4c0x1 7 Level CDCs 2009

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Quizzes Created: 1 | Total Attempts: 40

Questions: 51 | Attempts: 41 | Updated: Mar 21, 2023

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This quiz is for the 7 level Mental Health course. Created from UREs

Questions and Answers

1.

What must society change in order to overcome the influences of racism?
- A.
  
  Laws
- B.
  
  Policies
- C.
  
  Attitudes
- D.
  
  Education
Correct Answer
C. Attitudes

Explanation
To overcome the influences of racism, society must change its attitudes. Laws and policies can provide a framework for combating racism, but without a shift in attitudes, these measures may not be effective in addressing the root causes of racism. Education plays a crucial role in challenging and changing attitudes, promoting empathy, understanding, and equality. By fostering a culture of inclusivity and respect, society can work towards overcoming the influences of racism and creating a more equitable and harmonious future.

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2.

Most people base prejudices upon information
- A.
  
  Obtained from research
- B.
  
  Learned in formal courses
- C.
  
  Gained from learned stereotypes
- D.
  
  Gathered from community-based training programs
Correct Answer
C. Gained from learned stereotypes

Explanation
The correct answer is "gained from learned stereotypes." Prejudices are often formed based on stereotypes that individuals have learned and internalized over time. These stereotypes can be acquired through various means such as media, social interactions, and cultural influences. People tend to rely on these preconceived notions rather than conducting thorough research or relying on formal education. This answer suggests that prejudices are often rooted in the stereotypes that individuals have acquired through learning and exposure.

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3.

When counselors act upon their prejudices, they
- A.
  
  Become better people
- B.
  
  Overcome stereotypes
- C.
  
  Engage in discriminatory behavior
- D.
  
  Ensure equal treatment of all patients
Correct Answer
C. Engage in discriminatory behavior

Explanation
When counselors act upon their prejudices, they engage in discriminatory behavior. This means that instead of providing equal treatment to all patients, they are treating certain individuals unfairly based on their biases and stereotypes. This behavior goes against the principles of counseling, which aim to provide unbiased support and guidance to all individuals. By engaging in discriminatory behavior, counselors are not only failing to help their patients but also perpetuating inequality and prejudice.

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4.

In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur?
- A.
  
  Personal
- B.
  
  Intimate
- C.
  
  Social
- D.
  
  Public
Correct Answer
A. Personal

Explanation
Most therapeutic relationships occur in the personal space zone. This is because therapeutic relationships involve a level of trust and intimacy between the therapist and the client. The personal space zone is typically between 1.5 to 4 feet, which allows for a comfortable and close interaction between the therapist and the client. In this zone, individuals can engage in personal conversations and establish a strong therapeutic alliance, which is essential for effective therapy.

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5.

In which personal space do formal interactions occur?
- A.
  
  Personal
- B.
  
  Intimate
- C.
  
  Social
- D.
  
  Public
Correct Answer
D. Public

Explanation
Formal interactions typically occur in public spaces. Public spaces are areas that are accessible to a large number of people and are often designated for formal activities such as meetings, conferences, or official events. These spaces provide a neutral and professional environment for individuals to engage in formal interactions, ensuring that the conversation remains focused and appropriate.

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6.

Which culture values empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment?
- A.
  
  Asian/Pacific Islanders
- B.
  
  Westernized healthcare providers
- C.
  
  Native Americans
- D.
  
  Hispanics
Correct Answer
B. Westernized healthcare providers

Explanation
Westernized healthcare providers value empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment. This means that they prioritize using diagnostic tools and treatment methods that have been proven to be effective through scientific research and evidence. This approach is based on the principles of evidence-based medicine, which emphasizes the use of the best available evidence to guide medical decision-making. By valuing empirically supported tools and treatments, Westernized healthcare providers aim to provide the highest quality and most effective care to their patients.

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7.

Which is an example of a strategy a counselor might use to become more culturally competent?
- A.
  
  Attends a conference for advances in treatment of depression
- B.
  
  A white counselor tell a black client to relax because he sees no color
- C.
  
  Asks a client to refrain from using slang terminology to ease the language barrier
- D.
  
