription drugs

    • B. 

      Routine eye examinations

    • C. 

      Elective cosmetic surgery

    • D. 

      Prescription medical equipment

  • 58. 
    Workers Compensation insurance provides benefits for
    • A. 

      Employees whose jobs have been eliminated

    • B. 

      Non-occupational injuries and illnesses

    • C. 

      Occupational injuries

    • D. 

      Family medical leave

  • 59. 
    Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated
    • A. 

      70% of the allowable charge

    • B. 

      100% of the limiting charge

    • C. 

      80% of the approved amount

    • D. 

      100% of the ususal and customary fee

  • 60. 
    An example of a Medicare HCPCS code number is
    • A. 

      934.6

    • B. 

      99211

    • C. 

      J0540

    • D. 

      V72.3

  • 61. 
    A range of usual fees in the same community is the
    • A. 

      Prevailing fee

    • B. 

      Customary fee

    • C. 

      Fee profile

    • D. 

      Usual fee

  • 62. 
    The routine waiving of co-payments
    • A. 

      Is allowed for professional courtesy

    • B. 

      Shows goodwill by a physician

    • C. 

      Is against federal guidelines

    • D. 

      Helps lower receivables

  • 63. 
    Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the
    • A. 

      Physician

    • B. 

      Patient

    • C. 

      Employer

    • D. 

      Billing agency

  • 64. 
    The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the
    • A. 

      CMS 1500

    • B. 

      Chart of accounts

    • C. 

      Receivables summary

    • D. 

      Itemized statement

  • 65. 
    The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually
    • A. 

      A flat monthly fee

    • B. 

      A percentage of each amount collected

    • C. 

      A flat fee per account collected

    • D. 

      The full amount collected

  • 66. 
    Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should
    • A. 

      Refer all inquiries to the collection agency

    • B. 

      Offer the patient a payment plan

    • C. 

      Continue to send monthly statements

    • D. 

      Continue billng late fees

  • 67. 
    The final statement for services rendered to a deceased patient should be addressed to the
    • A. 

      Collection agency

    • B. 

      Nearest living relative

    • C. 

      Estate of the deceased

    • D. 

      Beneficiaries

  • 68. 
    When a patient fails to keep an appoinment the medical assistant should
    • A. 

      Bill the appointment fee to the insurance company

    • B. 

      Document the failed appointment in the patient's chart

    • C. 

      Call the patient's nearest relative

    • D. 

      Refuse further treatments

  • 69. 
    The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physician's office is to
    • A. 

      Advise the patient to call "911".

    • B. 

      Have special evening appointments for emergencies

    • C. 

      Leave unassigned slots in the appointment schedule

    • D. 

      Refer all emergency cases to the nearest paramedica station

  • 70. 
    Which one of the following represents a successful "trial balance"?
    • A. 

      Cash flow statement balances with the checkbook

    • B. 

      Assets equal the liabilities plus equity

    • C. 

      All transactions balance with the end of day journal

    • D. 

      Bank statement balances with the checkbook

  • 71. 
    The petty cash fund may be used
    • A. 

      To balance day sheet discrepancies

    • B. 

      For small incidental items

    • C. 

      To make change for patients

    • D. 

      For paying vendors

  • 72. 
    When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those
    • A. 

      Denied for non-sufficient funds

    • B. 

      Paid and returned with the bank statement

    • C. 

      With "stop payment" orders

    • D. 

      That have not cleared the bank

  • 73. 
    Which one of the following is an accaptable patient check?
    • A. 

      Third party

    • B. 

      Blank

    • C. 

      Payroll

    • D. 

      Certified

  • 74. 
    Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column?
    • A. 

      Insurance write-offs

    • B. 

      Payments received

    • C. 

      Services rendered

    • D. 

      Credit balances

  • 75. 
    Summaries identifying which patient accounts are 30, 60, 90,  and 120 days overdue include
    • A. 

      Cash flow statements

    • B. 

      Trial balance

    • C. 

      Income and expense

    • D. 

      Age analysis

  • 76. 
    Banking fees will appear on a monthly statement in the form of a
    • A. 

      Credit

    • B. 

      Service charge

    • C. 

      Withdrawal

    • D. 

      Overdraft

  • 77. 
    If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the same month are $15,500, the profit and loss statement would show a
    • A. 

      Gross profit of $17,500

    • B. 

      Gross profit of $33,000

    • C. 

      Net profit of $17,500

    • D. 

