7 Level Volume 2 (2)
- 1.
Who provides the foundation of the integrated defense (ID) concept?
- A.
Security Forces.
- B.
Intelligence fusion cell.
- C.
Other Air Force members.
- D.
Air Force Office of Special Investigation.
Correct Answer
A. Security Forces. -
- 2.
All of the following are guiding principles of the integrated defense (ID) concept except
- A.
Focused logistics.
- B.
Full dimensional protection.
- C.
Capabilites for dominanting mass.
- D.
Concept of the full spectrum dominance.
Correct Answer
C. Capabilites for dominanting mass. -
- 3.
Integrated defense does not require the capability to
- A.
Deny
- B.
Deter
- C.
Delay
- D.
Defuse
Correct Answer
D. Defuse -
- 4.
The intelligence fusion cell and its products are the primary information sources that directly supports the
- A.
MAJCOM commander
- B.
B. installation commander.
- C.
C. Defense force commander.
- D.
D. Integrated Defense Working Group.
Correct Answer
C. C. Defense force commander. -
- 5.
The loss or disablement of non-nuclear assets that would harm or damage AF effectiveness to project decisive combat power and wage war are identified as
- A.
Conventional weapons
- B.
B. mission support assets.
- C.
C. power projection assets.
- D.
D. non-nuclear weapon systems.
Correct Answer
C. C. power projection assets. -
- 6.
2.(203) What is defined as “organizing installation defense efforts among responsible internal/external agencies to ensure all aspects of integrated defense are accomplished, considered, and compensated for”?
- A.
A. Integrated Defense Plan.
- B.
B. Integrated Defense Concepts.
- C.
C. Integrated Defense Security Systems.
- D.
D. Integrated Defense Risk Management Process.
Correct Answer
A. A. Integrated Defense Plan. -
- 7.
2.) Integrated defense plans (IDPs) are accomplished by Air Reserve and/or Air National Guard(ANG) installations/units
- A.
A. only if the installation is a full time reserve or guard installation/unit.
- B.
B. only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources.
- C.
C. only if the installation has non-Protection Level (PL) resources.
- D.
D. only during war.
Correct Answer
B. B. only if the installation is responsible for protection level resources. -
- 8.
What can effectively delay intruders in order to facilitate definitive threat classification and assessment and response by Security Forces?
- A.
Physical barriers
- B.
B. Night vision device.
- C.
C. Infrared imaging device.
- D.
D. Closed-circuit television.
Correct Answer
A. Physical barriers -
- 9.
A relatively secure area that allows for identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as a
- A.
Safe area.
- B.
B. a search area.
- C.
C. a denial area.
- D.
D. an exclusion area.
Correct Answer
B. B. a search area. -
- 10.
What area should be as far back from the search facility as possible?
- A.
Parking area.
- B.
B. Staging area.
- C.
C. Overwatch
- D.
D. Search pit.
Correct Answer
B. B. Staging area. -
- 11.
2.(204) In offense, obstacles assist in flank security, limiting enemy counterattack, cut off enemy reinforcement or routes of withdrawal, and
- A.
A. separating the enemy from vehicle support when they are using mounted operations.
- B.
B. channeling the enemy into places where they can more easily be engaged.
- C.
C. protecting defending units.
- D.
D. isolating objectives.
Correct Answer
D. D. isolating objectives. -
- 12.
2.(204) The two types of obstacles you will typically encounter are
- A.
A. existing and reinforcing.
- B.
A. existing and reinforcing.
- C.
C. blocking and turning
- D.
D. turning and fixing.
Correct Answer
A. A. existing and reinforcing. -
- 13.
“To fight and win our nation’s wars by providing prompt, sustained land dominance across the full range of military operations and spectrum of conflict in support of combatant commanders” is the mission of the
- A.
Army
- B.
B. Navy
- C.
C. Air Force.
- D.
D. Marine Corps.
Correct Answer
A. Army -
- 14.
2.(205) What is the Navy’s largest formation?
- A.
A. Fleet
- B.
B. Flotilla
- C.
C. Task Force.
- D.
D. Strike Group.
Correct Answer
A. A. Fleet -
- 15.
2.(205) A Marine Corps platoon is equivalent to an Air Force
- A.
A. squadron.
- B.
B. group
- C.
C. flight
- D.
D. wing
Correct Answer
C. C. flight -
- 16.
The term used for a terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
- A.
