6f051n Vol 1

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 65

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Financial Management Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    At what level is the Secretary of the Air Force for Financial Management and Comptroller (SAF/FM) responsible for proper performance of financial management functions?
    • A. 

      Nonappropriated funds (NAF)

    • B. 

      All levels

    • C. 

      MAJCOM

    • D. 

      Base or wing level

  • 2. 
    Which Air Staff office serves as technical advisor in carrying out the Air Force's financial management responsiblities?
    • A. 

      SAF/FMB

    • B. 

      SAF/FME

    • C. 

      SAF/FMP

    • D. 

      SAF/AFAFO

  • 3. 
    What kind of program does the Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) provide to ensure effective internal controls?
    • A. 

      Fraud, Waste, and Abuse

    • B. 

      Management Control

    • C. 

      Qaulity Assurance

    • D. 

      Self-inspection

  • 4. 
    The Defense Retiree and Annuitant System services retirees from all branches of service and is located in which Defense Finance and Accounting Service center?
    • A. 

      Cleveland

    • B. 

      Columbus

    • C. 

      Indianapolis

    • D. 

      Kansas City

  • 5. 
    How many divisions are in the Center of Expertise (CoE)?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 6. 
    What information is obtained from the Occupational Survey Report process?
    • A. 

      Strawman task listing

    • B. 

      Functional area job tasks

    • C. 

      Specialty training standards

    • D. 

      Completed Career Field Education and Training Plan

  • 7. 
    Who creates the "strawman" task listing and submits it to the Utilization and Training workshop membership?
    • A. 

      SME (subject matter expert)

    • B. 

      MAJCOM training managers

    • C. 

      MAJCOM functional managers

    • D. 

      Occupational measurement squadron

  • 8. 
    Which sectrion of part 2 in the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) contains the course objective list and training standards?
    • A. 

      Section A

    • B. 

      Section B

    • C. 

      Section C

    • D. 

      Section D

  • 9. 
    The success of an on-the-job training program is the direct result of dedicated, focused effort by
    • A. 

      Trainers and trainees

    • B. 

      Trainers and supervisors

    • C. 

      Management and trainees

    • D. 

      Management and the comptroller

  • 10. 
    Since it is mandatory for you to use on-the-job (OJT) training guides for core task certification, when should you download them from SAF/FM Web site?
    • A. 

      The day you are ready to use them

    • B. 

      Two months in advance of need date

    • C. 

      One month in advance of need date

    • D. 

      One week in advance of need date

  • 11. 
    Nominations for annuel comptroller awards are submitted to
    • A. 

      MAJCOM by 31 December

    • B. 

      SAF/FMPC by 31 December

    • C. 

      SAF/FMPWE by the first workday in January

    • D. 

      MAJCOM by the first workday in January

  • 12. 
    Which of the four categories for comptroller awards carries the most weight during the selection process?
    • A. 

      Outstanding Achievement

    • B. 

      Leadership/Management Traits

    • C. 

      Job Knowledge and Duty Performance

    • D. 

      Professional/Community Accomplishments

  • 13. 
    What format is used for the Aces High award?
    • A. 

      Formatted per MAJCOM instructions

    • B. 

      Career background and accomplishments

    • C. 

      Outstanding achievement for previous year

    • D. 

      Leadership, job knowledge, community accomplishments

  • 14. 
    What is actually more important than the underlying quality of the product or service you provide when providing customer service?
    • A. 

      Accurate results

    • B. 

      Timely feedback

    • C. 

      Customer perception

    • D. 

      Customer satisfaction

  • 15. 
    What is the first thing you should do when approached at the customer service desk?
    • A. 

      Listen carefully to the customer

    • B. 

      Greet the person and introduce yourself

    • C. 

      Restate the problem back to the customer

    • D. 

      Ask if there is anything else you can assist them with

  • 16. 
    Which organization writes, revises, and negotiates with the contracted credit card company on all issues for the government travel charge card program?
    • A. 

      DRU

    • B. 

      GSA

    • C. 

