Trivia Questions Over Microorganisms
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- 1.(001) Which of the following most accurately described an organism that causes infection and disease?
- A.
Antigen
- B.
Antibody
- C.
Pathogen
- D.
Microorganism
- 2.(001) Which classification of organisms is responsible for the disease malaria?
- A.
Sporozoa
- B.
Clamydia
- C.
Rickettsia
- D.
Mycoplasma
- 3.(002) Which stage of infection is the period of time between the invasion of the infectious agent into the body and the onset of symptoms of the particular disease?
- A.
Illness
- B.
Virulence
- C.
Incubation
- D.
Convalescence
- 4.(002) The mucous membrane filters and traps foreign bodies through
- A.
Cilia
- B.
Sneezing
- C.
Handwashing
- D.
The lymphatic system
- 5.(002) Which of the following is not a type of transmission-based precaution?
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Enteric
- 6.(002) Which transmission-based precaution must have monitored, negative air pressure?
- A.
Droplet
- B.
Contact
- C.
Airborne
- D.
Respiratory
- 7.(003) Which is the most serious type of meningitis?
- A.
Viral
- B.
Serum
- C.
Bacterial
- D.
Pneumococcal
- 8.(003) One of the most common and serious complications a female may develop from gonorrhea is
- A.
Pelvic inflammatory disease
- B.
Irregular menstral cycles
- C.
Vaginal discharge
- D.
Chlamydia
- 9.(004) Which medical term refers to practices designed to eliminate all microorganisms?
- A.
Medical sepsis
- B.
Medical asepsis
- C.
Surgical sepsis
- D.
Surgical asepsis
- 10.(004) Which substance is used to inhibit the growth and development of microorganisms on living tissue?
- A.
Disinfectant
- B.
Antiseptic
- C.
Detergent
- D.
Antitoxin
- 11.(005) What type of isolation are patients highly susceptible to infection placed in?
- A.
Airborne
- B.
Droplet
- C.
Contact
- D.
Reverse
- 12.(005) What procedures are followed when transporting an infectious patient to the radiology department?
- A.
You must don a gown, mask, and gloves prior to transporting the patient
- B.
Notify all hospital personnel so they can take necessary precautions
- C.
Give the patient a gown, mask, and gloves to wear before transport
- D.
Hospital policy does not permit transport of infectious patients
- 13.(005) An acceptable alternative to an anteroom for an isolation unit is
- A.
A storage cart
- B.
An isolation cart
- C.
The supply room
- D.
The nurse's station
- 14.(005) When using a mask in an isolation unit, put the mask on
- A.
After entering the unit, and take it off before leaving
- B.
After entering the unit, and take it off after leaving
- C.
Before entering, and take it off before leaving
- D.
Before entering, and take it off after leaving
- 15.(006) What is the first step in preparing objects for sterilization?
- A.
Cleaning
- B.
Disinfection
- C.
Pasteurization
- D.
Decontamination
- 16.(006) How long is an item immersed in the sterilant during the sterilization cycle of a peracetic acid sterilizer?
- A.
Three minutes
- B.
Five minutes
- C.
10 minutes
- D.
12 minutes
- 17.(006) Which is not a commonly used disinfecting agent?
- A.
Formaldehydes
- B.
Hydrochloric acid
- C.
Phenolics
- D.
Alcohol
- 18.(006) How often do you clean and inspect steam sterilizers?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Daily and weekly
- C.
Daily and monthly
- D.
Weekly and monthly
- 19.(006) Diagnostic tests should be run on a peracetic acid sterilizer every
- A.
Load
- B.
Other load
- C.
12 hours
- D.
24 hours
- 20.(006) How often should biological testing be conducted and documented for hydrogen peroxide plasma sterilizers?
- A.
Every load
- B.
Every 30 loads
- C.
At least once per day
- D.
At least once a week
- 21.(007) Which basic human need category is rest included in?
- A.
Safety
- B.
Security
- C.
Self-esteem
- D.
Physiological
- 22.(007) Which vitamins are necessary for the production of red blood cells?
- A.
Vitamins A
- B.
Vitamins K
- C.
Ascorbic acid
- D.
B-complex vitamins
- 23.(007) What substance is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis?
- A.
Iron
- B.
Soy
- C.
Niacin
- D.
Calcium
- 24.(007) Plasma lipids include what three substances?
- A.
Vitamins, minerals, and herbs
- B.
Water, sucrose, and polyunsaturated fats
- C.
Nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and glucosaccaride
- D.
Triglycerides, phospholipids, and cholesterol
- 25.(007) What two actions are included in the physiological need of rest?
- A.
Rest and activity
- B.
Pain free and rest
- C.
Activity and pain free
- D.
Pain free and exercise
- 26.(008) What reflex is displayed when an infant reacts to sudden noise or movement by extending and retracting the arms and legs?
- A.
Babinski
- B.
Grasping
- C.
Rooting
- D.
Moro
- 27.(008) A toddler is expected to weigh four times the birth weight at age
- A.
12 months
- B.
18 months
- C.
24 months
- D.
30 months
- 28.(009) Which of the following is most likely to be a part of a work site wellness program?
- A.
Blood pressure screenings
- B.
Assessing current fitness status
- C.
Establishing guidelines for disposal of contaminants
- D.
Providing services designed to maintain a healthy lifestyle
- 29.(010) What substance does the body need in order to absorn vitamin B12?
- A.
Gastric acid
- B.
Intrinsic factor
- C.
Hydrogen ions
- D.
Red blood cells
- 30.(010) B12 deficiency are first noted by
- A.
Aplastic anemia
- B.
Hemolytic anemia
- C.
Pernicious anemia
- D.
Sickle cell anemia
- 31.(010) Vitamin B6 concentration in food sources is lost through
- A.
Dehydration
- B.
Packaging
- C.
Cooking
- D.
Freezing
- 32.(010) Large doses of vitamin C cause all of the following except
- A.
Heartburn
- B.
Constipation
- C.
Kidney stones
- D.
Abdominal cramps
- 33.(010) Vitamin D interacts with all of the following except
- A.
Digitalis
- B.
Calcium
- C.
Mineral oil
- D.
Thiazide diuretics
- 34.(010) A primary sign of a vitamin E overdose is readily seen through the disease process of
- A.
Rickets
- B.
Night blindness
- C.
Pernicious anemia
- D.
Prolonged clotting times
- 35.(010) Vitamin K is not used to treat which of the following ailments?
- A.
Ulcerative colitis
- B.
Heparin overdose
- C.
Malabsorption syndromes
- D.
Prolonged use of salicylates
- 36.(010) Which of the following vitamins is not fat-soluble?
- A.
Vitamin A
- B.
Vitamin C
- C.
Vitamin E
- D.
Vitamin K
- 37.(010) Signs of sodium chloride deficiency can be seen
- A.
During a blood transfusion
- B.
As a result of not using table salt
- C.
When an individual is unable to sink in water
- D.
Through an excessive amount of fluid loss
- 38.(010) Half-normal saline solution is represented by
- A.
0.2%
- B.
0.40%
- C.
0.45%
- D.
0.50%
- 39.(010) Potassium helps to maintain
- A.
Facial muscle tone
- B.
Clarity of eye sight
- C.
Heartbeat regulation
- D.
Alertness in the cerebellum
- 40.(010) Caution must be taken when administering potassium to individuals with all of the following except
- A.
Diabetes
- B.