      Net profit of $2,000

  • 78. 
    To properly void a check write "VOID" across the front and
    • A. 

      Retain it with canceled checks, in numeric order

    • B. 

      Destroy it after receiving the bank statement

    • C. 

      Return it to the bank

    • D. 

      Destroy it immediately

  • 79. 
    "For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement?
    • A. 

      Blank

    • B. 

      Restrictive

    • C. 

      Special

    • D. 

      Qualified

  • 80. 
    When a bankruptcy notice is received in the office it is beneficial to
    • A. 

      Send a statement to the patient's employer

    • B. 

      Submit a form to the court trustee

    • C. 

      File a claim in small claims court

    • D. 

      Assign the account to a collection agency

  • 81. 
    The name that follows the words "Pay to the order of" on a check is the
    • A. 

      Endorsement

    • B. 

      Maker

    • C. 

      Payee

    • D. 

      Payer

  • 82. 
    What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines?
    • A. 

      CDC

    • B. 

      EPA

    • C. 

      CMS

    • D. 

      OSHA

  • 83. 
    When performing medical aseptic handwashing the hands should be positioned
    • A. 

      Above the elbows

    • B. 

      Level with the elbows

    • C. 

      Below the elbows

    • D. 

      Below the waist

  • 84. 
    Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Fomites

    • B. 

      Vectors

    • C. 

      Droplets

    • D. 

      Asepsis

  • 85. 
    According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with
    • A. 

      Blood

    • B. 

      Skin

    • C. 

      Hair

    • D. 

      Sweat

  • 86. 
    Sterilization is the
    • A. 

      Destruction of all microbial life

    • B. 

      Destruction of all pathogens

    • C. 

      Careful cleaning of instruments

    • D. 

      Removal of blood and body fluids

  • 87. 
    The most effective method of sterilization is
    • A. 

      Boiling

    • B. 

      Chemicals

    • C. 

      Disinfectants

    • D. 

      Autoclaving

  • 88. 
    The autoclave chamber door is slightly opened at the end of the autoclave cycle to
    • A. 

      Prevent contamination

    • B. 

      Allow the items to dry

    • C. 

      Release the steam

    • D. 

      Avoid pressure build-up

  • 89. 
    Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of
    • A. 

      Pressure

    • B. 

      Chemicals

    • C. 

      Steam

    • D. 

      Gas

  • 90. 
     A hemostat is used to
    • A. 

      Secure drapes

    • B. 

      Retract tissue

    • C. 

      Control bleeding

    • D. 

      Transfer instruments

  • 91. 
    Forceps are used to
    • A. 

      Retract tissue

    • B. 

      Hold drapes

    • C. 

      Hold tissue

    • D. 

      Close incisions

  • 92. 
    When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patient's arm should be
    • A. 

      At waist level

    • B. 

      Below waist level

    • C. 

      At the level of the heart

    • D. 

      Slightly below the level of the heart

  • 93. 
    The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the
    • A. 

      Ear

    • B. 

      Mouth

    • C. 

      Axilla

    • D. 

      Rectum

  • 94. 
    The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of
    • A. 

      24-40 beats per minute

    • B. 

      40-55 beats per minute

    • C. 

      60-80 beats per minute

    • D. 

      100-110 beats per minute

  • 95. 
    The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is
    • A. 

      Popliteal

    • B. 

      Brachial

    • C. 

      Carotid

    • D. 

      Radial

  • 96. 
    To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for
    • A. 

      10 seconds and multiply by 6

    • B. 

      15 seconds and multiply by 4

    • C. 

      30 seconds and multiply by 2

    • D. 

      60 seconds

  • 97. 
    The knee-chest position is used for examination of the
    • A. 

      Lumbar spine

    • B. 

      Abdomen

    • C. 

      Bladder

    • D. 

      Rectum

  • 98. 
    The method used to perform a breast examination is
    • A. 

      Palpation

    • B. 

      Percussion

    • C. 

      Ausculation

    • D. 

      Mensuration

  • 99. 
    The "Snellen Chart" is used to test
    • A. 

      Reflexes

    • B. 

      Hearing

    • C. 

      Smell

    • D. 

      Sight

  • 100. 
    The instrument pictured below to take blood pressure is called a
    • A. 

      A tonometer

    • B. 

      A spirometer

    • C. 

      An audiometer

    • D. 

      A sphygmomanometer

  • 101. 
    The position when lying on side arm slightly behind your body, one leg bent and one leg slightly bent is called
    • A. 