      SAF/FM

    • D. 

      MAJCOM

  • 17. 
    Who is responsbile for administering the travel charge card program at the base and unit level?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Wing commander

    • C. 

      Squadron Commander

    • D. 

      Agency program coordinator

  • 18. 
    After how many days is a delinquent travel charge cancelled?
    • A. 

      45

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 19. 
    Who appoints the quality assurance manger to have the primary responsiblity for administering the Quality Assurance Program?
    • A. 

      FM

    • B. 

      FSO

    • C. 

      FMA Officer

    • D. 

      Wing commander

  • 20. 
    Who is the comptroller focal point for MAJCOM/FM inspections?
    • A. 

      IG

    • B. 

      FM

    • C. 

      FSO

    • D. 

      QAM

  • 21. 
    At a minimum, how often should performance indicators be reviewed to determine their continued adequacy in relating mission performance to management?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Biannually

  • 22. 
    What process tool provides the comptroller with an independent review of a functional area?
    • A. 

      Compliance Review

    • B. 

      Performance Indicator

    • C. 

      Quality Assurance Review

    • D. 

      Discrepancy Tracking Form

  • 23. 
    Which Defense Joint Military Pay System transaction is processed to establish a Pay Record Accessibility indicator for members not appearing on the Off-line Reporting control roster?
    • A. 

      SC03

    • B. 

      SC04

    • C. 

      SG03

    • D. 

      SG04

  • 24. 
    Which net change of a Master Military Pay Account requires a further Pay Record Acessibility audity?
    • A. 

      $100 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave

    • B. 

      $50 or an increase of 2.5 days of leave

    • C. 

      $25 or an incrase of over 2.5 days of leave

    • D. 

      $50 or an increase of over 2.5 days of leave

  • 25. 
    A condition that has a significant negative impact on an organization's management control objectives is known as
    • A. 

      A risk

    • B. 

      An audit finding

    • C. 

      A control weakness

    • D. 

      A material weakness

  • 26. 
    Who determines if a weakness is material enough to warrant reporting it to a higher level?
    • A. 

      Auditors

    • B. 

      Subordinates

    • C. 

      Management

    • D. 

      Functional OPR

  • 27. 
    What is the preferred style for conflict resolution?
    • A. 

      Avoiding

    • B. 

      Competing

    • C. 

      Collaborating

    • D. 

      Compromising

  • 28. 
    Who ensures that two ISSOs are appointing at each field site?
    • A. 

      Comptroller

    • B. 

      Chief, Customer Service

    • C. 

      Chief, Customer Support

    • D. 

      Financial Services Office

  • 29. 
    How often should an ISSO ensure that USERID validations are completed?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semi-annually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 30. 
    Which Defense Joint Military Pay System profile is used to verify electronic funds transer payments?
    • A. 

      JJUMPSR

    • B. 

      JPBBPpFL

    • C. 

      JPBXPFL

    • D. 

      JJINQFL

  • 31. 
    Military pay information will be sotred with the Immediate Access Storage in the Defense Joint Military Pay System within the current month and
    • A. 

      6 prior months

    • B. 

      11 prior months

    • C. 

      12 prior months

    • D. 

      18 prior months

  • 32. 
    How are closed entries identified in the Defense Joint Military Pay System?
    • A. 

      A "c" follows the FID

    • B. 

      A hyphen follows the FID

    • C. 

      The word "closed" appears

    • D. 

      Closed entries are not in DJMS

  • 33. 
    Which of the following is not a type of inquiry in DJMS?
    • A. 

      FID

    • B. 

      Table

    • C. 

      Group

    • D. 

      Individual

  • 34. 
    Which section of the leave and earing statment lists the member's expiration term of service?
    • A. 

      Pay data

    • B. 

      Remarks

    • C. 

      ID section

    • D. 

      Current pay information

  • 35. 
    Which section of the leave and earnings statement lists total entitlements and total deductions year to date?
    • A. 

      Taxes

    • B. 

      Remarks

    • C. 