  A hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee
Correct Answer
D. A hispanic counselor attends a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee

Explanation
A counselor becoming more culturally competent involves actively engaging with different cultures and communities. By attending a luncheon hosted by the Black Heritage committee, the Hispanic counselor is demonstrating a willingness to learn and understand the experiences and perspectives of the black community. This strategy allows the counselor to gain firsthand knowledge, engage in meaningful conversations, and build relationships with individuals from a different cultural background. It shows a commitment to cultural awareness and sensitivity, which are important aspects of providing effective counseling services to diverse populations.

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8.

Which aging theory states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan?
- A.
  
  Activity Theory of Aging
- B.
  
  Continunity Theory of Aging
- C.
  
  Subculture Theory of Aging
- D.
  
  Disengagement Theory of Aging
Correct Answer
B. Continunity Theory of Aging

Explanation
The Continuity Theory of Aging states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan. This theory suggests that individuals tend to maintain a consistent pattern of behavior, preferences, and values as they age, rather than making significant changes. It emphasizes the importance of maintaining continuity in one's activities, relationships, and roles as a way to adapt to the aging process. This theory suggests that individuals who are able to maintain a sense of continuity and consistency in their lives are more likely to have positive outcomes and psychological well-being as they age.

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9.

Which theory of aging states that the elderly possess thier own norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors?
- A.
  
  Activity Theory of Aging
- B.
  
  Continunity Theory of Aging
- C.
  
  Subculture Theory of Aging
- D.
  
  Disengagement Theory of Aging
Correct Answer
C. Subculture Theory of Aging

Explanation
The Subculture Theory of Aging suggests that the elderly have their own unique set of norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors. This theory emphasizes that as individuals age, they develop a distinct subculture within society, with its own values and practices. It emphasizes the importance of social interaction and the maintenance of social roles and relationships for successful aging. This theory challenges the notion that aging is solely a process of decline and disengagement from society, instead highlighting the active participation and contributions of older adults within their own subculture.

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10.

How is alcholism detected among elderly patients?
- A.
  
  Through routine, thorough screening measures
- B.
  
  As a result of physical consequences of ETOH abuse
- C.
  
  Through histories obtained from family members of elderly patient
- D.
  
  By responeses from surveys used during prevention and outreach services
Correct Answer
C. Through histories obtained from family members of elderly patient

Explanation
Alcoholism among elderly patients can be detected through histories obtained from family members. Family members often have insight into the patient's drinking habits and can provide information about any signs or symptoms of alcohol abuse. This method allows healthcare professionals to gather important information about the patient's alcohol consumption and make an accurate diagnosis.

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11.

Which group is more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications?
- A.
  
  Veterans
- B.
  
  Baby Boomers
- C.
  
  Generation Xers
- D.
  
  Generation Nexters
Correct Answer
C. Generation Xers

Explanation
Generation Xers are more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications. This generation, born between the early 1960s and early 1980s, is known for being independent and proactive in managing their healthcare. They are more likely to research and educate themselves about specific procedures or medications, and then approach a healthcare provider with their specific requests. Veterans, Baby Boomers, and Generation Nexters may also approach providers with specific requests, but Generation Xers are generally considered to be more assertive and proactive in seeking out the healthcare they want.

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12.

Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the prepetrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model?
- A.
  
  There has been no noticeable effect
- B.
  
  Lack of appropiate screening measures in identifying male victims
- C.
  
  Females receive more and more services each year because of their victimization
- D.
  
  Lack of comprehensive services offered to man who are victims of domestic violence
Correct Answer
D. Lack of comprehensive services offered to man who are victims of domestic violence

Explanation
The effect of the traditional model of domestic violence presenting males as perpetrators and females as victims is the lack of comprehensive services offered to male victims of domestic violence. This stereotype perpetuates the belief that men cannot be victims, leading to a lack of appropriate screening measures in identifying male victims and a focus on providing services primarily to female victims. As a result, male victims may not receive the support and resources they need to address their experiences of domestic violence.

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13.

Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and dependence by assessing
- A.
  
  Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use
- B.
  
  Blackouts, hangovers, compulsive use
- C.
  
  Blackouts, hangovers, and withdrawal
- D.
  
  Tolerance, withdrawal, and hangovers
Correct Answer
A. Tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use

Explanation
Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and dependence by assessing tolerance, withdrawal, and compulsive use. Tolerance refers to the need for increasing amounts of the substance to achieve the desired effect, withdrawal is the physical and psychological symptoms experienced when the substance is discontinued, and compulsive use refers to the inability to control or stop using the substance despite negative consequences. These factors help counselors determine the severity of the substance-related problem and guide appropriate treatment interventions.