Gastric ulcers
- C.
Cardiac disease
- D.
Renal impairment
- 41.(010) Oral iron supplements should not be taken with
- A.
Coffee, cranberry juice, or water
- B.
Orange or grapefruit juice
- C.
Soda, water, or milk
- D.
Tea, milk, or coffee
- 42.(010) Which route is injectable iron administered?
- A.
Intramuscular
- B.
Intravenous
- C.
Transdermal
- D.
Z-track
- 43.(010) When larger molecules are constructed from smaller molecules, this is known as
- A.
Attraction
- B.
Catabolism
- C.
Anabolism
- D.
Cataclysm
- 44.(010) Cellular metabolism is controlled by a specific kind of
- A.
Muscle
- B.
Protein
- C.
Glucose
- D.
Enzyme
- 45.(010) Electrolytes that release hydrogen ions in water are called
- A.
Salts
- B.
Acids
- C.
Catalyzed
- D.
Synthesized
- 46.(010) When an excessive amount of fats are metabolized, it can be noted by
- A.
Excessive thirst and nocturia
- B.
Acetone in the breath and urine
- C.
Constant hunger despite calorie intake
- D.
Severe vomiting resulting in weight loss
- 47.(011) Which of the following is an accurate definition of leukocytes?
- A.
Protect against disease at the cellular level
- B.
The body's only defense against infection
- C.
Proliferate hemoglobin and carry oxygen to the body
- D.
Carry amino acids to the kidneys for deamination and excretion
- 48.(011) The two main categories of leukocytes are
- A.
Agranulocytes and basophils
- B.
Granulocytes and agranulocytes
- C.
Neutrophils and granulocytes
- D.
Monophils and lymphocytes
- 49.(011) Neutrophils are also known as
- A.
Polypeptides
- B.
Polysaccharides
- C.
Multigranulocytes
- D.
Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
- 50.(011) The life span of lymphocytes is
- A.
12 hours
- B.
2 weeks
- C.
Years
- D.
Days
- 51.(011) What cells do lymph nodes contain in large number to fight invading microorganisms?
- A.
Lymphocytes and macrophages
- B.
Polyleukocytes and monocytes
- C.
Monocytes and phagocytes
- D.
Neutrophils and leukocytes
- 52.(011) When a child scrapes his or her hands and infection results, which lymph nodes will become enlarged?
- A.
Cervical
- B.
Thoracic
- C.
Axillary
- D.
Supratrochlear
- 53.(011) Children who receive routine childhood immunizations are protected by
- A.
Artificially acquired passive immunity
- B.
Artificially acquired active immunity
- C.
Naturally acquired passive immunity
- D.
Naturally acquired active immunity
- 54.(011) The body's first step in the healing process is
- A.
Inflammation
- B.
Collecting
- C.
Infection
- D.
Bruising
- 55.(011) During which stage of healing are immature fiber cells and capillaries formed?
- A.
Bruising
- B.
Maturation
- C.
Inflammation
- D.
Reconstruction
- 56.(011) The fibrous structural protein collagen is found in all connective tissue during which stage of healing?
- A.
Bruising
- B.
Maturation
- C.
Inflammation
- D.
Reconstruction
- 57.(011) Full maturation of a wound is evident when
- A.
New capillaries form
- B.
The scar is deep red in color
- C.
The scaring is white and glossy
- D.
A scab completely covers the wound
- 58.(012) For many patients who suffer from severe injuries or medical conditions, their first psychological reaction is
- A.
Guilt
- B.
Acceptance
- C.
Fear and anxiety
- D.
Shock and disorientation
- 59.(013) What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrhythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
- A.
Hypercalcemia
- B.
Hypocalcemia
- C.
Hyperkalemia
- D.
Hypernatremia
- 60.(014) What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning, or ingested too many antacids?
- A.
Metabolic acidosis
- B.
Metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Respiratory acidosis
- D.
Respiratory alkalosis
- 61.(014) Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?
- A.
Metabolic acidosis
- B.
Metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Respiratory acidosis
- D.
Respiratory alkalosis
- 62.(014) Deficiency in respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called
- A.
Metabolic acidosis
- B.
Metabolic alkalosis
- C.
Respiratory acidosis
- D.
Respiratory alkalosis
- 63.(015) To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than
- A.
4 hours
- B.
8 hours
- C.
16 hours
- D.
24 hours
- 64.(016) When selecting an intravenous (IV) solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeters (cc) would you possibly be able to select from?
- A.
100 to 200cc
- B.
500 to 750cc
- C.
100 to 2,000cc
- D.
500 to 2,000cc
- 65.(016) Normally, how high above patients should you hang an intravenous (IV) solution bag?
- A.
6 to 12 inches
- B.
18 to 24 inches
- C.
24 to 36 inches
- D.
36 to 48 inches
- 66.(016) If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous (IV) solution, what should you do?
- A.
Slow the infusion
- B.
Discontinue the IV immediately
- C.
Replace the tubing and the container
- D.
Send the solution to the laboratory for analysis
- 67.(017) How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen?
- A.
1 tablespoon
- B.
2 tablespoons
- C.
3 tablespoons
- D.
All of the defecated stool
- 68.(018) After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for
- A.
1 to 2 minutes
- B.
2 to 3 minutes
- C.
3 to 4 minutes
- D.
4 to 5 minutes
- 69.(018) During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?
- A.
To allow the blood to clot
- B.
To prevent spillage of blood
- C.
It contains phagocytes, which may interfere with test results
- D.
It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results
- 70.(018) What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?
- A.
Read the operating instructions
- B.
Confirm the order with a co-worker
- C.
Choose a site to obtain a blood sample
- D.
Ask all family members to leave the room
- 71.(018) The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dL) is
- A.
40 to 100 mg/dL
- B.
70 to 115 mg/dL
- C.
90 to 150 mg/dL
- D.
120 to 200 mg/dL
- 72.(019) In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's
- A.
Temperature
- B.
Complaint of a headache
- C.
History of cardiac arrhythmias
- D.
Physical deformity of the left leg
- 73.(019) A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
- A.
Rectum
- B.
Sigmoid colon
- C.
Ascending colon
- D.
Transverse colon
- 74.(019) What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy?
- A.
Fowler
- B.
Supine
- C.
Prone
- D.
Sims
- 75.(019) When educating a patient with pseudofolliculitis barbae (PFB) on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving
- A.
In the opposite direction of hair growth
- B.
In the direction of hair growth
- C.
With facial skin stretched
- D.
With slow strokes
- 76.(020) How do you measure the visual field?
- A.
Identify loss of vision
- B.
Identify slopes in peripheral margins
- C.
Determine degrees away from fixation
- D.
Determine the area that is 30 degrees from the visual axis
- 77.(021) When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses, or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine
- A.
Sequence of test performance
- B.
The patient's eligibility for care
- C.
If glasses are provided free of charge
- D.
How soon an appointment should be made
- 78.(021) How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester (OVT)?
- A.
Seven
- B.
Five
- C.
Four
- D.
Three
- 79.(021) How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the pseudoisochromatic plate set (PIP) test?
- A.
13
- B.
15
- C.
24
- D.
30
- 80.(022) When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second (FEV1) or forced vital capacity (FVC) percentage is less than?
- A.
65
- B.
75
- C.
80
- D.
90
- 81.(022) During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
- A.
1:1
- B.
1:2
- C.
