4E0X1 Volume IV
Unit Review Exercises for volume 4
- 1.
Which disease could have been prevented during the Merril’s Marauders campaign to roadblock the Japanese?
- A.
Small Pox.
- B.
Dysentery.
- C.
Dengue Fever.
- D.
Sand Fly Fever.
Correct Answer
B. Dysentery. -
- 2.
During World War II, why did two Allied units withdraw from positions previously occupied by Germans in the North African Desert?
- A.
Dengue Fever infected the camp.
- B.
Malaria infected one-half of the camp.
- C.
Flies spread disease from the exposed feces.
- D.
Heat stroke affected the leaders in the desert.
Correct Answer
C. Flies spread disease from the exposed feces. -
- 3.
Military operations other than war (MOOTW) are defined as
- A.
Military actions associated with combat operations.
- B.
Peacekeeping actions associated with large-scale combat operations.
- C.
Peacekeeping and military actions in conjunction with regional combat operations.
- D.
Military actions conducted which aren’t associated with large-scale combat operations.
Correct Answer
D. Military actions conducted which aren’t associated with large-scale combat operations. -
- 4.
Recent military operations other than war (MOOTW) have been seen in Bosnia,
- A.
Rwanda, Iraq, and Haiti.
- B.
Rwanda, and Oklahoma City.
- C.
Iraq, and Homestead, Florida.
- D.
Iraq, Haiti, Somalia, and Japan.
Correct Answer
A. Rwanda, Iraq, and Haiti. -
- 5.
Which two ways is Air Force planning accomplished?
- A.
Deliberate and noncrisis action planning.
- B.
Deliberate and crisis action planning.
- C.
Peacetime and contingency planning.
- D.
Peacetime and wartime planning.
Correct Answer
B. Deliberate and crisis action planning. -
- 6.
The allowance standard (AS) that lists equipment to support the patient decontamination team mission is
- A.
AS 115.
- B.
AS 116.
- C.
AS 902.
- D.
AS 917.
Correct Answer
C. AS 902. -
- 7.
Who is responsible for keeping the medical information in the Base Operations Plan (OPlan) 32–1 current?
- A.
Medical readiness officer (MRO), medical readiness NCO (MRNCO), or medical readiness manager (MRM).
- B.
Aerospace medicine squadron commander.
- C.
Medical treatment facility administrator.
- D.
NCOIC and OIC of public health.
Correct Answer
A. Medical readiness officer (MRO), medical readiness NCO (MRNCO), or medical readiness manager (MRM). -
- 8.
Which document is written to provide guidance for medical operations during wartime?
- A.
Base OPlan 355–1.
- B.
Disaster Casualty Control Plan (DCCP).
- C.
Medical Contingency Response Plan (MCRP).
- D.
Medical Readiness Commander’s Report (MRCR).
Correct Answer
C. Medical Contingency Response Plan (MCRP). -
- 9.
Who is responsible for maintaining annex E of the Contingency Support Plan (CSP) for a medical unit?
- A.
MTF commander.
- B.
Public health officer.
- C.
Chief, aeromedical services.
- D.
Superintendent, public health.
Correct Answer
B. Public health officer. -
- 10.
Medical intelligence (MI) is information about diseases,
- A.
And climatic conditions.
- B.
Climatic conditions and gross national product.
- C.
Climatic conditions and other health-related environmental factors.
- D.
Climatic conditions, health-related environmental factors, and key government figures.
Correct Answer
C. Climatic conditions and other health-related environmental factors. -
- 11.
How is most medical intelligence (MI) obtained?
- A.
Espionage activities.
- B.
Directly from people.
- C.
Medical journals and newspapers.
- D.
Hands-on experience and through the grapevine.
Correct Answer
B. Directly from people. -
- 12.
When is the most important time medical intelligence (MI) is used as a preventive measure?
- A.
Upon appointment of a MIO.
- B.
Prior to a unit’s deployment.
- C.
After a unit returns from a deployment.
- D.
During training sessions with medical personnel.
Correct Answer
B. Prior to a unit’s deployment. -
- 13.
Who appoints the base medical intelligence officer?
- A.
Base commander.
- B.
Chief, public health.
- C.
Medical treatment facility commander.
- D.
Commander, aerospace medicine council.
Correct Answer
C. Medical treatment facility commander. -
- 14.
In the absence of the public health officer, who is normally appointed as the medical intelligence officer?
- A.
NCO with appropriate experience or a 4E0X1.
- B.
Senior 4M0X1.
- C.
Medical supply officer.
- D.
Infection control officer.
Correct Answer
A. NCO with appropriate experience or a 4E0X1. -
- 15.
The four types of diseases most commonly occurring in contingency operations are diarrheal, respiratory, skin, and
- A.
Tickborne.
- B.
Foodborne.
- C.
Vectorborne.
- D.
Sexually transmitted.
Correct Answer
C. Vectorborne. -
- 16.
The number one cause of skin disease in the field is
- A.
Improper sanitation.
- B.