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14.

Which term describes the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days?
- A.
  
  Speedball
- B.
  
  Tweaking
- C.
  
  Speed Run
- D.
  
  Crash
Correct Answer
B. Tweaking

Explanation
Tweaking is the term used to describe the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days. During this phase, the individual may exhibit symptoms such as restlessness, paranoia, aggression, and obsessive behavior. They may also experience hallucinations and delusions. Tweaking is a dangerous state as it can lead to erratic and unpredictable behavior, posing a risk to both the individual and those around them.

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15.

Which substance will an amphetamine user typically use to manage the agitation experienced during a crash?
- A.
  
  Cocaine or heroin
- B.
  
  Heroin or opiates
- C.
  
  Opiates or alcohol
- D.
  
  Alcohol or heroin
Correct Answer
D. Alcohol or heroin

Explanation
During a crash, an amphetamine user typically experiences agitation. Both alcohol and heroin are substances that can help manage this agitation. Alcohol is a depressant that can calm the nervous system and reduce anxiety, while heroin is an opioid that has sedating and pain-relieving effects. Therefore, an amphetamine user may turn to alcohol or heroin to alleviate the agitation experienced during a crash.

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16.

Which schizophrenic symptom either exaggerates or grossly distorts the patient's normal level of functioning?
- A.
  
  Cluster
- B.
  
  Positive
- C.
  
  Negative
- D.
  
  Perceptual
Correct Answer
B. Positive

Explanation
Positive symptoms of schizophrenia refer to symptoms that are added to the person's normal level of functioning, causing an exaggeration or distortion. These symptoms include hallucinations, delusions, disorganized speech, and disorganized behavior. They are called positive symptoms because they represent an excess or addition to normal behavior.

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17.

Which diagnosis is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month?
- A.
  
  Schizophrenia
- B.
  
  Schizoaffective disorder
- C.
  
  Delusional disorder
- D.
  
  Schizophreniform disorder
Correct Answer
C. Delusional disorder

Explanation
Delusional disorder is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month. In this disorder, individuals hold fixed beliefs that are not based in reality but are plausible within their cultural context. These delusions are not accompanied by other prominent psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations or disorganized thinking, which are characteristic of schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder. Schizophreniform disorder is similar to schizophrenia but has a shorter duration of symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is Delusional disorder.

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18.

A patient has spent $5,000 on shoes in the last 3 weeks. Which symptoms of mania is this beahvior evidence of?
- A.
  
  Indiscretion
- B.
  
  Extravagance
- C.
  
  Grandiosity
- D.
  
  Overstimuli
Correct Answer
A. Indiscretion

Explanation
This behavior is evidence of indiscretion because the patient is spending a large amount of money on shoes without considering the consequences or being cautious about their spending.

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19.

Which statement describes a manic patient's initial behavior?
- A.
  
  Increased productivity, but decreased energy
- B.
  
  Increased productivity and increased energy
- C.
  
  Decreased productivity and decreased energy
- D.
  
  Decreased productivity, but increased energy
Correct Answer
B. Increased productivity and increased energy

Explanation
A manic patient's initial behavior is characterized by increased productivity and increased energy. This means that they are likely to be highly active, engaging in multiple tasks and projects, and exhibiting a heightened sense of motivation and enthusiasm. They may have an intense drive to accomplish goals and may appear highly energetic and restless. This behavior is often a hallmark of manic episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder.

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20.

What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?
- A.
  
  Intense fear of an identifiable stressor
- B.
  
  Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor
- C.
  
  Moderate fear of an identifiable stressor
- D.
  
  Moderate fear of an unidentifiable stressor
Correct Answer
B. Intense fear of an unidentifiable stressor

Explanation
A panic attack is characterized by intense fear, but the stressor that triggers the fear is often unidentifiable or unknown. This means that the person experiencing a panic attack may feel extreme fear and anxiety without being able to pinpoint a specific cause or source of stress. This can make panic attacks feel unpredictable and overwhelming, as the fear is not directly linked to a specific stressor that can be addressed or resolved.

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21.

An NCO attending the NCO Academy reports to his instructor that he feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech. Which type of panic attack might the NCO be experiencing?
- A.
  
  Expected
- B.
  
  Unexpected
- C.
  
  Situationally bound
- D.
  