      Dorsal recumbent

    • B. 

      Jackknife

    • C. 

      Knee-chest

    • D. 

      Sim's

  • 102. 
    The angle for a subcutaneous injection is
    • A. 

      15 degree

    • B. 

      25 degree

    • C. 

      45 degree

    • D. 

      90 degree

  • 103. 
    The correct site for an adult IM injection is the
    • A. 

      Gluteus medius

    • B. 

      Gluteus minimus

    • C. 

      Gluteus maximus

    • D. 

      Gastrocnemius

  • 104. 
    The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL. How many mL will be administered?
    • A. 

      0.5 mL

    • B. 

      1.0 mL

    • C. 

      1.5 mL

    • D. 

      2.0 mL

  • 105. 
    A drug used to relieve pain is an
    • A. 

      Antidote

    • B. 

      Antibiotic

    • C. 

      Analgesic

    • D. 

      Antidepressant

  • 106. 
    Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include
    • A. 

      Needle holder and scissors

    • B. 

      Suture scissor and towel clamp

    • C. 

      Curet and tenaculum

    • D. 

      Scalpel and retractor

  • 107. 
    For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT
    • A. 

      Betadine

    • B. 

      Acetone

    • C. 

      Hibiclens

    • D. 

      Povidone-iodine

  • 108. 
    Which of the following is NOT a physical therapy modality?
    • A. 

      Message

    • B. 

      Whirlpool

    • C. 

      Diathermy

    • D. 

      Immobilization

  • 109. 
    Which one of the following tests identifies the organism associated with a urinary tract infection?
    • A. 

      Culture and sensitivity

    • B. 

      Colony count

    • C. 

      Pure culture

    • D. 

      Gram stain

  • 110. 
    Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which one of the following diseases?
    • A. 

      Ringworm

    • B. 

      Gonorrhea

    • C. 

      Acne/boils

    • D. 

      Tuberculosis

  • 111. 
    The "universal donor" has blood type
    • A. 

      A+

    • B. 

      B-

    • C. 

      AB+

    • D. 

      O-

  • 112. 
    A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of
    • A. 

      FSH

    • B. 

      PTH

    • C. 

      HCG

    • D. 

      TSH

  • 113. 
    Which of the following is a highly specific host defense mechanism?
    • A. 

      Presence of normal flora

    • B. 

      Immune response

    • C. 

      Inflammation

    • D. 

      Phagocytosis

  • 114. 
    A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is
    • A. 

      Random

    • B. 

      Timed

    • C. 

      Clean-catch

    • D. 

      Mid-stream

  • 115. 
    The major components of a routine urinalysis are
    • A. 

      Chemical, visual, and culture

    • B. 

      Physical, chemical, and microscopic

    • C. 

      Visual, analytic, and microscopic

    • D. 

      Physical, analytic, and chemical

  • 116. 
    When performing a sedimentation rate, the Wintrobe or Westergren tube is filled to the level marked
    • A. 

      0mm

    • B. 

      10mm

    • C. 

      20mm

    • D. 

      50mm

  • 117. 
    Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause
    • A. 

      Dilution of the sample with tissue fluid

    • B. 

      Permanent nerve damage

    • C. 

      Excessive bleeding

    • D. 

      The site to become cyanotic

  • 118. 
    Of the following, what is the most appropriate patient position for a venipuncture?
    • A. 

      Standing at a counter

    • B. 

      Sitting in a chair

    • C. 

      Sitting on a stool

    • D. 

      Standing at the examination table

  • 119. 
    In electrocardiography, the electrode used as ground is
    • A. 

      RA

    • B. 

      LA

    • C. 

      RL

    • D. 

      LL

  • 120. 
    Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary,
    • A. 

      Every six months

    • B. 

      Once a year

    • C. 

      Every two years

    • D. 

      As needed

  • 121. 
    A marked drop in blood pressure is found with
    • A. 

      Shock

    • B. 

      Fright

    • C. 

      Hysteria

    • D. 

      Hypertension

  • 122. 
    The first step in controlling bleeding is
    • A. 

      Elevation

    • B. 

      Tourniquet

    • C. 

      Direct pressure

    • D. 

      Pressure points

  • 123. 
    The appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to
    • A. 

      Place the patient supine with legs elevated

    • B. 

      Assist the patient into a sitting position

    • C. 

      Offer sips of cold water to the patient

    • D. 

      Call "911"