2:2
- D.
2:3
- 82.(023) Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?
- A.
Spinal cord
- B.
Sinoatrial node
- C.
Atrioventricular node
- D.
Frontal lobe of the brain
- 83.(023) Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate?
- A.
Left atrium
- B.
Right atrium
- C.
Left ventricle
- D.
Right ventricle
- 84.(023) Any artifical products or features which appear on an electrocardiogram tracing are called
- A.
Artifacts
- B.
Disturbances
- C.
Random waves
- D.
Deflection waves
- 85.(023) If you are performing an electrocardiogram on someone who is rated, a copy of that electrocardiogram must be sent to the
- A.
Major command (MAJCOM)
- B.
Local medical examination board (MEB)
- C.
Command level Electrocardiographic Library
- D.
US Air Force Central Electrocardiographic Library
- 86.(024) For orthostatic vital sign measurements, what is the correct sequence to take the blood pressure and pulse; and what is the correct time interval between readings?
- A.
Lying, sitting, standing; 3 minutes
- B.
Lying, sitting, standing; 5 minutes
- C.
Standing, sitting, lying; 3 minutes
- D.
Standing, sitting, lying; 5 minutes
- 87.(024) Notify the nurse or physician immediately if the patient's oxygen saturation (SaO2) falls below
- A.
88 percent
- B.
90 percent
- C.
97 percent
- D.
100 percent
- 88.(024) When checking the eyes during a neurological exam, the pupils should
- A.
Constrict quickly and simultaneously
- B.
Dilate quickly and simultaneously
- C.
Constrict quickly and separately
- D.
Dilate quickly and separately
- 89.(025) When can the minor surgery procedure begin?
- A.
When the provider says its time
- B.
After the consent form is signed
- C.
Once a set of vital signs are repeated
- D.
Only after housekeeping has cleaned the room
- 90.(026) When cleaning a two inch laceration on a healthy active duty male's right forearm, you notice some foreign material in the wound, what would be the next step?
- A.
Begin suturing
- B.
Flush the wound
- C.
Dig out the debris with an allis clamp
- D.
Soak the wound in an antibiotic solution
- 91.(026) After you have applied a topical anesthetic to a wound that requires treatment, what should you do next?
- A.
Apply a sterile dressing
- B.
Assess sensory awareness
- C.
Begin suturing the wound
- D.
Soak the wound in cold water
- 92.(027) In the Air Force, how often should you check emergency equipment and supplies in the crash ambulance?
- A.
Daily
- B.
Weekly
- C.
Bimonthly
- D.
Monthly
- 93.(027) How much vacuum must suction units provide when the tube is clamped?
- A.
100 mm Hg
- B.
150 mm Hg
- C.
200 mm Hg
- D.
300 mm Hg
- 94.(028) Which emergency response refers to an emergency, responding with lights and sirens on?
- A.
Code 1; cold
- B.
Code 2; cold
- C.
Code 3; hot
- D.
Code 4; hot
- 95.(028) When transmitting information about a patient over the radio, what information should not be broadcast?
- A.
Age
- B.
Name
- C.
Chief complaint
- D.
Medications and allergies
- 96.(028) In the Air Force, you can use lights and sirens on an ambulance call only
- A.
When the senior medical technician on board approves it
- B.
When local protocol authorizes it
- C.
During the response phase
- D.
During the transport phase
- 97.(029) The action of assessing the scene of an accident to provide valuable information to the emergency medical technician (EMT) is called
- A.
Expanded primary survey
- B.
Secondary survey
- C.
Trauma history
- D.
Scene sizeup
- 98.(030 If the patient is not alert and his or her breathing is slower than eight breaths per minute, provide
- A.
High concentration oxygen with a positive pressure aviators mask
- B.
Ventilations with a bag-valve-mask (BVM) and high-flow oxygen
- C.
High concentration oxygen with a nonrebreather mask
- D.
Low concentration oxygen with nasal cannula
- 99.(031) A rapid trauma assessment is performed on a patient with
- A.
A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
- B.
An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on the area of the body where the greatest threats to the patient are
- C.
A significant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to
- D.
An insignificant mechanism of injury, and focuses on other areas of the body not already attended to
- 100.(032) When you ask a medical patient what may have triggered his or her pain, you are questioning about
- A.
Onset
- B.
Quality
- C.
Radiation
- D.
Provocation
- 101.(032) While gathering a history of illness, when you ask a medical patient if the pain is constant or intermittent, what are you trying to determine?
- A.
Time
- B.
Quality
- C.
Severity
- D.
Radiation
- 102.(033) When preparing to unload a patient from an ambulance, what should you do first?
- A.
Turn the oxygen off in the ambulance
- B.
Ensure all straps are secured on the patient
- C.
Make a list of supplies that need to be restocked
- D.
Place an emergency medical technician on either side of the stretcher as it is rolled out
- 103.(034) If you see clear fluid running out of the ears, you should
- A.
Immediately place the patient in an upright position
- B.
Collect a sample for testing at the hospital
- C.
Pack the ears and nose with sterile gauze
- D.
Not block the fluid from draining
- 104.(034) While examining a patient that fell from a ladder, you notice a bruise behind the ear, what injury should you suspect?
- A.
Hematoma
- B.
Cushing reflex
- C.
Basal skull fracture
- D.
Parietal skull fracture
- 105.(035) Which acronym is used by emergency medical technicians (EMT) in the field to describe a possible fracture?
- A.
Range of motion (ROM)
- B.
Painful, swollen deformity (PSD)
- C.
Purified protein derivative (PPD)
- D.
Alert verbal painful unresponsive (AVPU)
- 106.(036) While working in the emergency room, a patient comes in and states that he has splashed a chemical in his eye, what should you determine first?
- A.
The patient's visual acuity
- B.
If the patient is experiencing any pain
- C.
Whether the patient is authorized care in the facility
- D.
If the patient is wearing contact lenses and which type
- 107.(036) In what anatomical location is the pacemaker lead inserted when using a temporary external pulse generator system?
- A.
Left atrium
- B.
Right atrium
- C.
Left ventricle
- D.
Right ventricle
- 108.(036) When setting up a cardiac monitor, the legal document you should pay particular attention to and fix if it is not correct is the
- A.
Electrocardiogram tracing date and time
- B.
Code blue record of events
- C.
Ambulance run sheet
- D.
Doctor's note
- 109.(201) Which statement would be the responsibility of the medical technician during a routine patient admission to a nursing unit?
- A.
Evaluate patient
- B.
Obtain patient's history
- C.
Transcribe doctor's orders
- D.
Obtain patient's vital signs, height, and weight
- 110.(201) What considerations determine the steps in the routine admission process?
- A.
Patient's condition and cost of admission per day
- B.
Facility policy and the patient's distance from home
- C.
Patient's condition and the facility policy
- D.
Facility policy and patient's request
- 111.(201) While admitting a patient, you notice that the patient seems dizzy and unstable. What should you do?
- A.
Call the doctor to order restraints
- B.
Inform the nurse that the patient is at risk for falling
- C.
Look at the patient's medications; it could be a side effect
- D.
Put restraints on the patient until the physician can be notified
- 112.(201) Who authorizes transfer of patient care for an interservice transfer?
- A.
Chief Nurse
- B.
Both Service Chiefs
- C.
Receiving physician
- D.
Chief of Hospital Services
- 113.(201) During the transfer of a psychiatric patient requiring sedation, how are the patient's valuables safeguarded?
