4a171 - Unit Review Excercises

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4a171 - Unit Review Excercises - Quiz


This is a comprehensive quiz of all Unit Review Excercises for the upgrade module 4A171


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Property responsibility means that each individual is obligated to take proper care of Air Force Property

    • A.

      Whether or not such property is issued with a receipt

    • B.

      When the level of supervision is appropriate

    • C.

      When the duty assignment requires it

    • D.

      When the type of property requires it

    Correct Answer
    A. Whether or not such property is issued with a receipt
    Explanation
    Review section 001

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  • 2. 

    Congress passed laws placing responsibility for public property directly on

    • A.

      Military personnel only

    • B.

      Civilian personnel only

    • C.

      Command personnel only

    • D.

      All government employmees

    Correct Answer
    D. All government employmees
    Explanation
    The correct answer is all government employees. Congress passed laws that placed responsibility for public property on all government employees, meaning that everyone working for the government is accountable for the proper care and use of public property. This includes both military personnel and civilian personnel, as well as command personnel and any other government employees.

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  • 3. 

    Which is a commander level responsibility?

    • A.

      Recording property transactions.

    • B.

      Requesting adequate storage facilities

    • C.

      Performing inventories of accountable property

    • D.

      Ensuring that only qualified personnel are assigned as accountable officers.

    Correct Answer
    D. Ensuring that only qualified personnel are assigned as accountable officers.
    Explanation
    The responsibility of ensuring that only qualified personnel are assigned as accountable officers is a commander level responsibility. This task requires the commander to carefully evaluate the skills, qualifications, and trustworthiness of individuals before assigning them as accountable officers. It is crucial for a commander to ensure that only competent individuals are entrusted with the responsibility of handling and managing important assets and resources. This responsibility helps to maintain the integrity and security of the organization's property and resources.

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  • 4. 

    Who is accountable for the medical stock record account?

    • A.

      E-7's and above

    • B.

      Medical logistics flight commander

    • C.

      Superintendant of medical logistics

    • D.

      E7s and above and civillians of equivalent grade

    Correct Answer
    B. Medical logistics flight commander
    Explanation
    The medical logistics flight commander is accountable for the medical stock record account. This individual is responsible for overseeing the management and maintenance of medical supplies and equipment. They are in charge of ensuring accurate record-keeping, inventory control, and efficient distribution of medical resources.

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  • 5. 

    Which is a property custodian level responsibility?

    • A.

      Establishing, reviewing, and adjusting stock levels

    • B.

      Planning and forcasting requirements to meet mission goals

    • C.

      Identifying the urgency and validity of requests for materiel

    • D.

      Properly identifying, reporting to base/wing/wholesale supply activities excess property.

    Correct Answer
    B. Planning and forcasting requirements to meet mission goals
    Explanation
    The property custodian level responsibility of planning and forecasting requirements to meet mission goals involves assessing the needs of the organization and determining the necessary resources and supplies to achieve those goals. This responsibility includes analyzing data, considering past performance, and making informed projections to ensure that the organization has the necessary materials and equipment to carry out its mission effectively. By effectively planning and forecasting, the property custodian can help prevent shortages or excess inventory, optimize resource allocation, and contribute to the overall success of the mission.

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  • 6. 

    Which document is a cattegory of evidence that can be used to relieve individuals of custodial responsibility?

    • A.

      Documents showing request for materiel

    • B.

      Documents showing materiel was free of charge.

    • C.

      Douments showing receipt of materiel from commercial carrier

    • D.

      Documents showing turn-in or transfer of an item to another property custodian

    Correct Answer
    B. Documents showing materiel was free of charge.
  • 7. 

    Which are the two primary categories of items that require report of survey documentation if lost, damaged, or destroyed?

    • A.

      Supply system stocks and property record items

    • B.

      Supply system stocks and military real property

    • C.

      Military real property and property records items

    • D.

      Military real property and military personal property

    Correct Answer
    C. Military real property and property records items
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Military real property and property records items." When military real property (such as buildings, structures, and land) or property records items (such as documents, files, and records) are lost, damaged, or destroyed, a report of survey documentation is required. This documentation helps to account for and investigate the loss or damage of these important assets and maintain accurate records.

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  • 8. 