      Pay Data

    • D. 

      Entitlements

  • 36. 
    Which of the following is NOT characterized as a Case Management System (CMS) case?
    • A. 

      Documents

    • B. 

      Processes

    • C. 

      Problems

    • D. 

      Queries

  • 37. 
    What would you do in CMS, after you enter a member's social security number in the "Enter/Upgrade/Request status on a case" section?
    • A. 

      Click on the Add New Case button

    • B. 

      Read the comment sections section

    • C. 

      Select the applicable subject from the pull-down menu

    • D. 

      Determine if the individual is being paid through the normal DJMS system

  • 38. 
    How many days of pay would a member receive for the pay period if he or she entered active duty on 19 February in a non-leap year?
    • A. 

      9

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      11

    • D. 

      12

  • 39. 
    A member who only serves on active duty from 15 March through 5 April receives how many days of basic pay?
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      21

    • C. 

      22

    • D. 

      23

  • 40. 
    What is a minimum pay grade that can receive special duty assignment pay?
    • A. 

      E-6

    • B. 

      E-5

    • C. 

      E-4

    • D. 

      E-3

  • 41. 
    Who determines if a member is eligible to receive hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)?
    • A. 

      FSO

    • B. 

      FMO

    • C. 

      MAJCOM

    • D. 

      Unit Commander

  • 42. 
    Hazardous duty incentive pay for flying is payable to
    • A. 

      Officer crew members only

    • B. 

      Personnel on air weapons controller duty

    • C. 

      Officer and enlisted crew members and noncrew members

    • D. 

      Personnel designated by the secretary of the Air Force

  • 43. 
    The rate payable to officers for aviation career incentive pay is based on
    • A. 

      Years of aviation service only

    • B. 

      Grade and years of aviation service

    • C. 

      Type of aircraft and years of officer service

    • D. 

      Years of aviation service and officer service

  • 44. 
    How long must a member be subject to hostile actions before he or she is entitled to hostile fire pay?
    • A. 

      One full month

    • B. 

      Any part of a month

    • C. 

      Eight Consecutive days

    • D. 

      Two consecutive days

  • 45. 
    If all other qualifications are met, which pay must the member be netitled to in order to receive hostile fire pay?
    • A. 

      Basic pay

    • B. 

      Foreign Duty Pay

    • C. 

      Special duty assignment pay

    • D. 

      Hazardous duty incentive pay

  • 46. 
    What is the first step when processing hostile fire/imminent danger pay?
    • A. 

      Log into DMO

    • B. 

      Verify contry code

    • C. 

      Verify source document

    • D. 

      Ask member for social security number

  • 47. 
    What code stops hardship duty pay?
    • A. 

      1401

    • B. 

      1402

    • C. 

      2301

    • D. 

      2302

  • 48. 
    To receive board certified pay, a physician must also be eligible for
    • A. 

      PF

    • B. 

      VSP

    • C. 

      ISP

    • D. 

      ASP

  • 49. 
    Which of the following receive incentive special pay when they agree to serve on active duty for at least one year from the effective date of the contract?
    • A. 

      Dentists in grades O-5 and above

    • B. 

      Dentists in grades O-5 and below

    • C. 

      Physicians in grades O-6 and above

    • D. 

      Physicians in grades O-6 and below

  • 50. 
    The amount of basic allowance for housing paid is based upon
    • A. 

      Rank and longevity

    • B. 

      Rank and number of dependents

    • C. 

      Rank, dependency status, and duty location

    • D. 

      Pay date, dependency status, and duty location

  • 51. 
    Which document can you use to verify a person's relationship to a primary dependent (those not needing a dependency determination)?
    • A. 

      DD Form 2AF

    • B. 

      Final adoption decree

    • C. 

      Court decree for child support

    • D. 

      In-fact determination

  • 52. 
    The financial services office can process dependency determinations for
    • A. 

      Air Force sponsors only

    • B. 

      Retired Air Force and Army sponsors

    • C. 

      Active duty Air Force and Army sponsors

    • D. 