- A.
Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by registered mail
- B.
Designated custodian signs for the property, and forwards the items by overnight mail
- C.
An aeromedical evacuation technician signs for the property, and transfers it with the patient
- D.
An aeromedical evacuation flight nurse signs for the property, and transfers it with the patient
- 114.(201) Which statement allows a patient to depart from the medical facility for a short period of time, usually between 24 and 48 hours?
- A.
Pass
- B.
Discharge
- C.
Subsisting elsewhere
- D.
Absent without leave
- 115.(202) Verbal orders must be countersigned by the physician within
- A.
4 hours
- B.
8 hours
- C.
12 hours
- D.
24 hours
- 116.(202) The most common forms that a medical technician will be responsible for completing are the
- A.
Intake and Output flow sheet and the Vital Signs Record
- B.
Blood Transfusion record and Doctors Orders
- C.
Vital Signs Record and Progress Notes
- D.
Progress Notes and Doctors Orders
- 117.(202) What is the proper method of annotating shift change totals on the DD Form 792, Intake and Output Worksheet?
- A.
No documentation is required at shift change
- B.
Document all totals in the Remarks section
- C.
Document in the Grand Total block
- D.
Circle the last accumulated total
- 118.(202) If an inpatient chart with doctor's orders for vital signs every 4 hours was blank for the day, you would assume the
- A.
Patient was likely off the unit having tests completed
- B.
Patient is doing well and no problems were noted
- C.
Doctor probably changed the orders verbally
- D.
Vital signs were not completed
- 119.(203) Which nursing activity is the main aspect of resolving nursing diagnoses?
- A.
Planning
- B.
Assessing
- C.
Evaluating
- D.
Implementing
- 120.(203) Relative to the nursing process, what is a client goal?
- A.
An observable change in patient behavior
- B.
A measurable change in the patient's condition
- C.
A realistic and measurable statement of the end results of care planning
- D.
A realistic and measurable statement of the expected change in patient behavior
- 121.(203) Which action is performed to help the patient reach his or her goals most effectively?
- A.
Nursing interventions
- B.
Nursing diagnosis
- C.
Nursing skills
- D.
Charting
- 122.(203) What is a way to help relieve most of the patient's concerns prior to surgery?
- A.
Sedation
- B.
Back massage
- C.
Oxygen therapy
- D.
Preoperative teaching
- 123.(204) What has a significant impact on the patient's perceived quality of care and treatment?
- A.
Credentials of the surgeon
- B.
Availability of a smoking lounge
- C.
Professionalism and caring attitude
- D.
Number of nurses and technicians on staff
- 124.(205) The surgery patient is given a preoperative medication to
- A.
Reduce recovery time
- B.
Dry mucous membranes
- C.
Produce an unconscious state
- D.
Prevent aspiration during surgery
- 125.(205) Which surgical case would likely be performed in a Same Day Surgery clinic?
- A.
Hip replacement
- B.
Hysterectomy
- C.
Appendectomy
- D.
Odonectomy
- 126.(205) Without provider approval, what are the maximum minutes antiembolism stockings may be removed?
- A.
15
- B.
30
- C.
45
- D.
60
- 127.(206) What precaution is taken for a postoperative patient who received a radioisotope implant?
- A.
Isolation is necessary
- B.
No precautions are necessary
- C.
A lead apron is placed over the patient
- D.
Lead aprons are placed on other recovery patients
- 128.(206) When performing a neurological check on a patient, which examination would indicate an appropriate response to light being flashed on the patient's eyes?
- A.
Onset Provoke Quality Radiation Severity and Time (OPQRST)
- B.
Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Lights and Accommodation (PERLLA)
- C.
Evaluating extraocular movements
- D.
Range of motion (ROM)
- 129.(207) With regard to blood transfusions, one of your responsibilities is to document a patient's transfusion on
- A.
A Standard Form 518
- B.
A Standard Form 3066
- C.
An AF Form 2019
- D.
An AF Form 3066
- 130.(207) What component of blood is involved in the clotting process?
- A.
Platelets
- B.
Leukocytes
- C.
Packed cells
- D.
Anticoagulants
- 131.(207) How is whole blood normally supplied?
- A.
100 cc units
- B.
250 cc units
- C.
450 cc units
- D.
500 cc units
- 132.(207) What is the guideline for the maximum minutes of time from pick up to transfusion start of blood products?
- A.
20
- B.
30
- C.
60
- D.
90
- 133.(207) If a patient you are monitoring is receiving a blood transfusion and you notice distended neck veins and dyspnea. What should you do first?
- A.
Continue to monitor, this is a normal side effect
- B.
Place the patient on his or her left side
- C.
Administer 100 percent oxygen
- D.
Stop the transfusion
- 134.(208) A post-operative patient who is agitated, thrashing violently or crying incessantly is most likely experiencing
- A.
Extreme pain
- B.
Hyperthermia
- C.
Emergence delirium
- D.
Electrolyte imbalances
- 135.(208) Ideally, in what position is a patient placed before performing oropharyngeal suctioning?
- A.
Modified lateral
- B.
Trendelenberg
- C.
Semisitting
- D.
Supine
- 136.(209) A fracture that results from disease, such as metastatic cancer of the bone, is called
- A.
Hairline
- B.
Pathologic
- C.
Congenital
- D.
Traumatic
- 137.(209) Orthopaedic deformities such as a clubfoot or wryneck are categorized as
- A.
Infectious
- B.
Congenital
- C.
Pathologic
- D.
Temporary
- 138.(209) Military personnel are commonly treated or hospitalized for what orthopedic problems?
- A.
Inflammatory disease
- B.
Congenital problems
- C.
Traumatic injuries
- D.
Infectious disease
- 139.(210 The semi-recumbent position should be avoided over long periods of time in patients with orthopedic disorders because it
- A.
Causes foot drop
- B.
Causes venous stasis
- C.
Causes external hip rotation
- D.
Promotes flexion deformities of the hip
- 140.(210) What orthopedic problem would you suspect if your patient complains of soreness or aching?
- A.
Muscular pain
- B.
Bone infection
- C.
Malignant tumor
- D.
Psychosomatic issues
- 141.(2110 Which is not a determining factor for the healing time of a bone fracture?
- A.
Age
- B.
Gender
- C.
Extent of injury
- D.
Circulation to the area
- 142.(212) The cramping, burning, or crushing pain complained about by amputees in their missing limb is referred to as a
- A.
Phantom limb pain
- B.
Phantom limb sensation
- C.
Physiological phenomena
- D.
Psychological phenomena
- 143.(212) What equipment is essential to have at the postoperative bedside after surgical amputation of a limb?
- A.
Suction
- B.
Oxygen
- C.
NG tube
- D.
Tourniquet
- 144.(213) Rehabilitation for a patient with a spinal cord injury is normally
- A.
A life-long process
- B.
Of no use because they do not fully recovery
- C.
Continued for 6 months after the injury occurred
- D.
Continued for up to 2 years after the final surgery
- 145.(213) Turning a patient on a Stryker frame quickly after a spinal cord injury can cause
- A.
Aspiration
- B.
Cardiac arrest
- C.
Disorientation
- D.
Respiratory arrest
- 146.(213) During the acute stage of the stroke the primary goal is to
- A.
Sustain life
- B.
Stop ischemia
- C.
Maintain mobility
- D.