Non-state-supported
- B.
B. state-supported.
- C.
C. state-organized.
- D.
D. stated-directed.
Correct Answer
B. B. state-supported. -
- 17.
16.(206) Generally, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of
- A.
A. 16 and 24.
- B.
B. 21 and 28.
- C.
C. 23 and 30.
- D.
D. 25 and 32.
Correct Answer
C. C. 23 and 30. -
- 18.
16.(206) When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal?
- A.
A. Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.
- B.
B. One week prior to scheduled attack execution.
- C.
C. Just before departing for the target.
- D.
D. Before executing the attack.
Correct Answer
C. C. Just before departing for the target. -
- 19.
16.(206) The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is
- A.
A. arson
- B.
B. bombing
- C.
C. hijacking
- D.
D. assassination
Correct Answer
B. B. bombing -
- 20.
What term describes the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
- A.
Activity
- B.
B. Intentions
- C.
C. Operational capability.
- D.
D. Operating environment.
Correct Answer
B. B. Intentions -
- 21.
Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity?
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
B. Sympathizers
- C.
C. Terrorists
- D.
D. Partisans
Correct Answer
B. B. Sympathizers -
- 22.
Which term is defined as acting as individuals or in small groups and using a wide range of weapons, including small arms, hand grenades, rocket-propelled grenades, various small explosives, and incendiary devices?
- A.
Agent activity
- B.
B. Sympathizers
- C.
C. Terrorists
- D.
D. Partisans
Correct Answer
C. C. Terrorists -
- 23.
16.(207) Which threat level doctrine stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50 kilometers (km)?
- A.
A. I.
- B.
B. II.
- C.
C. III
- D.
D. IV.
Correct Answer
C. C. III -
- 24.
16.(208) Which of these is not a force protection effect?
- A.
A. Deter
- B.
B. Detect
- C.
C. Defuse
- D.
D. Mitigate
Correct Answer
C. C. Defuse -
- 25.
16.(208) The key to force protection countermeasure planning is
- A.
A. a classified protection plan.
- B.
B. an offensive force protection plan.
- C.
C. a defensive force protection plan.
- D.
D. protecting sensitive information.
Correct Answer
D. D. protecting sensitive information. -
- 26.
What is defined as the capability to reduce the effectiveness of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy?
- A.
Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD).
- B.
B. Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD).
- C.
C. Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC).
- D.
D. Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD).
Correct Answer
D. D. Camouflage, concealment, deception (CCD). -
- 27.
Which term means to simulate an object or to use a signature generator to simulate a potential target?
- A.
Disguise
- B.
B. Decoy
- C.
C. Blend
- D.
D. Hide
Correct Answer
B. B. Decoy -
- 28.
16.(209) Rules of engagement (ROE) are the commander’s rules for
- A.
A. mission requirements.
- B.
B. national policy goals.
- C.
C. the use of force.
- D.
D. the rule of law.
Correct Answer
C. C. the use of force. -
- 29.
16.(209) What consideration does not drive Rules of Engagement?
- A.
A. Legal
- B.
B. Policy
- C.
C. Military
- D.
D. Civilian
Correct Answer
D. D. Civilian -
- 30.
What is defined as the threat of imminent use of force against the U.S. and U.S. forces and includes the threat to use force to preclude or impede the mission and/or duties of U.S. forces?
- A.
Hostile act
- B.
B. Hostile force.
- C.
C. Hostile intent.
- D.
D. Elements of self-defense.
Correct Answer
C. C. Hostile intent. -
- 31.
The Air Force unit type code (UTC) library has how many posturing codes?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
C. 6 -
- 32.
When the need for a new unit type code (UTC) or a major change in an existing UTC is required, the change is initiated at
- A.
Any level
- B.
B. unit level.
- C.
C. MAJCOM level.
- D.
D. Air Staff level only.
Correct Answer
A. Any level -
- 33.
What unit type code (UTC), when deployed with QFEBB and QFEBS, provides HQ Staff support for a medium to large (130 – 180 personnel) deployed Security Forces unit?
- A.
QFEBU
- B.
B. QFEPR
- C.
C. QFEBF
- D.
D. QFEBA
Correct Answer
D. D. QFEBA -
- 34.
How many phases are there in the deployment process?
- A.
Five
- B.
B. Four
- C.
C. Three
- D.
D. Two
Correct Answer
B. B. Four -
- 35.