  Situationally predisposed
Correct Answer
C. Situationally bound

Explanation
The NCO is experiencing a situationally bound panic attack. This type of panic attack is triggered by specific situations or circumstances, such as the thought of giving a speech. The individual feels intense fear or anxiety in these situations, which may include physical symptoms such as a racing heart, shortness of breath, or dizziness. The panic attack is directly linked to the situation and does not occur unexpectedly or in other situations.

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22.

Which is an essential feature of PTSD?
- A.
  
  Tearfulness
- B.
  
  Dissociation
- C.
  
  Hallucination
- D.
  
  Sleeplessness
Correct Answer
B. Dissociation

Explanation
Dissociation is an essential feature of PTSD. It refers to a disconnection or detachment from one's thoughts, feelings, memories, or surroundings. Individuals with PTSD often experience dissociative symptoms as a way to cope with the overwhelming trauma they have experienced. This can include feeling numb or detached from reality, experiencing amnesia or gaps in memory, or feeling like they are watching themselves from outside their body. Dissociation helps individuals create a psychological distance from the traumatic event, but it can also interfere with daily functioning and lead to difficulties in relationships and self-identity.

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23.

What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD?
- A.
  
  Acute intervention
- B.
  
  Desensitization exposure
- C.
  
  Psychopharmacological intervention
- D.
  
  Allowing the patient to spend time alone
Correct Answer
A. Acute intervention

Explanation
Acute intervention refers to providing immediate support and assistance to individuals who have experienced a traumatic event. This can include providing psychological first aid, counseling, and other forms of support. By intervening early, it can help prevent the development of long-term psychological scarring or post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). By addressing the trauma and providing appropriate support, individuals are more likely to process and cope with the event, reducing the risk of long-term negative psychological effects.

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24.

What is the primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa?
- A.
  
  Need to maintain control over diet
- B.
  
  Need to confront poor eating habits
- C.
  
  Intense pain related to eating certain foods
- D.
  
  Refusal to maintain appropriate body weight
Correct Answer
D. Refusal to maintain appropriate body weight

Explanation
Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight and a refusal to maintain a healthy body weight. Individuals with this disorder have a distorted body image and often engage in extreme dieting, excessive exercise, and other behaviors to control their weight. The primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa is the persistent refusal to maintain an appropriate body weight, which can lead to severe health consequences.

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25.

Which disorder in commonly diagnosed for people who suffer from anorexia nervosa?
- A.
  
  Mania
- B.
  
  Depression
- C.
  
  Substance Abuse
- D.
  
  Implusive purging
Correct Answer
B. Depression

Explanation
People who suffer from anorexia nervosa commonly experience depression. Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, resulting in restricted food intake and extreme weight loss. Depression often coexists with anorexia nervosa, as individuals may feel a sense of worthlessness, low self-esteem, and sadness due to their distorted body image and the constant preoccupation with food and weight. Depression can further exacerbate the severity of anorexia nervosa and hinder the recovery process.

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26.

What is the time frame for binge behavior?
- A.
  
  More than 2 hours
- B.
  
  Less than 2 hours
- C.
  
  More than 3 hours
- D.
  
  Less than 3 hours
Correct Answer
B. Less than 2 hours

Explanation
Binge behavior refers to excessive or uncontrolled consumption of something, often associated with food or alcohol. The time frame for binge behavior is typically considered to be less than 2 hours, as this duration is commonly associated with episodes of excessive consumption. Binge behavior can have negative consequences on physical and mental health, and it is important to be aware of and address such behaviors.

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27.

Many eating disorders go undetected because
- A.
  
  Of poor sceerning measures
- B.
  
  Patients are adept at hiding their behavior
- C.
  
  Other mental illnesses mask the eating disorder
- D.
  
  Counselors are not skilled at assessing for eating d/os
Correct Answer
A. Of poor sceerning measures

Explanation
Many eating disorders go undetected because of poor screening measures. This means that the current methods used to identify and diagnose eating disorders are not effective enough, leading to cases being missed or misdiagnosed. Without proper screening measures, individuals with eating disorders may not receive the necessary support and treatment they need.

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28.

What is the general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustmetnt d/o?
- A.
  
  2 & 5 months, respectively
- B.
  
  3 & 6 months, respectively
- C.
  
  4 & 7 months, respectively
- D.
  
  5 & 8 months, respectively
Correct Answer
B. 3 & 6 months, respectively

Explanation
The general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustment disorder is typically around 3 to 6 months. This means that symptoms of the disorder usually start to appear within 3 months of a stressful event or situation and can last up to 6 months. After this time period, the symptoms often subside or resolve on their own without the need for further treatment.