Monitor vital signs
- 147.(214) During which child development stage is separation anxiety the most stressful?
- A.
Early infancy
- B.
Preschool
- C.
School age
- D.
Adolescence
- 148.(214) Which statement provides a hospitalized child with a sense of control?
- A.
Strictly enforced rules
- B.
Use of safety restraints
- C.
Changes in daily routine
- D.
Established daily rituals and routines
- 149.(214) The normal adaptive mechanism used by children when they loose their sense of control is
- A.
Fantasy
- B.
Projection
- C.
Regression
- D.
Displacement
- 150.(215) When caring for a child with nausea and vomiting, a primary concern would be
- A.
Hypernatremia
- B.
Hyperkalemia
- C.
Dehydration
- D.
Aspiration
- 151.(215) Which reason is not appropriate for restraining a child?
- A.
The physician needs to suture the child's face
- B.
The child continues to climb out of bed in the night
- C.
To prevent the child from falling out of a highchair
- D.
You have other tasks to do, and no time to sit with the child
- 152.(216) The amount of sleep required at night by elderly patients is generally
- A.
Less because of frequent daytime naps
- B.
More because of insufficient activity
- C.
The same as required by all ages
- D.
More than for youthful patients
- 153.(216) How would you help stimulate the appetite of an elderly patient?
- A.
Explain the importance of nutrition
- B.
Ask the patient to try new foods
- C.
Cater to the patients customs
- D.
Bring a tray full of choices
- 154.(217) The first stage of dying is
- A.
Bargaining
- B.
Depression
- C.
Anger
- D.
Denial
- 155.(217) What serious side effect is the result of leakage of chemotherapy from the vein into the surrounding tissue?
- A.
Infiltration
- B.
Embolism
- C.
Phlebitis
- D.
Extravasation
- 156.(218) All that a person is, feels, and does is generally termed
- A.
Environment
- B.
Personality
- C.
Character
- D.
Heredity
- 157.(218) What affects an individuals feeling about themselves?
- A.
Socioeconomic status
- B.
Opinions of others
- C.
Self perception
- D.
Job title
- 158.(219) Which psychiatric term defines an irresistible urge to perform apparently meaningless actions?
- A.
Compulsion
- B.
Delusion
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Conflict
- 159.(219) Which psychiatric term defines a functional disorder where there is not gross disorganization of personality or a loss of contact with reality?
- A.
Phobia
- B.
Neuroses
- C.
Delusion
- D.
Psychoses
- 160.(220) A patient who feels unloved, unneeded, inferior, and hurt displays a behavior of
- A.
Withdrawal
- B.
Suspicion
- C.
Anxiety
- D.
Anger
- 161.(220) How are behavior disorders and syndromes grouped into categories?
- A.
Severity of behavior or shared characteristics
- B.
Shared characteristics or established criteria
- C.
Severity of behavior and patients age
- D.
Established criteria and patients age
- 162.(221) When does the rehabilitation process begin with a mentally ill patient?
- A.
During preadmission
- B.
Within 12 hours of admission
- C.
Within 24 hours of admission
- D.
As soon as the patient is admitted
- 163.(221) What major problem affects mental health treatment?
- A.
Attitude of society
- B.
Cost of medical care
- C.
Lack of adequate medication
- D.
Limited number of appointments
- 164.(222) When observing and reporting on mentally ill patients, the most important factor to consider is
- A.
Behavior
- B.
Appearance
- C.
Conversation
- D.
Sleeping habits
- 165.(222) If you see a mentally ill patient sneak out of the nursing unit, take all of the following actions except
- A.
Telephone for help
- B.
Try to describe the patient, including the patient's clothing
- C.
Note the direction in which the patient is heading
- D.
Leave the other patients to follow the escaping patient
- 166.(223) Who is at fault for the sexual abuse of a child?
- A.
Child
- B.
Abuser
- C.
Parents
- D.
Society
- 167.(223) What action, if any, should you take if you notice a child you are taking care of shows signs of abuse such as burns and bruises?
- A.
Report the suspected abuse
- B.
Only report if the parents admits abuse
- C.
Counsel the parent on his or her actions
- D.
Nothing, the technician is not responsible for reporting abuse
- 168.(223) What occurs in the third phase of spousal abuse?
- A.
Counseling is sought
- B.
Tension and stress builds
- C.
Physical or verbal abuse occurs
- D.
Spouse states it will never happen again
- 169.(224) If a patient is being restrained, what position should he or she be in if the patient is recovering from alcohol intoxication and is extremely agitated?
- A.
Supine
- B.
Prone
- C.
Semi-recumbent
- D.
High Fowler's
- 170.(225) For patients who suffer from pain, the best way to ensure a successful exercise activity program is to
- A.
Schedule the activities for afternoon or evenings
- B.
Begin the program early in the patient's hospital stay
- C.
Plan the activities in conjunction with pain medications
- D.
Provide reassurance and a clear explanation of the program
- 171.(225) When planning activities for patients with psychological problems, your primary goal should be to
- A.
Motivate the patient
- B.
Reassure the patient
- C.
Show sincere concern
- D.
Develop a good rapport
- 172.(226) What should you do to help patients who become angry and hostile?
- A.
Involve the patient in group therapy sessions
- B.
Allow the patient to become physically abusive
- C.
Refer the patient to the nurse or physician for counseling
- D.
Allow them to channel their hostility through verbal expression
- 173.(226) To aid in preventing decubitus ulcers, patient positioning should be changed every
- A.
1 hour
- B.
2 hours
- C.
3 hours
- D.
4 hours
- 174.(227) Why should your feet be parallel when you are standing?
- A.
Prevent back, hip, and leg strain
- B.
Prevent back, hip and neck strain
- C.
Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and leg strain
- D.
Maintain balance and prevent back, hip, and neck strain
- 175.(227) Your stability increases as your center of gravity moves closer to your
- A.
Axis
- B.
Head
- C.
Internal girdle
- D.
Base of support
- 176.(228) Which technique for moving the patient up in bed is not used for a patient who has back or chest injuries?
- A.
One-person
- B.
Two-person
- C.
Shoulder-lift
- D.
Two-person with drawsheet
- 177.(228) When turning a patient, what is the most important precaution to take whether you are pushing or pulling the patient?
- A.
Do not push too hard
- B.
Raise the far side rail
- C.
Raise the near side rail
- D.
Lock the wheels on the bed
- 178.(229) When transferring patients, you can reduce the chance of injury to yourself by
- A.
Locking beds and wheelchairs before the transfer
- B.
Using good teamwork and proper body mechanics
- C.
Explaining the procedure to the patient prior to the transfer
- D.
Knowing the patient's weight and capabilities prior to the transfer
- 179.(229) A patient's feet must be placed on the floor or a footstool during adanglinga to prevent
- A.
The patient from falling out of bed
- B.
Pressure on the back of the legs
- C.
Pulmonary hypertension
- D.
Embolism
- 180.(229) Which device can be used to slide a patient from the bed to a stretcher?
- A.
Drawsheet and trapeze
- B.
Drawsheet and roller board
- C.
Drawsheet and patient hoist
- D.
Roller board and patient hoist
- 181.(230) When helping a patient to ambulate, how should you stand and where should you place your hands?
- A.
Beside the patient with your near arm interlocked with the patient's near arm
- B.
Beside the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under his or her near arm
- C.
Beside and a little behind the patient with your near arm interlocked with the patient's near arm
- D.