    Percuniary liability is generally limted to a maximum of one month's base pay of

    • A.

      A person who lost or damaged property

    • B.

      An accountable officer who through negligence damage assigned living quarters

    • C.

      An accountable officer who though willful misconduct damaged assigned living quarters

    • D.

      An individual who, though negligence or willful misconduct, damaged assigned living quarters

    Correct Answer
    A. A person who lost or damaged property
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "an individual who, though negligence or willful misconduct, damaged assigned living quarters." This means that if a person negligently or intentionally damages living quarters that were assigned to them, their pecuniary liability (financial responsibility) is generally limited to a maximum of one month's base pay.

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  • 9. 

    A report of survey is referred to the legal office for review when

    • A.

      The dollar value of the lost or damaged property is over $500

    • B.

      The investigating officer did not perform a thorough job

    • C.

      The report of survey pertains to lost ammunition

    • D.

      Financial responsiblity is assessed

    Correct Answer
    D. Financial responsiblity is assessed
    Explanation
    When financial responsibility is assessed, it means that someone is being held accountable for the cost of the lost or damaged property. This could be due to negligence, misconduct, or other factors that resulted in the property being lost or damaged. As a result, the report of survey is referred to the legal office for review to ensure that the appropriate actions are taken to determine and enforce the financial responsibility.

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  • 10. 

    What form is used when civilian or military personnel admit liability, and desire to pay, but do not have enough funds to pay cash and what office is the document processed through?

    • A.

      AF Form 106, Record of Advance Payments, and is processed at the civilian personnel office

    • B.

      AF Form 106, Record of Advance Payments, and is processed at accounting and finance office.

    • C.

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges for Government Property Lost, Damaged, or Destroyed, and is processed at the cviliian personnel office

    • D.

      DD Form 362, Statement charges for Government Property Lost, Damaged, or Destroyed and is processed

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 362, Statement charges for Government Property Lost, Damaged, or Destroyed and is processed
  • 11. 

    What form is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment?

    • A.

      AF Form 106

    • B.

      AF Form 198

    • C.

      DD Form 362

    • D.

      DD Form 1131

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 1131
    Explanation
    DD Form 1131 is used when an individual admits pecuniary liability and wants to make a cash payment. This form is specifically designed for individuals to acknowledge their financial obligations and make payments in cash. It is commonly used in the military and government settings to document and process financial transactions.

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  • 12. 

    What is the variance called that reflects work that is not part of the basic work center description?

    • A.

      Standard

    • B.

      Exclusion

    • C.

      Additive

    • D.

      Function

    Correct Answer
    C. Additive
    Explanation
    The variance that reflects work that is not part of the basic work center description is called additive. This means that it is additional work that is performed beyond the standard or expected work at a work center. It could include tasks or activities that are not part of the regular job description but are necessary for the completion of a specific project or task.

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  • 13. 

    What term in the manpower standards process means that requirements start at zero and are increased based on workload?

    • A.

      Stratify

    • B.

      Zero-Post

    • C.

      Zero-Based

    • D.

      Spoke-and-Wheel

    Correct Answer
    C. Zero-Based
    Explanation
    Zero-Based in the manpower standards process means that requirements start at zero and are increased based on workload. This approach ensures that each task or activity is evaluated independently and justified based on its necessity and workload, rather than assuming that existing requirements are still valid. By starting from zero, it allows for a more thorough and critical assessment of the workload and resource needs, promoting efficiency and cost-effectiveness in the allocation of manpower.

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  • 14. 

    What code on the unit manpower document (UMD) is a sequentially assigned alphanumeric code representing a unit?

    • A.

      Functional account code (FAC)

    • B.

      Organizational Structore Code (OSC)

    • C.

      Personnel account symbol (PAS)

    • D.

      Installation or location indicator (ILC)

    Correct Answer
    A. Functional account code (FAC)
    Explanation
    The Functional Account Code (FAC) is a sequentially assigned alphanumeric code that represents a unit on the Unit Manpower Document (UMD). This code is used to identify and track the specific functions and responsibilities of a unit within the military. It helps in organizing and categorizing units based on their roles and tasks. The FAC is an essential component of the UMD and is used for various administrative and logistical purposes.

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  • 15. 

