4N051 CDC Practice Test Set B (2)

50 Questions | Total Attempts: 54

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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What electrolyte deficit or excess can cause dysrythmias, leading to cardiac or respiratory arrest?
    • A. 

      Hypercalcemia

    • B. 

      Hypocalcemia

    • C. 

      Hyperkalemia

    • D. 

      Hypernatremia

  • 2. 
    What acid-base imbalance is likely to occur when a patient has excessive vomiting, excessive suctioning or ingested too many antacids?
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 3. 
    Which acid-base imbalance is caused by hyperventilating?
    • A. 

      Metabolic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 4. 
    Deficiency is respirations such as slow or irregular shallow respirations can lead to an excessive accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood which results in a condition called
    • A. 

      Metabloic acidosis

    • B. 

      Metabolic alkalosis

    • C. 

      Respiratory Acidosis

    • D. 

      Respiratory alkalosis

  • 5. 
    To avoid infections, you should change a patient's hyperalimentation solution bag and tubing daily and not allow the container to hang longer than
    • A. 

      4 hours

    • B. 

      8 hours

    • C. 

      16 hours

    • D. 

      24 hours

  • 6. 
    When selecting an intravenous solution, what size IV bags in cubic centimeters would you possibly be able to select from?
    • A. 

      100 to 200 cc

    • B. 

      500 to 750 cc

    • C. 

      100 to 2,000 cc

    • D. 

      500 to 2,000 cc

  • 7. 
    Normally, how high above patients should you hang an intravenous solution bag?
    • A. 

      6 to 12 inches

    • B. 

      18 to 24 inches

    • C. 

      24 to 36 inches

    • D. 

      36 to 48 inches

  • 8. 
    If a patient exhibits a mild allergic response to an intravenous solution, what should you do?
    • A. 

      Slow the infusion

    • B. 

      Discontinue the IV immediately

    • C. 

      Replace the tubing and the container

    • D. 

      Send the solution to the laboratory for analysis

  • 9. 
    How much fecal material should you collect to send to the laboratory for a stool specimen?
    • A. 

      1 tablespoon

    • B. 

      2 tablespoons

    • C. 

      3 tablespoons

    • D. 

      All of the defecated stool

  • 10. 
    After obtaining a blood sample, instruct the patient to maintain pressure over the venipuncture site for
    • A. 

      1 to 2 minutes

    • B. 

      2 to 3 minutes

    • C. 

      3 to 4 minutes

    • D. 

      4 to 5 minutes

  • 11. 
    During a skin puncture, why is the first drop of blood wiped away?
    • A. 

      To allow the blood to clot

    • B. 

      To prevent spillage of blood

    • C. 

      It contains phagocytes, which may interfere with test results

    • D. 

      It contains epithelial cells, which may interfere with test results

  • 12. 
    What step should you take before operating a glucose meter?
    • A. 

      Read the operating instructions

    • B. 

      Confirm the order with a co-worker

    • C. 

      Choose a site to obtain a blood sample

    • D. 

      Ask all family members to leave the room

  • 13. 
    The normal fasting blood glucose level in milligrams/deciliter (mg/dl) is
    • A. 

      40 to 100 mg/dl

    • B. 

      70 to 115 mg/dl

    • C. 

      90 to 150 mg/dl

    • D. 

      120 to 200 mg/dl

  • 14. 
    In the subjective information section of the paperwork, it is important to identify the patient's
    • A. 

      Temperature

    • B. 

      Complaint of a headache

    • C. 

      History of cardiac arrhythmias

    • D. 

      Physical deformity of the left leg

  • 15. 
    A proctoscopy is an inspection of the
    • A. 

      Rectum

    • B. 

      Sigmoid colon

    • C. 

      Ascending colon

    • D. 

      Transverse colon

  • 16. 
    What position would you normally place a patient in for a sigmoidoscopy?
    • A. 

      Fowler

    • B. 

      Supine

    • C. 

      Prone

    • D. 

      Sims

  • 17. 
    When educating the patient with psuedofolliculitis barbae on proper shaving methods, you should instruct the patient to avoid all of the following except shaving
    • A. 

      In the opposite direction of hair growth

    • B. 

      In the direction of hair growth

    • C. 

      With facial skin stretched

    • D. 

      With slow strokes

  • 18. 
    How do you measure the visual field?
    • A. 

      Identify loss of vision

    • B. 

      Identify slopes in peripheral margins

    • C. 

      Determine degrees away from fixation

    • D. 

      Determine the area that is 30 degrees from the visual axis

  • 19. 
    When asking the patient if he or she wears glasses, contact lenses or if he or she has ever had eye problems prior to conducting an Optec 2300 Vision Tester exam, the patient's responses will determine
    • A. 

      Sequence of test performance

    • B. 

      The patients eligibility for care

    • C. 

      If glasses are provided free of charge

    • D. 

      How soon an appointment should be made

  • 20. 
    How many test slides are included in the standard test category of the Optec 2300 Vision Tester
    • A. 

      Seven

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Four

    • D. 

      Three

  • 21. 
    How many inches from the test plate must the examinee be sitting for the pseudoisochromatic plate set test?
    • A. 

      13

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      30

  • 22. 
    When performing a pulmonary function test on a patient, according to Air Force standards, abnormal functions are present if the predicted forced expiratory volume at 1 second or forced vital capacity percentage is less than?
    • A. 

      65

    • B. 

      75

    • C. 

      80

    • D. 

      90

  • 23. 
    During pulmonary function testing, the minimum number of practice attempts and acceptable tracings an examinee must perform are
    • A. 

      1; 1

    • B. 

      1; 2

    • C. 

      2; 2

    • D. 

      2; 3

  • 24. 
    Where does the electrical stimulation of the heart muscle initiate?
    • A. 

      Spinal cord

    • B. 

      Sinoatrial node

    • C. 

      Atrioventricular node

    • D. 

      Frontal lobe of the brain

  • 25. 
    Where is the Purkinje fiber network the most elaborate?
    • A. 

      Left atrium

    • B. 

      Right atrium

    • C. 

      Left ventricle

    • D. 

      Right ventricle

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