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29.

Which term describes adjustment d/o symptoms that have been present for less than 6 months?
- A.
  
  Acute
- B.
  
  Chronic
- C.
  
  Short term
- D.
  
  Persistant
Correct Answer
A. Acute

Explanation
The term "acute" refers to symptoms or conditions that have been present for a short period of time, typically less than 6 months. This term is used to describe adjustment disorder symptoms that occur in response to a stressful event and resolve within a relatively short period of time. It is important to differentiate acute symptoms from chronic symptoms, which last for a longer duration. "Short term" and "persistent" do not accurately describe symptoms that have been present for less than 6 months.

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30.

Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to which cluster of personality d/o's?
- A.
  
  A
- B.
  
  B
- C.
  
  C
- D.
  
  D
Correct Answer
A. A

Explanation
Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to Cluster A of personality disorders. Cluster A includes disorders such as paranoid personality disorder, schizoid personality disorder, and schizotypal personality disorder. These disorders are characterized by unusual or eccentric behavior, social withdrawal, and odd beliefs or thoughts. People with Cluster A personality disorders often have difficulty forming and maintaining relationships and may exhibit peculiar or idiosyncratic behavior.

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31.

Which personality d/o is dominated by a person feeling very uncomfortable in a close personal relationship and is often described as odd or eccentric?
- A.
  
  Schizotypal
- B.
  
  Dependent
- C.
  
  Paranoid
- D.
  
  Schizoid
Correct Answer
A. Schizotypal

Explanation
Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by a person feeling very uncomfortable in close personal relationships and being described as odd or eccentric. People with this disorder often have difficulties with social interactions, have peculiar beliefs or magical thinking, and may display unusual behavior or appearance. They may also experience social anxiety and have difficulty forming and maintaining close relationships. This aligns with the description provided in the question, making Schizotypal the correct answer.

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32.

A patient assessed as constantly seeking attention and having difficulty understanding boundary issues should be diagnosed with having a
- A.
  
  Borderline Personality D/o
- B.
  
  Histrionoc Personality D/o
- C.
  
  Antisocial Personality D/o
- D.
  
  Obsessive-Complusive Personality D/o
Correct Answer
B. Histrionoc Personality D/o

Explanation
A patient who is constantly seeking attention and has difficulty understanding boundary issues is likely to be diagnosed with Histrionic Personality Disorder. This disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior, a strong need for approval and praise, and a tendency to be overly dramatic or emotional. Individuals with Histrionic Personality Disorder often have difficulty maintaining relationships due to their attention-seeking behavior and may have an exaggerated sense of self-importance.

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33.

In alcohol treatment, when a patient has alcoholism or substance abuse along with a medical, legal, or social issues, this is called
- A.
  
  Dual diagnosis
- B.
  
  Polysubstance abuse
- C.
  
  Coexisting conditions
- D.
  
  Polysubstance dependence
Correct Answer
C. Coexisting conditions

Explanation
Coexisting conditions refer to the situation when a patient has both alcoholism or substance abuse and other medical, legal, or social issues simultaneously. This term emphasizes the presence of multiple conditions that may interact and complicate treatment. It highlights the need for a comprehensive approach that addresses both the addiction and the associated problems. Dual diagnosis, on the other hand, typically refers specifically to the co-occurrence of a substance use disorder and a mental health disorder. Polysubstance abuse and polysubstance dependence are more focused on the use of multiple substances rather than the presence of additional conditions.

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34.

What is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing the alcohol consumed so the drinker will become intoxicated at lower level of comsumption?
- A.
  
  Reverse Tolerance
- B.
  
  Residual Tolerance
- C.
  
  Alcoholic hepatitis
- D.
  
  Alcoholic cirrhosis
Correct Answer
A. Reverse Tolerance

Explanation
Reverse Tolerance is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing alcohol, resulting in the drinker becoming intoxicated at lower levels of consumption. This means that over time, the body becomes more sensitive to the effects of alcohol, leading to increased intoxication even with smaller amounts of alcohol.

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35.

The average adult can oxidize how many drinks in 180 minutes?
- A.
  
  2
- B.
  
  3
- C.
  
  4
- D.
  