    How can the DMLSS system administrator module be accessed?

    • A.

      At the system console only

    • B.

      ON a PC from the system services module

    • C.

      At the system console or on a PC via a Telnet session

    • D.

      On a personal computer (PC) via Telnet session only

    Correct Answer
    C. At the system console or on a PC via a Telnet session
    Explanation
    The DMLSS system administrator module can be accessed either at the system console or on a PC via a Telnet session. This means that the administrator can choose to access the module directly from the system console or remotely through a Telnet session on a PC. Both options provide the administrator with the ability to access and manage the DMLSS system.

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  • 16. 

    What is the term used for a combination of the resources or functions for each application?

    • A.

      Role

    • B.

      Privilege

    • C.

      Target Flag

    • D.

      Commodity

    Correct Answer
    B. Privilege
    Explanation
    Privilege refers to the term used for a combination of the resources or functions for each application. It is a special right or permission that is granted to a user or a group of users to access certain resources or perform specific actions within a system or application. Privileges are typically assigned based on roles or responsibilities, allowing users to access only the resources and functions that are necessary for their job or task.

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  • 17. 

    In DMLSS, where is the User Privilege (UP) module located?

    • A.

      Within the ORG/MTF module

    • B.

      Within the SYSTEM SERVICES APPLICATION only

    • C.

      Within the SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR module only

    • D.

      In both the SYSTEM SERVICES APPLICATION and the SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR module

    Correct Answer
    C. Within the SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR module only
    Explanation
    The User Privilege (UP) module in DMLSS is located within the SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR module only. This means that the User Privilege module can be accessed and managed within the SYSTEM ADMINISTRATOR module, but not within the ORG/MTF module or the SYSTEM SERVICES APPLICATION.

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  • 18. 

    Which is a criterion of assigning DMLSS roles?

    • A.

      Centrally managed roles may be edited

    • B.

      You cannot remove a security manager role from your own User ID

    • C.

      Administrators cannot make changes to User Privileges (UP) if that user is currently logged into DMLSS.

    • D.

      All users should be granted access to system services roles containing medical treatment facility (MTF) resources

    Correct Answer
    B. You cannot remove a security manager role from your own User ID
    Explanation
    The explanation for the given correct answer is that a security manager role is a critical role in ensuring the security and integrity of the system. It is designed to prevent unauthorized access and protect sensitive information. Allowing users to remove the security manager role from their own User ID would create a security vulnerability and undermine the purpose of having a security manager in the first place. Therefore, it is a criterion of assigning DMLSS roles that the security manager role cannot be removed from one's own User ID.

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  • 19. 

    What DMLSS module contains a listing of all the values and codes used in the various DMLSS applications?

    • A.

      MTF/Org

    • B.

      Archiving

    • C.

      TABLE MAINTENANCE UTILITY (TMU)

    • D.

      DMLSS COMMUNICATION MANAGER (DCM)

    Correct Answer
    C. TABLE MAINTENANCE UTILITY (TMU)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TABLE MAINTENANCE UTILITY (TMU). This module contains a listing of all the values and codes used in the various DMLSS applications. It is responsible for maintaining and updating the tables that store this information, ensuring that the data is accurate and up to date. The TMU allows users to add, modify, or delete values and codes as needed, providing a centralized location for managing this important data.

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  • 20. 

    What DMLSS module is an automatic tool that transmits orders and financial data for the various applications?

    • A.

      Archiving

    • B.

      FUNDS MANAGEMENT

    • C.

      TABLE MAINTENANCE UTILITY

    • D.

      COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT

    Correct Answer
    D. COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT
    Explanation
    The correct answer is COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT because it is the DMLSS module that serves as an automatic tool for transmitting orders and financial data for various applications. This module is responsible for managing and facilitating communication between different systems and applications within the DMLSS system. It ensures the seamless transmission of orders and financial data, streamlining the overall process and improving efficiency.

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  • 21. 

    What DMLSS main administration menu option is accessed to add Internet Protocol (IP) addresses of workstations to the DMLSS server?

    • A.

      User Administration

    • B.

      Server Administration

    • C.

      Personal computer (PC) Host Administration

    • D.