      Sponsors from all branches of service regardless of status

  • 53. 
    Which person is not considered a primary dependent?
    • A. 

      Spouse

    • B. 

      Parent

    • C. 

      Stepchild under 21 years of age

    • D. 

      Child born out of wedlock whose paternity is established

  • 54. 
    Personnel in what grade are authorized separate rations based solely on their responsibilities?
    • A. 

      E-5

    • B. 

      E-6

    • C. 

      E-7

    • D. 

      Officers

  • 55. 
    Any maneuver, war game, field exercise, or similar operation in excess of 180 days where members subsist in a government mess is called
    • A. 

      Field duty

    • B. 

      Temporary field assignment

    • C. 

      Operational field assignment

    • D. 

      Permanent change of assignment

  • 56. 
    Basic allowance for subsistence is not authorized when a member is
    • A. 

      In a PCS move

    • B. 

      In field duty status

    • C. 

      On permissive TDY

    • D. 

      In an excess travel status

  • 57. 
    How many options are there for accomplishing retroactive collections?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 58. 
    Additional uniform and equipment allowance is paid to officers at the rate of
    • A. 

      $100 annually

    • B. 

      $150 upon entry on active duty

    • C. 

      $200 upon each entry on active duty

    • D. 

      $250 upon each entry on active duty

  • 59. 
    A member enters the Air Force in January 1997. When will the first payment of standard clothing maintinenance allowance be paid?
    • A. 

      EOM January 2000

    • B. 

      EOM December 2000

    • C. 

      EOM January 2001

    • D. 

      EOM December 2001

  • 60. 
    Duties such as Security Forces and the Air Force Band are authorized which clothing allowance?
    • A. 

      Civilian

    • B. 

      Standard

    • C. 

      Supplemental

    • D. 

      Special continuing

  • 61. 
    When determining eligibility for family separation allowance-II (FSA-II), you should
    • A. 

      Never include the 31st day of the month

    • B. 

      Always include the 31st day of the month

    • C. 

      Include the departure date, but not the return date

    • D. 

      Include the return date, but not the departure date

  • 62. 
    The maximum number of days you can reimburse a member fore temporary lodging expense for a CONUS to CONUS PCS and a CONUS to overseas PCS, respectively is
    • A. 

      4 and 8

    • B. 

      5 and 8

    • C. 

      10 and 8

    • D. 

      10 and 5

  • 63. 
    The maximum number of days authorized for temporary lodging allowance is
    • A. 

      TLA-I is 60 days; TLA-D is 20 days

    • B. 

      TLA-I is 20 days; TLA-D is 60 days

    • C. 

      TLA-I is 10 days; TLA-D is 60 days

    • D. 

      TLA-I is 60 days; TLA-D is 10 days

  • 64. 
    Who can access the temporary lodging allowance system?
    • A. 

      FSO

    • B. 

      HMO

    • C. 

      FMO

    • D. 

      DFAS-DE

  • 65. 
    When cooking facilities are available, computation for TLA is based on what percentage of MI&E rate
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      46

    • C. 

      50

    • D. 

      66

  • 66. 
    What percentage of the utility/recurring maintenance allowance is used whne computing monthly overseas housing allowance for members without dependents?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      65

    • D. 

      50

  • 67. 
    What percentage of the cost-of-living allowance will be paid for a member without dependents who has a meal card and resides in the dorms overseas?
    • A. 

      60

    • B. 

      57

    • C. 

      47

    • D. 

      43

  • 68. 
    What effect does the permanent change of station departure transactions have on payment of cost-of-living allowance?
    • A. 

      Starts it the day of arrival at the OCONUS locations

    • B. 

      Starts it the day after arrival date in the OCONUS location

    • C. 

      Stops it one day prior to the departure date/OCONUS to CONUS

    • D. 

      Stops in one day prior to the departure date/CONUS to OCONUS

  • 69. 
    The Savings Deposit Program offers members a way to invest money into an interest bearing account while serving in
    • A. 