  6
Correct Answer
D. 6

Explanation
The correct answer is 6 because the average adult can metabolize approximately one standard drink per hour. Since there are 180 minutes in 3 hours, the average adult would be able to metabolize 6 drinks in that time period.

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36.

Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she withholds judgment of a patient?
- A.
  
  Acceptance
- B.
  
  Self-awareness
- C.
  
  Observation
- D.
  
  Empathy
Correct Answer
A. Acceptance

Explanation
When a counselor withholds judgment of a patient, they are demonstrating acceptance. Acceptance is the ability to acknowledge and understand a patient's thoughts, feelings, and experiences without passing judgment or criticism. By practicing acceptance, the counselor creates a safe and non-judgmental space for the patient to explore their emotions and concerns openly. This skill helps to build trust and rapport between the counselor and patient, facilitating a more effective therapeutic relationship.

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37.

Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she conveys an understanding of a patient's situation or feeling?
- A.
  
  Self-awareness
- B.
  
  Acceptance
- C.
  
  Observation
- D.
  
  Empathy
Correct Answer
D. Empathy

Explanation
Empathy is the skill that a counselor utilizes when he or she conveys an understanding of a patient's situation or feeling. Empathy involves being able to understand and share the feelings of another person, putting oneself in their shoes and experiencing their emotions. By expressing empathy, a counselor demonstrates their ability to connect with the patient on an emotional level, fostering trust and creating a safe and supportive environment for the therapeutic process.

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38.

In order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe every
- A.
  
  Counselor can help patients change
- B.
  
  Patients has the capacity to change
- C.
  
  Counselor can help patients
- D.
  
  Patients can be changed
Correct Answer
B. Patients has the capacity to change

Explanation
The correct answer is "patients has the capacity to change". This answer suggests that in order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe that patients have the ability or potential to change. This belief is important because it forms the foundation for the counselor's approach and interventions, as they will be working towards facilitating and supporting the patient's growth and progress in therapy.

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39.

What term describes the mutuak respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient?
- A.
  
  Therapeutic alliance
- B.
  
  Acceptance
- C.
  
  Empathy
- D.
  
  Rapport
Correct Answer
D. Rapport

Explanation
Rapport refers to the mutual respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient. It is an essential component of effective communication and building a therapeutic alliance. Establishing rapport helps create a comfortable and supportive environment for the patient, allowing them to open up and share their thoughts and feelings more freely. This connection between the interviewer and the patient is crucial for successful therapeutic outcomes.

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40.

The best benefit the patient receives from the therapeutic alliance is
- A.
  
  Being able to make changes based on new information
- B.
  
  Being able to take more responsibility for his/her life
- C.
  
  Feeling confident the counselor will provide sound advice
- D.
  
  Being able to feel relief to have help with his or her problems
Correct Answer
B. Being able to take more responsibility for his/her life

Explanation
The therapeutic alliance is a collaborative relationship between the patient and the counselor. Through this alliance, the patient is encouraged to actively participate in their own therapy and take ownership of their life. By being able to take more responsibility for their life, the patient gains a sense of empowerment and control. This allows them to make informed decisions, set goals, and make changes based on new information and insights gained during therapy. The therapeutic alliance provides a supportive environment for the patient to explore their problems and work towards positive change.

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41.

What is an important consideration in using self-disclosure?
- A.
  
  Presenting the information in a nonthreatening manner
- B.
  
  Considering how much is appropriate to disclose
- C.
  
  Understanding the reason for disclosing
- D.
  
  Knowing the ethics of disclosing
Correct Answer
C. Understanding the reason for disclosing

Explanation
An important consideration in using self-disclosure is understanding the reason for disclosing. This means that before sharing personal information, one should consider why they want to disclose it and what they hope to achieve by doing so. Understanding the reason for disclosing helps individuals make informed decisions about what information to share and with whom, ensuring that self-disclosure is purposeful and meaningful.

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42.

What does motivational interviewing seek to resolve?
- A.
  
  Ambivalance
- B.
  
  Resistance
- C.
  
  Conflict
- D.
  
  Issues
Correct Answer
A. Ambivalance

Explanation
Motivational interviewing seeks to resolve ambivalence. Ambivalence refers to the conflicting feelings or mixed emotions that individuals may have towards change. Motivational interviewing aims to help individuals resolve this ambivalence by exploring and addressing their concerns, motivations, and reasons for change. By working through ambivalence, motivational interviewing can help individuals increase their motivation and commitment to making positive changes in their lives.