      Web Server Administration

    Correct Answer
    B. Server Administration
    Explanation
    To add Internet Protocol (IP) addresses of workstations to the DMLSS server, the main administration menu option that needs to be accessed is "Server Administration". This option allows the user to manage and configure the server settings, including adding IP addresses of workstations. The other options mentioned, such as User Administration, PC Host Administration, and Web Server Administration, are not specifically related to adding IP addresses to the server.

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  • 22. 

    In DMLSS, what system administration option is used to create a system tape?

    • A.

      Softwware installation

    • B.

      Server administration

    • C.

      On-demand data back-ups/restore

    • D.

      Materiel management functional administration.

    Correct Answer
    C. On-demand data back-ups/restore
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "On-demand data back-ups/restore". In DMLSS, the system administration option used to create a system tape is on-demand data back-ups/restore. This option allows the user to create a backup of the system data and restore it when needed. This is an important feature for system administrators to ensure the safety and availability of data in case of any issues or disasters.

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  • 23. 

    In DMLSS, what system administration option is used to perform a universal data repository (UDR) update?

    • A.

      Software installation

    • B.

      Server administration

    • C.

      On-demand data backups/restore

    • D.

      Material management functional administration.

    Correct Answer
    C. On-demand data backups/restore
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "On-demand data backups/restore." In DMLSS, the system administration option used to perform a universal data repository (UDR) update is through on-demand data backups and restores. This option allows for the updating and restoration of data in the UDR as needed, ensuring that the repository is up to date and accurate.

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  • 24. 

    In DMLSS, how often should the Audit Files System backup be performed?

    • A.

      Monthly

    • B.

      Quarterly

    • C.

      Upon request by higher authority

    • D.

      During the end-of-fiscal year (EOY) processing

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly
    Explanation
    The Audit Files System backup should be performed monthly in DMLSS. This ensures that the system's audit files are regularly backed up to prevent data loss and maintain data integrity. Regular backups also allow for easy recovery in case of any system failures or errors. Performing the backup monthly ensures that the system is protected and that the backup is up to date.

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  • 25. 

    The primary reason to keep offical records is that it

    • A.

      Preserves information

    • B.

      Makes common sense

    • C.

      Organizes the office

    • D.

      Its the law

    Correct Answer
    A. Preserves information
    Explanation
    Keeping official records is important because it preserves information. Official records serve as a historical record of events, transactions, and decisions made by an organization. They provide evidence of actions taken, help in tracking progress, and support decision-making processes. Preserving information in official records ensures that it can be accessed and referred to in the future, promoting transparency, accountability, and continuity within the organization.

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  • 26. 

    Which of the following is responsible for preparing, maintaining, and disposing of files?

    • A.

      Records custodian (RC)

    • B.

      Major Command (MAJCOM)

    • C.

      Medical Logistics Flight Commander (MLFC)

    • D.

      Record Information Management System (RMIS)

    Correct Answer
    A. Records custodian (RC)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Records custodian (RC). A records custodian is responsible for preparing, maintaining, and disposing of files. They are in charge of managing records within an organization, ensuring their accuracy, security, and compliance with regulations. The records custodian is typically the point person for handling requests for information, organizing and storing records, and implementing proper record retention and disposal procedures. They play a crucial role in ensuring the organization's records are properly managed throughout their lifecycle.

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  • 27. 

    How many different filing arrangements are authorized for use by Air Force offices?

    • A.

      2

    • B.

      4

    • C.

      6

    • D.

      8

    Correct Answer
    C. 6
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 6 because the question is asking for the number of different filing arrangements authorized for use by Air Force offices. The options provided are numbers, and the correct answer is the one that represents the total number of authorized filing arrangements.

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  • 28. 

    Normally, numbered documents are filed in a central location in serial number sequence by

    • A.

      Level of command.

    • B.

      Name of agency

    • C.

      Julian date

    • D.

      Content

    Correct Answer
    C. Julian date
    Explanation
    Numbered documents are typically filed in a central location in serial number sequence by the Julian date. The Julian date system is a chronological dating system that assigns a unique number to each day of the year, allowing for easy organization and retrieval of documents based on the date they were created or received. This method ensures that documents can be easily located and tracked based on their chronological order, regardless of the level of command or the specific agency involved.

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  • 29. 