Beside and a little behind the patient with one hand on the patient's waist and one hand under the patient's near arm
- 182.(230) Which is a safe, stable gait that can be used by patients who can bear some weight on both legs?
- A.
Two-point
- B.
Three-point
- C.
Four-point
- D.
Swing-through
- 183.(230) Which gait is used by patients who can bear full body weight on one foot and partial or no weight on the other?
- A.
Two-point
- B.
Three-point
- C.
Four-point
- D.
Swing-through
- 184.(231) Isometric exercises are activities that involve
- A.
Muscle relaxation without body movement
- B.
Muscle relaxation without any body movement
- C.
Muscle contraction without body movement
- D.
Muscle contraction with body movement
- 185.(731) Care must be taken to ensure patients do not hold their breath while performing isometric exercises as that may cause
- A.
Muscle strain
- B.
Heart attack
- C.
Dizziness
- D.
Acidosis
- 186.(232) What diet is usually ordered for patients who have difficulty chewing or swallowing, or need to alter the amount of residue in the digestive tract?
- A.
Soft
- B.
Bland
- C.
Liquid
- D.
Regular
- 187.(232) The diet that is inadequate in all nutrients and should not be given for more than 3 days is the
- A.
Soft diet
- B.
Full liquid
- C.
Clear liquid
- D.
Mineral-restricted
- 188.(233) What should the solution temperature be during gastric gavage?
- A.
Hot
- B.
Chilled
- C.
Lukewarm
- D.
Room temperature
- 189.(234) To prevent rapid decompression of the urinary bladder, the maximum amount of urine to remove during catherization is between
- A.
550 to 800cc
- B.
650 to 900cc
- C.
750 to 1000cc
- D.
850 to 1100cc
- 190.(234) During catheterization of a female patient, how many inches (how far) is the catheter inserted for placement in the urinary bladder?
- A.
2 to 3
- B.
3 to 4
- C.
4 to 5
- D.
5 to 6
- 191.(234) The urinary catheter is pinched prior to removal from the bladder to
- A.
Prevent the risk of contamination of the catheter tip
- B.
Prevent dripping of urine on the bed linen
- C.
Eliminate any possible pain to the patient
- D.
Prevent air from entering into the bladder
- 192.(235) For what length of time in minutes should the patient retain the solution of a cleansing enema?
- A.
1
- B.
5
- C.
10
- D.
20
- 193.(235) The patient's colostomy bag should be changed when it is
- A.
One-third full
- B.
One-half full
- C.
Three-fourths full
- D.
Full
- 194.(236) What is the normal arterial oxygen saturation range?
- A.
85 to 88%
- B.
89 to 91%
- C.
92 to 95%
- D.
95 to 98%
- 195.(237) For patients using a nonrebreathing mask, the inspired oxygen concentration is
- A.
30 to 40 percent
- B.
40 to 50 percent
- C.
60 to 90 percent
- D.
80 to 100 percent
- 196.(237) Which mask is suggested for patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
- A.
Venturi
- B.
Simple
- C.
Nonrebreathing
- D.
Positive pressure
- 197.(238) Before performing tracheostomy care, you would first
- A.
Untie the neck strings
- B.
Remove the dirty dressing
- C.
Assess the stoma for patency
- D.
Put on your unsterile gloves
- 198.(239) This is usually described by the patient as a jumping, pounding, or stopping of the heart within the chest
- A.
Flutter
- B.
Syncope
- C.
Palpitation
- D.
Fibrillation
- 199.(240) When preparing a patient for insertion of a central venous pressure line, what maneuver is taught to the patient to decrease the chance of an air embolism?
- A.
Webber
- B.
Valsalva
- C.
Vagal
- D.
Allen
- 200.(240) For insertion of a central venous pressure line into a neck vein, in what position should the patient be placed?
- A.
Left lateral recumbent
- B.
Right lateral recumbent
- C.
Trendelenburg
- D.
Supine
- 201.(241) How many minutes should you irrigate a chemical burn to the eye?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
20
- D.
30
- 202.(241) There is a high rate of success for tooth replacement if a dentist carries out the procedure within how many minutes of the accident?
- A.
10
- B.
20
- C.
30
- D.
40
- 203.(241) How are corneal abrasions detected?
- A.
X-rays
- B.
Venogram
- C.
Angiogram
- D.
Fluorescein stain
- 204.(242) Damage to the epidermis with possible damage to the dermis and its appendages is classified as what type of burn?
- A.
Superficial
- B.
Full thickness
- C.
Partial thickness
- D.
Severe thickness
- 205.(242) When caring for a patient with electrical burns at a facility, your first priority is
- A.
To apply sterile dressings to the burn sites
- B.
Management of the patient's airway
- C.
Evaluate extent of the burn
- D.
Infection control
- 206.(243) How would you apply a dressing with the intention of debriding a wound?
- A.
Dry
- B.
Wet
- C.
Wet to dry
- D.
Wet to wet
- 207.(244) What reflex action would be caused if you leave a heat treatment in place for a prolonged period of time?
- A.
Reflex vasoconstriction
- B.
Reflex vasodilation
- C.
Babinski's reflex
- D.
Haab's reflex
- 208.(244) When applying a cold treatment, how long should you leave it in place?
- A.
10 to 20 minutes
- B.
20 to 30 minutes
- C.
30 to 40 minutes
- D.
40 to 50 minutes
- 209.(401) A specialist who can guide a provider in prescribing drugs is best described as a
- A.
Pharmacist
- B.
Clinical provider
- C.
Clinical pharmacist
- D.
Pharmaceutical technician
- 210.(401) Out of the several names given each medication, which of these drug names is given by the manufacturer?
- A.
Trade name
- B.
Official name
- C.
Generic name
- D.
Chemical name
- 211.(401) Which statement is true regarding the role of a medical service technician in medication administration?
- A.
Technicians are not trained to prepare medications for administration
- B.
A nurse or physician must directly observe technicians when they are administering medication
- C.
Technicians are permitted to administer medications under the supervision of a nurse or physician
- D.
Nurses can always allow technicians to decide on their own to administer a medication if the decision is in the patient's best interest
- 212.(402) Which statement is not considered one of the patients' legal and ethical rights?
- A.
Be informed of a drug's name
- B.
Be informed of a drug's purpose
- C.
Choose the method of administration
- D.
Receive clearly labeled medication containers
- 213.(402) Which one of these is not included in the aFive Rightsa of medication administration?
- A.
Right time
- B.
Right dose
- C.
Right route
- D.
Right documentation
- 214.(403) What type of medication order states that a medication is to be administered immediately and only once?
- A.
Stat
- B.
Single
- C.
Standing
- D.
As needed (PRN)
- 215.(403) A provider can initiate a drug order in how many ways?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Four
- D.
Five
- 216.(404) Drug administration is controlled primarily by
- A.
State amendments
- B.
Facility mandate
- C.
Federal law
- D.
State law
- 217.(404) What classification of drugs is notacceptable for medical use?
- A.
Schedule I
- B.
Schedule II
- C.
Schedule III
- D.
Schedule IV
- 218.(404) Narcotics, such as codeine, cocaine, and amphetamines, that have a high potential for abuse but have acceptable medical uses are classified as
- A.
Schedule I
- B.
Schedule II
- C.
Schedule III
- D.
Schedule IV
- 219.(404) Which law requires a periodic inventory of all controlled substances?