Improper personal hygiene.
- C.
Breakdowns in basic personal hygiene and sanitation.
- D.
Breakdowns in personal hygiene and proper food storage.
Correct Answer
C. Breakdowns in basic personal hygiene and sanitation. -
- 17.
Three ways to prevent becoming a victim to hazardous flora and fauna are recognition, avoidance, and
- A.
Wearing gloves when reaching under things you cannot see.
- B.
Identifying hazardous flora and fauna.
- C.
Ensuring good personal hygiene.
- D.
Antivenins.
Correct Answer
D. Antivenins. -
- 18.
Who is responsible for ensuring all 4E0X1 personnel are trained in field sanitation?
- A.
MTF commander.
- B.
Career field manager.
- C.
Superintendent, public health.
- D.
OIC or NCOIC of public health.
Correct Answer
D. OIC or NCOIC of public health. -
- 19.
Which food or beverage should never be stored in galvanized cans because doing so may produce a toxic poisoning in the consumer?
- A.
Water.
- B.
Crackers.
- C.
Lemonade.
- D.
Fresh green beans.
Correct Answer
C. Lemonade. -
- 20.
How often are food service personnel in the field inspected for signs of illness?
- A.
Daily.
- B.
Weekly.
- C.
Every other shift.
- D.
When an outbreak occurs.
Correct Answer
A. Daily. -
- 21.
Which is a general procedure to determine the overall microbiology quality and/or safety of a food?
- A.
Total bacterial plate count.
- B.
Total value.
- C.
Total gram negative bacteria.
- D.
Enterobacteriaceae.
Correct Answer
A. Total bacterial plate count. -
- 22.
How long does it take the high microbial load (HML) kit to quantitatively detect a distinct class/group of microorganisms?
- A.
12 hours.
- B.
24 hours.
- C.
36 hours.
- D.
48 hours.
Correct Answer
B. 24 hours. -
- 23.
Which water disinfection method provides no residual protection against recontamination?
- A.
Boiling.
- B.
Chlor-Floc.
- C.
Iodine tablets.
- D.
Mechanical agitation.
Correct Answer
A. Boiling. -
- 24.
What office is responsible for performing chlorine/pH microbacteriogical water testing?
- A.
Bioenvironmental engineering.
- B.
Preventive medicine.
- C.
Civil engineering.
- D.
Public health.
Correct Answer
D. Public health. -
- 25.
How many yards must latrines be located downwind from food facilities?
- A.
50.
- B.
100.
- C.
200.
- D.
300.
Correct Answer
B. 100. -
- 26.
When “closing” latrines, how many inches deep should the covering of dirt be?
- A.
24.
- B.
18.
- C.
12.
- D.
6.
Correct Answer
A. 24. -
- 27.
How many straddle trench latrines should be constructed for each 100 men?
- A.
4.
- B.
6.
- C.
10.
- D.
15.
Correct Answer
A. 4. -
- 28.
The depth of a deep pit latrine depends on the
- A.
Distance from the camp.
- B.
Number of personnel using it.
- C.
Type of waste being disposed.
- D.
Length of time the latrine will be used.
Correct Answer
D. Length of time the latrine will be used. -
- 29.
What is added to and used prior to soakage pits to drain kitchen wastes?
- A.
A chlorine solution.
- B.
Heat treatment.
- C.
Insecticides.
- D.
Grease trap.
Correct Answer
D. Grease trap. -
- 30.
How should units without contractor support dispose of medical waste?
- A.
Burial or incineration.
- B.
Empty into a soakage pit.
- C.
Empty into a chemical latrine.
- D.
Transport to an evaporation bed.
Correct Answer
A. Burial or incineration. -
- 31.
Which heat disorder is a medical emergency that requires immediate medical treatment?
- A.
Heat exhaustion.
- B.
Heat syncope.
- C.
Heat cramps.
- D.
Heatstroke.
Correct Answer
D. Heatstroke. -
- 32.
Provided the workload and exposure time to heat is increased gradually, approximately how long will it take for personnel to become acclimatized?
- A.
Two to five days.
- B.
Six to nine days.
- C.
Ten to 14 days.
- D.
Fifteen to 20 days.
Correct Answer
C. Ten to 14 days. -
- 33.
Which cold injury results from prolonged exposure, usually in excess of 12 hours, in water at temperatures usually below 50°F?
- A.
Chilblain.
- B.
Trench foot.
- C.
Hypothermia.
- D.
Immersion foot.
Correct Answer
D. Immersion foot. -
- 34.
A good prevention measure for cold injuries is to
- A.
Eat small meals.
- B.
Consume alcohol.
- C.
Wear many layers of clothes.
- D.
Limit exercise of extremities.
Correct Answer
C. Wear many layers of clothes. -
- 35.
The twofold purpose of the medical mission is to return sick or injured combatants back to duty as quickly as possible and to
- A.
Ensure the mission isn’t affected for medical reasons.
- B.
Provide injured combatants an area for convalescence.
- C.