    Which form is completed to document the removal of a source document from the permanent document file?

    • A.

      AF Form 80, Files Maintenance and Disposition Plan

    • B.

      AF Form 82, Files disposition control Label

    • C.

      AF Form 574, Distribution Record

    • D.

      AF Form 614, Charge Out Record

    Correct Answer
    D. AF Form 614, Charge Out Record
    Explanation
    The AF Form 614, Charge Out Record, is completed to document the removal of a source document from the permanent document file. This form is used to track the movement of documents that have been checked out or charged out from the file. It includes information such as the date of removal, the name of the person removing the document, and the expected return date. By using this form, the organization can keep track of who has borrowed the document and ensure its timely return.

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  • 30. 

    How often must unfiled documents be checked?

    • A.

      Periodically, but at least daily

    • B.

      Periodically, but at least weekly

    • C.

      Monthly

    • D.

      Quarterly

    Correct Answer
    A. Periodically, but at least daily
    Explanation
    Unfiled documents must be checked periodically to ensure that they are properly organized and stored. However, to prevent any potential issues or delays, it is recommended to check them at least daily. This frequent checking will help maintain an efficient and organized filing system, ensuring that important documents are not misplaced or lost.

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  • 31. 

    Which items may be procured using Medical Dental Division (MDD) funds?

    • A.

      Nonmedical materiel stocked by base supply

    • B.

      Service contracts for other than credit returns program.

    • C.

      Investment equipment

    • D.

      Expense Equipment

    Correct Answer
    C. Investment equipment
    Explanation
    MDD funds can be used to procure investment equipment. Investment equipment refers to items that are necessary for the operation and functioning of medical and dental facilities, such as medical devices, dental equipment, and diagnostic tools. These funds are specifically allocated for the procurement of such equipment to ensure that medical and dental services can be provided effectively and efficiently.

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  • 32. 

    Which local Defense Finance and Account Service (DFAS) computer product records reimbursable issues to the Medical-Dental Division (MDD) fund?

    • A.

      On-Order/Intransit Payable List

    • B.

      Medical Materiel Management Report

    • C.

      Project Fund Summary Record (PFSR)

    • D.

      Project FUnd Management Record (PFMR)

    Correct Answer
    D. Project FUnd Management Record (PFMR)
    Explanation
    The correct answer is Project Fund Management Record (PFMR). This computer product is used by the local Defense Finance and Account Service (DFAS) to record reimbursable issues to the Medical-Dental Division (MDD) fund. It helps track and manage the funds allocated for medical and dental expenses. The PFMR allows for accurate and efficient financial management of the MDD fund, ensuring that reimbursements are properly recorded and accounted for.

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  • 33. 

    When does the fiscal year begin and end?

    • A.

      Begins the first day of January and ends the last day of Decemeber.

    • B.

      Begins the first day of April and ends the last day of March.

    • C.

      Begins the first day of July and ends the last day of June.

    • D.

      Begins the first day October, and ends the last day of September.

    Correct Answer
    D. Begins the first day October, and ends the last day of September.
    Explanation
    The fiscal year begins on the first day of October and ends on the last day of September. This means that financial activities and reporting for an organization or government follow this time frame. It allows for consistent financial planning and analysis over a specific period, aligning with the budgeting and operational cycles of many entities.

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  • 34. 

    What fund code specifies the Medical Dental Division (MMD) of the working captial fund?

    • A.

      2F

    • B.

      6B

    • C.

      17

    • D.

      30

    Correct Answer
    B. 6B
    Explanation
    The fund code "6B" specifies the Medical Dental Division (MMD) of the working capital fund. This code is likely used to identify and track financial transactions related to the MMD within the overall working capital fund.

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  • 35. 

    What DMLSS window allows you to view the hierarchy of all medical treatment facility (MTF) units and suborganizations?

    • A.

      TREEVIEW.

    • B.

      ASSIGNMENT OVERVIEW.

    • C.

      TABLE MAINTENANCE UTILITY(TMU)

    • D.