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43.

What is the role of the counselor in supporting self-efficacy?
- A.
  
  Share a belief with the patient that the patient is capable of making change
- B.
  
  Share the burden of responsiblilty for making change with the patient
- C.
  
  Roll with resistance to avoid conflict with the patient
- D.
  
  Deal with ambivalence by confronting discrepancy
Correct Answer
A. Share a belief with the patient that the patient is capable of making change

Explanation
The counselor's role in supporting self-efficacy is to share a belief with the patient that they are capable of making change. By expressing this belief, the counselor can instill confidence and empower the patient to take action towards their goals. This approach helps to build the patient's self-esteem and belief in their own abilities, which is crucial for making sustainable changes. It creates a supportive and positive environment that encourages the patient to believe in themselves and their potential for growth.

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44.

A common mistake in assessment when the diagnosis is substance abuse is failure to assess
- A.
  
  For acute withdrawal
- B.
  
  Recent binge episodes
- C.
  
  For substance intoxication
- D.
  
  The need for detoxification
Correct Answer
D. The need for detoxification

Explanation
When assessing a patient with a diagnosis of substance abuse, it is important to consider the need for detoxification. Detoxification refers to the process of removing toxic substances from the body, which is often necessary for individuals who are dependent on drugs or alcohol. Failure to assess the need for detoxification can result in inadequate treatment and support for the patient, potentially leading to complications during withdrawal and a higher risk of relapse. Therefore, it is crucial to evaluate the need for detoxification as part of a comprehensive assessment for substance abuse.

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45.

A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome is a past history of
- A.
  
  Other mental illness
- B.
  
  Polysubstance abuse
- C.
  
  Withdrawal syndrome
- D.
  
  Substance intoxication
Correct Answer
C. Withdrawal syndrome

Explanation
A past history of withdrawal syndrome increases the probability that the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome again. This is because individuals who have previously experienced withdrawal syndrome are more likely to have a heightened sensitivity to the effects of substance withdrawal, making it more difficult for them to cope with the symptoms.

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46.

Which of the following forms the basis fo treatment recommendations for the substance using patient?
- A.
  
  Information obtained in at least 5 ASAM dimensions
- B.
  
  Information obtained in all 6 ASAM dimensions
- C.
  
  Past history of treatment outcomes
- D.
  
  Discovery of dual diagnosis
Correct Answer
B. Information obtained in all 6 ASAM dimensions

Explanation
The basis for treatment recommendations for the substance using patient is the information obtained in all 6 ASAM dimensions. The ASAM (American Society of Addiction Medicine) dimensions provide a comprehensive assessment of the patient's physical, psychological, social, and spiritual needs. By gathering information in all dimensions, healthcare professionals can develop a holistic treatment plan that addresses all aspects of the patient's addiction and promotes their overall well-being.

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47.

The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is
- A.
  
  2, Biomedical conditions and complications
- B.
  
  3, Emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions and complications
- C.
  
  4, Readiness to change
- D.
  
  5, Relapse, continued use or continued problem potential
Correct Answer
B. 3, Emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions and complications

Explanation
The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is 3, Emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions and complications. This dimension focuses on assessing and addressing any emotional, behavioral, or cognitive conditions that may be present alongside substance use disorders. It recognizes that these coexisting mental illnesses can greatly impact an individual's treatment needs and outcomes, and therefore, it is important to address them as part of the overall treatment approach.

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48.

Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty AF installation with a MTF?
- A.
  
  Highest ranking enlist mental health technician
- B.
  
  Highest ranking privileged life skills provider
- C.
  
  Installation commander
- D.
  
  TSR team chief
Correct Answer
C. Installation commander

Explanation
The installation commander is responsible for ensuring the establishment of at least one TSR (Trauma Stress Response) team at each active duty AF (Air Force) installation with a MTF (Medical Treatment Facility). As the highest-ranking officer in charge of the installation, the installation commander has the authority to make decisions and allocate resources to ensure the implementation and functioning of the TSR team. This includes coordinating with the appropriate personnel and departments to establish the team and ensure its presence at the installation.

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49.

Which individual is not typically part of the TSR team?
- A.
  
  Social worker
- B.
  
  3-level mental health technician
- C.
  
  5-level mental health technician
- D.
  