      The CONUS

    • B. 

      An OCONUS country

    • C. 

      A conflict or contingency operation

    • D. 

      Special operations OCONUS

  • 70. 
    To be eligible to deposit funds into the Savings Deposit Program, a person must be in the area of responsibility for at least
    • A. 

      90 days

    • B. 

      More than 90 days

    • C. 

      4 consecutive months

    • D. 

      6 consecutive months

  • 71. 
    Interest accrual from the Savings Deposit Program continues up to
    • A. 

      The day after the departure date

    • B. 

      120 days after departing the area

    • C. 

      The date the account is closed by DFAS-CL

    • D. 

      90 days after departing the area of responsibility

  • 72. 
    What is the maximum number of discretionary allotments authorized?
    • A. 

      Four

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Six

    • D. 

      Seven

  • 73. 
    The maximum number of discretionary allotments allowed to any financial institution is
    • A. 

      Six

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      One

  • 74. 
    Which allotment is for a defined period of time?
    • A. 

      B

    • B. 

      S

    • C. 

      T

    • D. 

      X

  • 75. 
    Which allotment is for a defined period of time?
    • A. 

      Bond

    • B. 

      Savings allotment

    • C. 

      Dependent allotment

    • D. 

      Combined Federal Campaign

  • 76. 
    The Thrift Savings Plan is operated solely for the benefit of the participants and their beneficiaries by the
    • A. 

      DFAS-DE

    • B. 

      National Thrift Boardd

    • C. 

      Financial services office

    • D. 

      Federal Retirement Thrift Investment Board

  • 77. 
    In the financial services office, you will not
    • A. 

      Answer TSP related questions

    • B. 

      Process enrollment forms in DJMS

    • C. 

      Forward original TSP-1 to HQ AFPC for filing

    • D. 

      Forward TSP contributions to the National Finance Center

  • 78. 
    Which items are used to compute Federal Income Tax Withholding?
    • A. 

      BAQ, BAS, and FDP

    • B. 

      FDP, BP, and BAQ

    • C. 

      All items of pay

    • D. 

      All allowances

  • 79. 
    What percentage rate is the social security portion of FITW?
    • A. 

      6.5

    • B. 

      6.4

    • C. 

      6.3

    • D. 

      6.2

  • 80. 
    What items of pay are subject to State Income Tax Withholding?
    • A. 

      Same as FITW

    • B. 

      Same as FICA

    • C. 

      One-time payments only

    • D. 

      Varies from state to state

  • 81. 
    When are residents of Arizona exempt from State Income Tax Withholding?
    • A. 

      While serving inside the state

    • B. 

      While serving outside the state

    • C. 

      While assigned overseas

    • D. 

      Never, Arizona residents must pay SITW

  • 82. 
    When a member changes his or her state of legal residence to Idaho, process an FK04 to
    • A. 

      Change additional withholding

    • B. 

      Start state income tax withholding

    • C. 

      Stop state income tax withholding

    • D. 

      Change the number of exemption

  • 83. 
    You  should brief anyone claiming Puerto Rico for state income tax purposes of their liability since
    • A. 

      Defense Joint Military Pay System does not withhold SITW and the member is liable

    • B. 

      Most members will receive refunds for all amounts withheld

    • C. 

      The laws of Puerto Rico are subject to federal interpretation

    • D. 

      Tax witholding is inadequate due to changing tax laws

  • 84. 
    An officer serving in a qualified hazardous duty area without entitlement to hostile fire pay is entitled to a tax exclusion equal to
    • A. 

      The is no exclusion

    • B. 

      $500 per month while in the area

    • C. 

      All items of pay and any taxable allowances

    • D. 

      The pay of the highest ranking enlisted person

  • 85. 
    If a member has been overpaid basic allowance for housing and is separating within 30 days, you need to
    • A. 

      Call the member into your office for an immediate cash collection

    • B. 

      Contact MPF to extend the member's active duty to ensure no debt at separation

    • C. 

      Notify the member the the two-thirds rule does not apply and collect as much as possible

    • D. 