      DMLSS COMMUNCIATIONS MANAGEMENT (DCM)

    Correct Answer
    A. TREEVIEW.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is TREEVIEW. The TREEVIEW window in DMLSS allows users to view the hierarchy of all medical treatment facility (MTF) units and suborganizations. This feature provides a visual representation of the organizational structure within the DMLSS system, making it easier for users to navigate and access specific units or suborganizations. The TREEVIEW window is a useful tool for understanding the relationships and dependencies between different MTF units and suborganizations.

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  • 36. 

    What DMLSS application or module allows you to view and manage your funding through expense centers and project centers?

    • A.

      MTF/Org module.

    • B.

      FUNDS MANAGEMENT module

    • C.

      TABLE MAINTENANCE UTILITY (TMU)

    • D.

      DMLSS COMMUNICATIONS MANAGEMENT (DCM)

    Correct Answer
    B. FUNDS MANAGEMENT module
    Explanation
    The correct answer is the FUNDS MANAGEMENT module. This module in the DMLSS application allows users to view and manage their funding through expense centers and project centers. It provides tools and features for tracking and allocating funds, as well as monitoring expenses and budgets. With the FUNDS MANAGEMENT module, users can effectively manage their financial resources and ensure that they are allocated and used appropriately.

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  • 37. 

    With what activity does Medical Logistics coordinate to ensure that funding is set up and managed properly in DMLSS?

    • A.

      Air Force Medical Support Agency

    • B.

      Resource Management Office

    • C.

      Major command surgeon.

    • D.

      Base Contracting Officer

    Correct Answer
    B. Resource Management Office
    Explanation
    Medical Logistics coordinates with the Resource Management Office to ensure that funding is set up and managed properly in DMLSS. The Resource Management Office is responsible for overseeing the financial aspects of medical support and ensuring that funds are allocated and utilized efficiently. This coordination is necessary to ensure that the necessary resources and supplies are available to support medical operations and that funding is properly accounted for and managed.

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  • 38. 

    In DMLSS, what term refers to the project fund managemetn record?

    • A.

      Log fund.

    • B.

      Project center.

    • C.

      Expense center.

    • D.

      Element of resources

    Correct Answer
    B. Project center.
    Explanation
    The term "project center" refers to the project fund management record in DMLSS. This record is used to track and manage the funds allocated for a specific project. It helps in monitoring the expenses, budgeting, and financial management of the project. The project center provides a centralized location for all the financial information and transactions related to the project, ensuring effective fund management and accountability.

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  • 39. 

    In DMLSS, how is the financial data in a project center used when processing a reimbursable issue?

    • A.

      To set the negative authorized field

    • B.

      To determine fund availability and reimburse the stock fund

    • C.

      To make fund changes to the project center with out documentation

    • D.

      To increase, decrease, and restratisfy funds between elements of resource

    Correct Answer
    D. To increase, decrease, and restratisfy funds between elements of resource
    Explanation
    The financial data in a project center is used to increase, decrease, and restratisfy funds between elements of resource when processing a reimbursable issue. This means that the funds can be adjusted and reallocated as needed within the project center to ensure that there is enough funding available to reimburse the stock fund. This allows for efficient management of financial resources and ensures that the project center has the necessary funds to cover the reimbursable issue.

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  • 40. 

    What agency is responsibile for assigning project centers?

    • A.

      Accounting and Finance Office

    • B.

      Resource Management Office

    • C.

      Medical Treatment Facility

    • D.

      Medical Logistics

    Correct Answer
    A. Accounting and Finance Office
    Explanation
    The Accounting and Finance Office is responsible for assigning project centers.

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  • 41. 

    In DMLSS, what term is used to refer to a cost center?

    • A.

      LOG fund

    • B.

      Expense center

    • C.

      Project Center

    • D.

      Element of Resource

    Correct Answer
    B. Expense center
    Explanation
    In DMLSS, the term "Expense center" is used to refer to a cost center. A cost center is a specific department or division within an organization that incurs costs but does not generate revenue. It is responsible for managing and controlling expenses related to its operations. Therefore, "Expense center" is the correct term used in DMLSS to refer to a cost center.

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  • 42. 

    At least how many expense centers must a service customer be tied to once it is established?

    • A.

      1.

    • B.

      3.

    • C.

      5.

    • D.

      7.