- A.
Drug Regulatory Act
- B.
Drug Control Regulation
- C.
Controlled Substances Act
- D.
Attorney General Mandate of 1974
- 220.(405) Penicillin administered to treat an infection is an example of what category of drugs?
- A.
Chemotherapeutic
- B.
Substitutive
- C.
Supportive
- D.
Curative
- 221.(406) The purpose of most drug therapy is to
- A.
Maintain a low level of the drug in the body
- B.
Maintain a constant level of drug in the body
- C.
Cause the level of the drug in the body to increase rapidly
- D.
Cause the level of the drug in the body to decrease rapidly
- 222.(406) Why are oral medications that are taken before meals generally faster acting?
- A.
Slower circulation level
- B.
Higher body metabolism
- C.
Lower body metabolism
- D.
Lower digestive system content
- 223.(406) Which statement is true regarding how ambient temperature can affect drug action?
- A.
Warmer temperatures increase circulation and cause rapid drug action
- B.
Warmer temperatures decrease circulation and cause slow drug action
- C.
Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to dilate cause slow drug action
- D.
Colder temperatures cause blood vessels to constrict causing rapid drug action
- 224.(407) Which of these is a common reference source for drugs?
- A.
Internet search
- B.
Physician Desk Reference
- C.
Nurse's Pharmacy Handbook
- D.
Technicians Pharmacy Handbook
- 225.(407) What publication contains a list of medications available from the MTF's pharmacy, recommended dispensing instructions, and administrative guidelines?
- A.
Nurse's Drug Reference
- B.
Local facility formulary
- C.
Physician Desk Reference
- D.
Technicians Pharmacy Handbook
- 226.(408) An oily liquid used on the skin describes a type of medication preparation called a
- A.
Spirit
- B.
Paste
- C.
Tincture
- D.
Liniment
- 227.(408) What type of medication is used to prevent or correct irregular heart action?
- A.
Antiarrhythmics
- B.
Antiinfectives
- C.
Cathartics
- D.
Antacids
- 228.(408) What type of medication has a cleansing action that produces watery evacuation of intestinal content?
- A.
Antiarrhythmics
- B.
Antiemetics
- C.
Cathartics
- D.
Antacids
- 229.(409) Which of these elements is not required on a medication order?
- A.
Patient's age
- B.
Patient's name
- C.
Specified time
- D.
Provider's signature
- 230.(409) Before administering any medication, you are responsible for all of the following except
- A.
For ensuring A1C Jones is available for work the next day
- B.
Performing all steps in the modified six medication rights
- C.
Being knowledgeable of the side effects of the medication
- D.
Verifying any possible interactions against current medications
- 231.(409) How many pounds are equal to 65 kg?
- A.
130
- B.
143
- C.
152
- D.
170
- 232.(409) Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many milligrams of medication will be given twice a day?
- A.
250
- B.
325
- C.
350
- D.
600
- 233.(410) Dr. Young has ordered Mrs. Green to receive 5 mg/kg of Ancef twice a day. Mrs. Green weighs 65 kg. The medication Ancef is supplied in vials 50 mg/mL. How many mL's of Ancef will be given for each dose?
- A.
5.0
- B.
0.6
- C.
6.5
- D.
65
- 234.(410) LtCol McNamara ordered a single dose Phenergan 12.5 mg, to be administered intramuscular to A1C Jones for nausea and vomiting. The Phenergan is supplied in 50 mg/2 mL pre-filled syringes. How many mL's would you administer?
- A.
0.25
- B.
0.50
- C.
2.5
- D.
5.0
- 235.(4110 Which one of these statements is true regarding subcutaneous injections?
- A.
There is no possibility of local irritation
- B.
Only small amounts of a drug may be administered
- C.
They are usually less expensive than oral medications
- D.
Drug action is faster than intramuscular (IM) injections
- 236.(411) The method of parenteral medication administration that involves injecting a drug into a muscle is
- A.
Intravenous (IV) push
- B.
Intramuscular (IM)
- C.
Subcutaneous (sc)
- D.
IV drip
- 237.(411) Where are sub-cutaneous injections commonly administered?
- A.
Ventral surface of the forearm
- B.
Lateral hip area
- C.
Posterior hand
- D.
Upper arms
- 238.(412) What method of administration delivers medication directly into a patient's digestive system?
- A.
Oral
- B.
Buccal
- C.
Inhalation
- D.
Sublingual
- 239.(412) To prevent contamination and accidental spills, liquid medications being administered to inpatients are usually poured at what location?
- A.
In the pharmacy
- B.
At a work station
- C.
At the nurses' station
- D.
At the patient's bedside
- 240.(413) Which one of these statements is a disadvantage of inhalation medication?
- A.
Unconscious patients cannot be treated
- B.
Positive-pressure devices are sometimes used
- C.
Monitoring the precise amount of drug administration is difficult
- D.
Respiratory distress is not relieved through the use of an inhalation
- 241.(413) Which statement is proper procedure for administering inhalations into the respiratory tract of a patient?
- A.
Document an increase in pulse or blood pressure and notify the nurse
- B.
Instruct the patient to inhale normally when activating the nebulizer
- C.
Assess the patient's vital signs before, during, and after therapy
- D.
Check the patient's vital signs every 15 minutes after therapy
- 242.(413) Into what body cavity are otic medications administered?
- A.
External auditory canal
- B.
Internal auditory canal
- C.
Lower conjunctival sac
- D.
Upper conjunctival sac
- 243.(413) To administer ear drops in a patient under 3 years of age, you gently pull the earlobe
- A.
Down to straighten the canal
- B.
Outward to expose the canal
- C.
Inward to confine the canal
- D.
Up to shorten the canal
- 244.(413) When administering a vaginal douche, how high above the patient's vagina do you hang the bag?
- A.
4 to 8 inches
- B.
6 to 10 inches
- C.
12 to 18 inches
- D.
24 to 36 inches
- 245.(414) Which of the following medications' primary action is pain relief?
- A.
Endorphins, hypnotics, and sedatives
- B.
Analgesics, sedatives, and hypnotics
- C.
Placebo, tricyclics, and analgesics
- D.
Stimulant, sedatives, and placebo
- 246.(414) Opioids are contraindicated with
- A.
The treatment of extremity injuries
- B.
A Phenergan combination
- C.
Head injury treatment
- D.
Caffeine use
- 247.(414) Anti-inflammatory actions are associated with
- A.
Preventing the formation of prostaglandins
- B.
The recovery of alcohol abuse
- C.
Increased kidney functions
- D.
Curing joint dysfunctions
- 248.(414) Which of the following medications are used primarily for analgesic actions in the treatment of arthritis?
- A.
Acetaminophen
- B.
Salicylates
- C.
Potassium
- D.
Tramadol
- 249.(414) Which statement is not true of the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
- A.
Alleviate pain of arthritis
- B.
Raises prostaglandin levels
- C.
Used for long-term treatment
- D.
Increases risk of gastrointestinal problems
- 250.(414) Contraindications of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs include all of the following except
- A.
When taken with dairy
- B.
For patients with asthma
- C.
For patients taking anticoagulants
- D.
When undergoing elective surgery
- 251.(415) Which of the following central nervous system stimulants obtained over the counter, is frequently taken in prolonged high doses producing habituation and psychological dependence?
- A.
Dexadrine
- B.
Concerta
- C.
Caffeine
- D.