Ensure the more seriously injured get evacuated to safer areas for convalescence and treatment.
- D.
Provide the more seriously injured with their choice of convalescence and treatment locations through TRICARE.
Correct Answer
C. Ensure the more seriously injured get evacuated to safer areas for convalescence and treatment. -
- 36.
A deployable team’s specific purpose is to
- A.
Provide medical care.
- B.
Provide long term medical care.
- C.
Train personnel on evacuation routes in the event of a nuclear attack.
- D.
Educate personnel on the kinds of injuries associated with a nuclear attack.
Correct Answer
A. Provide medical care. -
- 37.
We can effectively use the historical information from biological events to train our personnel on their duties in a real-life situation mocked after an event and to
- A.
Hold periodic exercises to practice our skills and test our knowledge.
- B.
Hold periodic exercises to test our knowledge.
- C.
Create in-service lesson plans for our unit.
- D.
Improve our knowledge of these events.
Correct Answer
A. Hold periodic exercises to practice our skills and test our knowledge. -
- 38.
What is the most likely reason that many military members suffer or die as a result of a biological attack?
- A.
Inadequate immunizations.
- B.
Terrorists are creative with their delivery.
- C.
Beliefs that biological warfare would cause great epidemics in military populations.
- D.
Too much time between agent identification and cure/treatment recommendation.
Correct Answer
C. Beliefs that biological warfare would cause great epidemics in military populations. -
- 39.
What primarily determines the effectiveness of a biological agent?
- A.
Ability of the organism to overcome resistance of the target host.
- B.
Method of application of the agent to the environment.
- C.
Type of organism.
- D.
Average temperature.
Correct Answer
B. Method of application of the agent to the environment. -
- 40.
Which statement is not a characteristic of a biological agent?
- A.
Identification of the organism is often difficult.
- B.
Agent’s presence cannot be detected by our senses.
- C.
It is rapid in action from time of exposure to symptoms.
- D.
Agents have a delayed action because of an incubation period.
Correct Answer
C. It is rapid in action from time of exposure to symptoms. -
- 41.
Prompt reporting of sickness serve all of the following purposes except
- A.
Enabling the identification of the biological agent to which the individuals were exposed.
- B.
Helping to prevent the spread of disease from person to person.
- C.
Immediately stopping the attack.
- D.
Allowing early treatment of the disease.
Correct Answer
C. Immediately stopping the attack. -
- 42.
A strong defense in a biological warfare (BW) attack is
- A.
Physical exercise, adequate sleep, and a proper diet.
- B.
Eliminating all insects and rodents from the camp.
- C.
Proficiency in first aid against BW agents.
- D.
Proficiency donning the protective mask.
Correct Answer
A. Physical exercise, adequate sleep, and a proper diet. -
- 43.
(603STQV4)What is a base's plan for diasasters in both peace and war?
- A.
Base OPLAN 32-3
- B.
Base OPLAN 32-2
- C.
Base OPLAN 32-1
- D.
Base OPLAN 32-4
Correct Answer
C. Base OPLAN 32-1 -
- 44.
(605STQV4) What annex provides guidance for public health operations during wartime?
- A.
ANNEX E
- B.
ANNEX P
- C.
ANNEX H
- D.
ANNEX M
Correct Answer
A. ANNEX E -
- 45.
(614STQV4) In a deployed environment, how often should CE water production/distribution personnel check the water from purification equment for chlorine residual and pH?
- A.
Every 60 minutes of the operational day
- B.
Every 45 minutes of the operational day
- C.
Every 90 minutes of the operational day
- D.
Every 30 minutes of the operational day
Correct Answer
D. Every 30 minutes of the operational day -
- 46.
(615STQV4)Where should urinal pipes and urinal troughs drain?
- A.
Chemical latrine
- B.
Soakage pit
- C.
Deep pit latrine
- D.
All of the above
Correct Answer
D. All of the above -
- 47.
(623STQV4) What is your best defense against biological agents?
- A.
Innoculations
- B.
Natural resistance of your body
- C.
Aerosol spray
- D.
Auto-injectors
Correct Answer
B. Natural resistance of your body -
- 48.
(623STQV4) How can biological agents get into the body?
- A.
Cuts
- B.
Wounds
- C.
Ingestion
- D.
Inhalation
- E.
All of the above
Correct Answer
E. All of the above -
- 49.
(601STQV4) What disease caused 60,000 casualties in 1942 during the war campaign in Guadalcanal?
- A.
Dysentery
- B.
Sand Fly Fever
- C.
Malaria
- D.
Plague
Correct Answer
C. Malaria -
- 50.
(608STQV4) What are the four types of diseases that occur in contingency operations?
- A.
Diarrheal, respiratory, skin, and vectorborne
- B.
Diarrheal and vectorborne
- C.
Diarrheal, respiratory, and vectorborne
- D.
Diarrheal, respiratory, and skin
Correct Answer
A. Diarrheal, respiratory, skin, and vectorborne -
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Jan 09, 2013Quiz Edited by
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