    Correct Answer
    A. 1.
    Explanation
    A service customer must be tied to at least one expense center once it is established. This is because expense centers are used to track and allocate expenses related to specific activities or departments within an organization. By tying a service customer to an expense center, the organization can accurately track and allocate expenses associated with that customer's service activities. Therefore, it is necessary for a service customer to be tied to at least one expense center.

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  • 43. 

    The expense center code consists of

    • A.

      Six alpha digits

    • B.

      Six alphanumeric digits

    • C.

      Eight alpha digits

    • D.

      Eight alphanumeric digits

    Correct Answer
    B. Six alphanumeric digits
    Explanation
    The expense center code consists of six alphanumeric digits, which means it can include both letters and numbers. This allows for a wider range of possible combinations, increasing the number of unique codes that can be generated. Using alphanumeric digits also adds more complexity to the code, making it harder to guess or replicate.

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  • 44. 

    When is an expense center marked for deletion removed from DMLSS?

    • A.

      End-of-day (EOD) only

    • B.

      EOD or end-of-month (EOM)

    • C.

      End-of-Fiscal-Year (EOFY) only

    • D.

      EOM or EOFY

    Correct Answer
    C. End-of-Fiscal-Year (EOFY) only
    Explanation
    An expense center marked for deletion is removed from DMLSS only at the end of the fiscal year (EOFY). This means that the expense center will remain active and visible in DMLSS until the end of the fiscal year, at which point it will be deleted. It is not removed at the end of the day (EOD) or end of the month (EOM), and it is not deleted unless it has been marked for deletion and the fiscal year has ended.

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  • 45. 

    What media and status code does Medical Materiel use to designate and request (full 100%) supply and shipment status from DMLSS to reduce the need for follow-up inquiries?

    • A.

      A

    • B.

      J

    • C.

      K

    • D.

      L

    Correct Answer
    A. A
    Explanation
    Medical Materiel uses Media and Status Code A to designate and request (full 100%) supply and shipment status from DMLSS to reduce the need for follow-up inquiries.

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  • 46. 

    Within how many hours after receipt of a requisition with priority designators 01 through 08 will DSCP dispatch supply status?

    • A.

      6.

    • B.

      12.

    • C.

      24

    • D.

      48.

    Correct Answer
    D. 48.
    Explanation
    DSCP will dispatch supply status within 48 hours after receiving a requisition with priority designators 01 through 08. This indicates that it may take up to 48 hours for DSCP to process and respond to the requisition, providing the necessary supply status information.

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  • 47. 

    The source of supply (SOS) will provide supply status when the

    • A.

      Materiel has been shipped.

    • B.

      Materiel is scheduled for shipment.

    • C.

      Requisition is received but the materiel has not been shipped.

    • D.

      Materiel is scheduled for shipment and has an estimated shipment date

    Correct Answer
    A. Materiel has been shipped.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "materiel has been shipped." This means that the source of supply will provide supply status only after the materiel has been shipped. The other options suggest that the supply status will be provided before the materiel is shipped or when it is scheduled for shipment, but the correct answer specifies that it will be provided after the shipment has taken place.

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  • 48. 

    Within how many days from the date of the requistion is an initial follow-up generated for items iwth priority code 03?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      5.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      15.

    Correct Answer
    B. 5.
    Explanation
    An initial follow-up is generated for items with priority code 03 within 5 days from the date of the requisition.

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  • 49. 

    Within how many days from the date of the requisition is an initial follow-up generated for items with priority code 09 through 15?

    • A.

      3.

    • B.

      5.

    • C.

      10.

    • D.

      15.

    Correct Answer
    C. 10.
    Explanation
    An initial follow-up is generated for items with priority code 09 through 15 within 10 days from the date of the requisition. This means that after the requisition is made, the follow-up will be initiated within a period of 10 days.

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  • 50. 

    What part(s) of the Status Edits contain(s) all status image transactions that DMLSS did not recognize?

    • A.

      Status edits part 1 only

    • B.

      Status edits part 2 only

    • C.

      Status edits part 1 and part 2

    • D.

      Status edits part 2 and part 3

    Correct Answer
    A. Status edits part 1 only
    Explanation
    Status edits part 1 contains all the status image transactions that DMLSS did not recognize. This means that any unrecognized status image transactions are only found in part 1 of the status edits, and not in part 2 or part 3.

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