      Verify the reenlistment transaction has not been received and begin collection action immediately

  • 86. 
    How do members reimburse the government for cost charge transportation requests?
    • A. 

      Cash collection

    • B. 

      As a casual payment

    • C. 

      Prorated as any other debt

    • D. 

      There is no reimbursement; they are purchased before travel

  • 87. 
    After contacting a member concerning a tax levy, within how many workdays must the member report the financial services office to be briefed on resolving the debt?
    • A. 

      10

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      3

  • 88. 
    When a member has a tax levy deducted, what happens to future tax returns?
    • A. 

      Tax returns are not affected

    • B. 

      The deduction for the tax levy is reduced

    • C. 

      Only a portion of the return is applied to the levy

    • D. 

      If there is a refund due, the IRS applies it to the levy

  • 89. 
    The member or the member's commander can apply for this type of indebtedness relief.
    • A. 

      Appeal

    • B. 

      Waiver

    • C. 

      Remission

    • D. 

      Rebuttal of household goods

  • 90. 
    If a member believes the charges (debt) incurred from excess cost for the shipment of household goods is incorrect, the member must submit a letter of rebuttal to the local travel management office within
    • A. 

      30 days after notification

    • B. 

      30 days after adjudication

    • C. 

      45 days after notification

    • D. 

      45 days after adjudication

  • 91. 
    If a financial services officer denies a member's request for a repayment period of 12 months, who can approve the repayment request?
    • A. 

      DFAS-DE

    • B. 

      Base comptroller

    • C. 

      Wing Commander

    • D. 

      Member's unit commander

  • 92. 
    If allotments must be stopped to satisfy the two-thirds rule for deductions, how do you determine the allotments to stop?
    • A. 

      Nondiscretionary allotments only

    • B. 

      The member chooses the allotments to stop

    • C. 

      Stop all voluntary allotments without consent

    • D. 

      Stop as few as possible to satisfy the maount

  • 93. 
    Dishonored commissary checks are
    • A. 

      Prorated if approved

    • B. 

      Not subject to the two-thirds rule

    • C. 

      Processed directly by HQ AAFES

    • D. 

      Subject to the same repayment options as other debts

  • 94. 
    The Open or Suspended Questionable Indebtedness Listing is produced in
    • A. 

      March and September

    • B. 

      April and October

    • C. 

      March only

    • D. 

      April only

  • 95. 
    Within how many days must the Open or Suspended Questionable Indebtedness Listing be completed?
    • A. 

      90

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      30

  • 96. 
    When are allowances forfeited?
    • A. 

      Allowances are never forfeited

    • B. 

      When the appellate review process is complete

    • C. 

      Anytime nonjudicial punishment is administered

    • D. 

      When a general court-martial includes them in the sentence

  • 97. 
    Fines are deducted after
    • A. 

      Involuntary allotments

    • B. 

      All other debts are deducted

    • C. 

      Dependent support allotments

    • D. 

      All allowances are processed on the MMPA

  • 98. 
    Direct deposit of funds is mandatory for all civilian employees except
    • A. 

      Summer hires

    • B. 

      GS-12 and above

    • C. 

      GS-05 and below

    • D. 

      Wage grade employees

  • 99. 
    What action must DFAS take if the Defense Finance and Accounting Service center cannot convince a bank to waive charges against an employee's account because of faulty delivery of pay?
    • A. 

      Contact the FRB that services that particular institution for assitance

    • B. 

      Request reimbursement of check charges from the treasury trhough the local FRB

    • C. 

      Reimburse the employee and provide letters of explanation to any holder of dishonored checks

    • D. 

      Request reimbursement of check charges from the FRB with assitance from the employee's union

  • 100. 
    What figure is used as the basis for FICA tax?
    • A. 

      Total net pay for each pay period

    • B. 

      Total gross pay for each pay period

    • C. 

      Net pay and any entitlement not subject to federal tax

    • D. 

      Gross pay and any entitlement not subject to federal tax