Ritalin
- 252.(415) All of the following are contraindications of central nervous stimulants except
- A.
Alcoholism
- B.
Irritability
- C.
Drug dependency
- D.
Eating disorders
- 253.(415) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) selectively block the reabsorption of which chemical neurotransmitter?
- A.
Norepinephrine
- B.
Adrenaline
- C.
Dopamine
- D.
Serotonin
- 254.(415) Side effects of tricyclics include all of the following except
- A.
Urinary retention
- B.
Pupil constriction
- C.
Cardiac arrhythmias
- D.
Postural hypotension
- 255.(415) Antianxiety medications are prescribed for
- A.
Suicidal tendencies treatment
- B.
The treatment of withdrawals
- C.
Prolonged treatment
- D.
The treatment of insomnia
- 256.(415) Antipsychotic medications are categorized as
- A.
Hypnotics
- B.
Major tranquilizers
- C.
Seizure medications
- D.
Antisynovial producers
- 257.(415) Which medication potentiates the effects of analgesics when combined with antipsychotics?
- A.
Phenergan
- B.
Tylenol
- C.
Haldol
- D.
Zoloft
- 258.(416) The effects of cardiac glycosides is to
- A.
Slow vasodilation
- B.
Increase respirations
- C.
Lower blood pressure
- D.
Strengthen the heartbeat
- 259.(416) Before the administration of digitalis, which of the following pulse points is it important to check?
- A.
Brachial
- B.
Apical
- C.
Radial
- D.
Pedal
- 260.(416) Toxic side effects of digitalis include the following except
- A.
Vertigo
- B.
Diplopia
- C.
Tachycardia
- D.
Bradycardia
- 261.(416) Adrenergic blockers are used in low doses for patients with
- A.
Lung conditions that cause bronchospasm
- B.
Heart block and congestive heart failure
- C.
Renal and hepatic impairment
- D.
Diabetes militeus
- 262.(416) Calcium channel blockers suppress the action of calcium during contraction of the heart by
- A.
Potentiating the actions of the potassium given concurrently
- B.
Working synergistically with barbiturates to decrease heart rate
- C.
Increasing blood oxygen need of the main coronary arteries
- D.
Reducing the cardiac excitability and dilation of the main coronary arteries
- 263.(416) Contraindications for procainamide include persons with known
- A.
Congestive heart failure
- B.
Hepatic disorders
- C.
Renal disease
- D.
Pregnancy
- 264.(416) Quinidine is used primarily as prophylactic therapy to
- A.
Treat anemia
- B.
Produce bradycardia
- C.
Increase myocardial excitability
- D.
Maintain normal rhythm after cardioversion
- 265.(416) The most common side effect of antihypertensives is
- A.
Tinnitus
- B.
Tachycardia
- C.
Vasoconstriction
- D.
Postural hypotension
- 266.(416) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors lower blood pressure by
- A.
Antagonizing myocardial excitability
- B.
Producing the enzyme protease
- C.
Decreasing vasoconstriction
- D.
Increasing heart rate
- 267.(416) When angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are taken in conjunction with diuretics or vasodilators, what affect is produced?
- A.
Antagonize hypokalemia
- B.
Potentiate hypotension
- C.
Potentiate depression
- D.
Synergism
- 268.(416) Central-acting alpha-adrenergic inhibitors are combined with
- A.
Barbiturates
- B.
Stimulants
- C.
Diuretics
- D.
Aspirin
- 269.(416) The antidote for bleeding complications while under coumarin (Coumadin) therapy is to administer
- A.
Protamine sulfate
- B.
Vitamin B12
- C.
Vitamin K
- D.
Heparin
- 270.(416) Mr. Johnson has undergone a hip replacement and is receiving heparin treatment post surgically to prevent
- A.
Headaches post spinal anesthesia
- B.
Gastrointestinal bleeding
- C.
Peripheral vein collapse
- D.
Deep vein thrombosis
- 271.(416) The most serious complication of thrombolytic therapy is
- A.
Bleeding
- B.
Arrhythmia
- C.
Tachycardia
- D.
Vasoconstriction
- 272.(417) Antacids containing aluminum or calcium carbonate have the common side effect of which of the following?
- A.
Excessive gas
- B.
Constipation
- C.
Vomiting
- D.
Diarrhea
- 273.(417) Which of the following medications is a laxative?
- A.
Kaopectate
- B.
Mineral oil
- C.
Imodium
- D.
Lactinex
- 274.(417) What type of laxative is sorbitol?
- A.
Saline
- B.
Stimulant
- C.
Hyperosmotic
- D.
Bulk forming
- 275.(418) Among the endocrine medications, what drug action category do adrenal corticosteroids fall within?
- A.
Curative
- B.
Palliative
- C.
Restorative
- D.
Supportive
- 276.(418) Acute adrenal insufficiency, shock, and possibly death can result from
- A.
The adrenal glands over producing corticosteroids
- B.
An abrupt withdrawal of adrenal corticosteroids therapy
- C.
Short term treatment therapy of asthma using corticosteroids
- D.
Excessive urination as a result of long term corticosteroid treatment
- 277.(418) Which endocrine therapy drugs are used to prevent organ transplant rejection?
- A.
Insulin
- B.
Tapazole
- C.
Corticosteroids
- D.
Thyroid agents
- 278.(418) Insulin may potentiate a hypoglycemic effect when taken concomitantly with
- A.
Daypro or antacids
- B.
Alcohol or salicylates
- C.
Tricyclics or caffeine
- D.
Procardia or anticoagulants
- 279.(418) Some of the symptoms associated with type II diabetes are all of the following except
- A.
Polydipsia
- B.
Slow healing
- C.
Vision problems
- D.
Excessive weight loss
- 280.(419) Which of the following medications can interact with quinolones to potentiate cardiac arrest?
- A.
Tetracyclines
- B.
Theophyline
- C.
Gentamycin
- D.
Procardia
- 281.(420) The influenza vaccine is manufactured
- A.
From plants
- B.
With an inactive virus
- C.
To cure the flu strain for the year
- D.
Synthetically with live viral properties
- 282.(420) Which of the following vaccines should not be administered to individuals allergic to eggs or egg products?
- A.
Anthrax
- B.
Influenza
- C.
Small Pox
- D.
Hepatitis B
- 283.(420) Hepatitis A is contracted through the transmission of
- A.
Contaminated food or water
- B.
Droplets through the air
- C.
Blood and body fluids
- D.
Reused linen
- 284.(420) How many doses are given in a series of hepatitis B vaccine regiment?
- A.
1
- B.
2
- C.
3
- D.
4
- 285.(420) Which vaccine do all recruits receive a booster for upon entering the Air Force?
- A.
Small Pox
- B.
Influenza
- C.
Anthrax
- D.
Tetanus
- 286.(420) Which viral disease do mosquitoes transmit?
- A.
Yellow fever
- B.
Influenza
- C.
Typhoid
- D.
Anthrax
- 287.(421) What type of medication would you expect a patient with seasonal allergies to take on a regular basis?
- A.
Antineoplastics
- B.
Antihistamines
- C.
Antifungals
- D.
Antivirals
- 288.(421) When a patient has been prescribed Tessalon pearles to help stop coughing, what patient-education would be appropriate?
- A.
Take only at bedtime
- B.
Take with orange juice
- C.
Do not chew the capsule
- D.
Do not take with food or milk
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