The process of Reception, Staging, Onward-Movement and Integration begins in which deployment phase?
- A.
Deployment
- B.
B. Employment
- C.
C. Re-deployment.
- D.
D. Pre-deployment.
Correct Answer
A. Deployment -
- 36.
16.(211) In the deployment process, which of these is the focal point for all base deployments?
- A.
A. Installation deployment readiness cell.
- B.
B. Installation personnel readiness team.
- C.
C. Installation deployment officer.
- D.
D. Unit deployment manager.
Correct Answer
A. A. Installation deployment readiness cell. -
- 37.
16.(212) Which of the following is not a readiness reporting tool?
- A.
A. Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS).
- B.
B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement.
- C.
C. Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART).
- D.
D. Mission-essential task list (METL).
Correct Answer
B. B. Designed operational capability (DOC) statement. -
- 38.
The Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) has how many areas of reporting?
- A.
4
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
15
Correct Answer
A. 4 -
- 39.
A summary of a unit’s mission and resources for which it has been organized, designed, and equipped is known as
- A.
A. a Status of Resources and Training Systems (SORTS).
- B.
B. a Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement.
- C.
C. an Air Expeditionary Force Reporting Tool (ART).
- D.
D. a Mission Essential Task List (METL).
Correct Answer
B. B. a Designed Operational Capability (DOC) Statement. -
- 40.
What must Security Forces (SF) ensure is identified immediately so that action can be taken to mitigate across the Air Force?
- A.
Any deficiencies
- B.
B. Any hazards.
- C.
C. Any threats.
- D.
D. Any risks.
Correct Answer
A. Any deficiencies -
- 41.
At a minimum, how many after action reports (AARs) must be submitted?
- A.
One
- B.
B. Two
- C.
C. Three
- D.
D. Four
Correct Answer
B. B. Two -
- 42.
The final after action report (AAR) must be submitted how many days prior to the end of a deployment?
- A.
45 days
- B.
30 days
- C.
C. 15 days
- D.
D. 5 days
Correct Answer
C. C. 15 days -
- 43.
16.(213) The use of electronic control devices is included in what after action report (AAR) incident classification?
- A.
A. Combat arms or training incident.
- B.
B. Shooting Incident.
- C.
C. Security Incident.
- D.
D. Miscellaneous
Correct Answer
D. D. Miscellaneous -
- 44.
44.(214) The nuclear roadmap focuses primarily from the
- A.
A. tactical level.
- B.
B. strategic level.
- C.
C. operational level.
- D.
D. administrative level.
Correct Answer
C. C. operational level. -
- 45.
44.(214) What is essential to our security?
- A.
A. Nuclear operations.
- B.
B. Nuclear deterrence.
- C.
C. Nuclear restraint.
- D.
D. Nuclear surety.
Correct Answer
B. B. Nuclear deterrence. -
- 46.
44.(214) The nuclear roadmap aligns mission focus with
- A.
A. installation commanders.
- B.
B. combatant commanders.
- C.
C. Secretary of Defense.
- D.
D. the president.
Correct Answer
B. B. combatant commanders. -
- 47.
44.(214) What is defined as the denial of unauthorized access to nuclear weapons?
- A.
A. Nuclear Weapon Security Standard.
- B.
B. Nuclear Weapon Security Principle.
- C.
C. Nuclear Weapon Security Program.
- D.
D. Two-Person Concept.
Correct Answer
A. A. Nuclear Weapon Security Standard. -
- 48.
) Inspections and visits focus primarily on whether the security program can meet the Nuclear Weapon Security Standards (NWSS) under scenarios represented by
- A.
A. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
- B.
B. Air Force Global Strike Command (AFGSC).
- C.
C. Major Command Inspector General (MAJCOM IG).
- D.
D. Department of Defense Inspector General (DOD IG).
Correct Answer
A. A. Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA). -
- 49.
Active and passive security measures are used to achieve which principle
- A.
Deter
- B.
B. Delay
- C.
C. Denial
- D.
D. Detect
Correct Answer
B. B. Delay -
- 50.
Who ensures that the host installation meets two-person concept requirements and that nolone zones are delineated around nuclear logistic aircraft?
- A.
Entry control personnel
- B.
B. Nonqualified personnel.
- C.
C. Non-US personnel.
- D.
D. Couriers
Correct Answer
D. D. Couriers -
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Jan 03, 2020Quiz Edited by
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