  Community readiness consultant
Correct Answer
B. 3-level mental health technician

Explanation
A 3-level mental health technician is not typically part of the TSR team because the other options mentioned - social worker, 5-level mental health technician, and community readiness consultant - are more commonly associated with the TSR team. The 3-level mental health technician may have a different role or responsibilities that do not align with the TSR team's objectives or requirements.

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50.

According to the Air Force's Traumatis Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when which symptom lasts for over a month and/or impacts work or social functioning.
- A.
  
  Flashbacks
- B.
  
  Suicidal ideation
- C.
  
  Homicidal ideation
- D.
  
  Alcohol or drug abuse
Correct Answer
A. Flashbacks

Explanation
According to the Air Force's Traumatic Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when flashbacks last for over a month and/or impact work or social functioning. Flashbacks refer to the re-experiencing of a traumatic event as if it is happening again. If these symptoms persist for a prolonged period and interfere with daily life, it is important to seek help to address and manage the effects of trauma.

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4c0x1 7 Level CDCs 2009

What must society change in order to overcome the influences of racism?

Most people base prejudices upon information

When counselors act upon their prejudices, they

In which personal space zone do most therapeutic relationships occur?

In which personal space do formal interactions occur?

Which culture values empirically supported diagnostic tools and treatment?

Which is an example of a strategy a counselor might use to become more culturally competent?

Which aging theory states that behavior and personality remain consistent throughout the lifespan?

Which theory of aging states that the elderly possess thier own norms, beliefs, attitudes, expectations, and behaviors?

How is alcholism detected among elderly patients?

Which group is more likely to approach a provider requesting specific procedures or medications?

Traditional models of domestic violence still present males as the prepetrator and the females as the victim. What has been the effect of this stereotypic model?

Counselors distinguish between substance abuse and dependence by assessing

Which term describes the behavior of a person who has been on a methamphetamine binge for several days?

Which substance will an amphetamine user typically use to manage the agitation experienced during a crash?

Which schizophrenic symptom either exaggerates or grossly distorts the patient's normal level of functioning?

Which diagnosis is characterized by nonbizarre delusions that have lasted at least one month?

A patient has spent $5,000 on shoes in the last 3 weeks. Which symptoms of mania is this beahvior evidence of?

Which statement describes a manic patient's initial behavior?

What is the primary characteristic of a panic attack?

An NCO attending the NCO Academy reports to his instructor that he feels as though he is dying when he thinks about having to give his speech. Which type of panic attack might the NCO be experiencing?

Which is an essential feature of PTSD?

What is a key to preventing long-term psychological scarring or PTSD?

What is the primary characteristic of anorexia nervosa?

Which disorder in commonly diagnosed for people who suffer from anorexia nervosa?

What is the time frame for binge behavior?

Many eating disorders go undetected because

What is the general time frame for the development and remission of an adjustmetnt d/o?

Which term describes adjustment d/o symptoms that have been present for less than 6 months?

Personalities described as odd or eccentric belong to which cluster of personality d/o's?

Which personality d/o is dominated by a person feeling very uncomfortable in a close personal relationship and is often described as odd or eccentric?

A patient assessed as constantly seeking attention and having difficulty understanding boundary issues should be diagnosed with having a

In alcohol treatment, when a patient has alcoholism or substance abuse along with a medical, legal, or social issues, this is called

What is the term that describes when heavy chronic drinking causes a reduced capacity for metabolizing the alcohol consumed so the drinker will become intoxicated at lower level of comsumption?

The average adult can oxidize how many drinks in 180 minutes?

Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she withholds judgment of a patient?

Which skill is a counselor utilizing when he or she conveys an understanding of a patient's situation or feeling?

In order to work with mental health patients, a counselor must believe every

What term describes the mutuak respect and trust that develops between the interviewer and the patient?

The best benefit the patient receives from the therapeutic alliance is

What is an important consideration in using self-disclosure?

What does motivational interviewing seek to resolve?

What is the role of the counselor in supporting self-efficacy?

A common mistake in assessment when the diagnosis is substance abuse is failure to assess

A factor that increases the probability the patient will experience some degree of withdrawal syndrome is a past history of

Which of the following forms the basis fo treatment recommendations for the substance using patient?

The ASAM dimension that addresses any coexisting mental illnesses is

Who will ensure the establishment of at least one TSR team at each active duty AF installation with a MTF?

Which individual is not typically part of the TSR team?

According to the Air Force's Traumatis Stress Response guidelines, a member should seek assistance when which symptom lasts for over a month and/or impacts work or social functioning.