4a051 Vol 4

98 Questions | Total Attempts: 19

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4a051 Quizzes & Trivia

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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What does PRP stand for?
    • A. 

      Personnel Reliability Program

    • B. 

      Personal Reliability Program

    • C. 

      Personnel Review Program

    • D. 

      Personal Review Program

  • 2. 
    Positions to which individuals are assigned duties on a permanent or full-time basis in direct support of the President of the United States are called
    • A. 

      Category one

    • B. 

      Category two

    • C. 

      Category three

    • D. 

      Presidential administration

  • 3. 
    Who appoints the medical treatment facility (MTF) Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) and Presidential Support Program (PSP) monitor?
    • A. 

      CMA

    • B. 

      PRP monitor

    • C. 

      MTF commander

    • D. 

      Certifying official

  • 4. 
    What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified control?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      J

    • C. 

      K

    • D. 

      R

  • 5. 
    What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a re-evaluate for temporary duty (TDY)?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      J

    • C. 

      K

    • D. 

      R

  • 6. 
    What personnel data system (PDS) status code identifies a certified PRP transfer to non-PRP?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      J

    • C. 

      K

    • D. 

      R

  • 7. 
    A category I discrepancy is classified as
    • A. 

      A rare occurrence

    • B. 

      Mission impacting

    • C. 

      A minor incident

    • D. 

      Non mission impacting

  • 8. 
    What below does not constitute potentially disqualifying information (PDI)?
    • A. 

      Suicide attempt or threat

    • B. 

      Alcohol and /or drug-related incidents

    • C. 

      Use of alcohol in an individual that does not have a diagnosis of alcohol dependence

    • D. 

      Subsequent use of alcohol in an individual returned to duty with the diagnosis of alcohol dependence

  • 9. 
    Once you are done reviewing a record for potentially disqualifying information (PDI), what do you do next?
    • A. 

      Draft the PDI letter

    • B. 

      Sign the AF Form 286

    • C. 

      Give the record to a 4N0X1 for their review

    • D. 

      Give the record to the competent medical authority (CMA) for review

  • 10. 
    Which is not a requirement for a Presidential Support Program (PSP) nomination?
    • A. 

      US citizenship

    • B. 

      Work experience is the legislative system

    • C. 

      Satisfactory, past and present, duty performance

    • D. 

      High degree of maturity, discretion, and trustworthiness

  • 11. 
    As a health service manager (HSM) when should you pass on "old" potentially disqualifying information (PDI)?
    • A. 

      Never

    • B. 

      Only if the commander changes

    • C. 

      Only when recertifying the member for PRP duties

    • D. 

      If the "old" PDI contributes to the "new" and paints a clearer picture

  • 12. 
    Before giving the potentially disqualifying information (PDI) letter to the competent medical authority (CMA), what should you do?
    • A. 

      Sign it

    • B. 

      Make a copy for the record

    • C. 

      Send a "heads-up" copy to the unit

    • D. 

      Have another 4A or 4N perform a quality review

  • 13. 
    If there is potentially disqualifying information (PDI) of a medical nature on the Personnel Reliability Program (PRP) questionnaire, where must this be documented?
    • A. 

      On a PDI letter

    • B. 

      On the AF Form 286

    • C. 

      On the AF Form 286A

    • D. 

      In the medical record

  • 14. 
    What is it called if a member makes a permanent change of assignment (PCA) to another squadron, but the gaining unit does not initiate a new AF Form 286?
    • A. 

      A deficiency

    • B. 

      A recertification

    • C. 

      An elapsed certification

    • D. 

      An erroneous certification

  • 15. 
    You suspend a member from the PRP when reliability is
    • A. 

      Not in question, and the problem is expected to be of a short duration

    • B. 

      Not in question, and the problem is expected to be of a long duration

    • C. 

      In question, and the problem is expected to be of a short duration

    • D. 

      In question, and the problem is expected to be of a long duration

  • 16. 
    Both a notification and a potentially disqualifying information (PDI) letter are required when the patient is
    • A. 

      Prescribed narcotics

    • B. 

      Seen in the general surgery clinic

    • C. 

      Sent home on 48 hours quarters

    • D. 

      Currently suspended and the suspension is extended

  • 17. 
    You temporarily decertify a member from the PRP when reliability is
    • A. 

      Not in question, and the problem is expected to be of a short duration

    • B. 

      Not in question, and the problem is expected to be of a long duration

    • C. 

      In question, and the problem is expected to be of a short duration

    • D. 

      In question, and the problem is expected to be of a long duration

  • 18. 
    Temporary decertification can be extended in 30-day increments to a maximum of 365 days after initially being made for up to
    • A. 

      270 days

    • B. 

      120 days

    • C. 

      90 days

    • D. 

      60 days

  • 19. 
    A recommendation of permanent decertification/disqualification from the PRP is not required when a member
    • A. 

      Has a diagnosis of drug abuser

    • B. 

      Has ever used any drugs that could cause flashbacks

    • C. 

      Is involved in authorized human trafficking

    • D. 

      Is temporarily decertified, but fails to complete aftercare

  • 20. 
    A PRP suspension can initially be made for up to 
    • A. 

      30 days and can be extended in 30 day increments to a maximum of 120 days

    • B. 

      60 days and can be extended in 30 day increments to a maximum of 120 days

    • C. 

      90 days and can be extended in 30 day increments to a maximum of 365 days

    • D. 

      120 days and can be extended in 30 day increments to a maximum of 365 days

  • 21. 
    What is the PRP permanent decertificaion/disqualification documented on
    • A. 

      PDI letter

    • B. 

      AF Form 600

    • C. 

      AF Form 286

    • D. 

      AF Form 286A

  • 22. 
    Who requests an individual to be reinstated or re-qualified from permanent de-certification/disqualification in the PRP?. 
    • A. 

      The CO

    • B. 

      The CMA

    • C. 

      The member

    • D. 

      The MTF commander

  • 23. 
    What does the individual, based on an unjust or unfair practice/procedure, initiate?
    • A. 

      Appeal

    • B. 

      Reactivation

    • C. 

      Requalification

    • D. 

      Reinstatement

  • 24. 
    The official program that summarizes the secretary of defense approved plans and programs for the DOD is called
    • A. 

      Future years defense program

    • B. 

      Operating budget code

    • C. 

      Obligation authority

    • D. 

      Operating budget

  • 25. 
    What funding structure, mandated by the defense health agency, must military treatment facility (MTF) commanders, resource management personnel, and flight commanders review and manage?
    • A. 

      Program elements

    • B. 

      Budget activity groups

    • C. 

      Operating budget authority document

    • D. 

      Element of expense and investment codes

  • 26. 
    Which organizational unit is headed by an officer or supervisor who is responsible for the management of resources in the unit and, in most instances, can significantly influence the expenses incurred by the unit?
    • A. 

      Flight

    • B. 

      Squadron

    • C. 

      Program element

    • D. 

      Responsibility center

  • 27. 
    Who is in the best position to see how funds are being expended in their responsibility center?
    • A. 

      MDG/CC

    • B. 

      Resource advisor

    • C. 

      Cost center management

    • D. 

      Flight commander, resource management office

  • 28. 
    Who is responsible for reviewing backorder lists, evaluating stock supply levels, and inventorying all equipment within their responsibility?
    • A. 

      Resource advisor

    • B. 

      Flight commander

    • C. 

      Cost center Manager

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 29. 
    What must the cost center managers have in order to operate their cost center?
    • A. 

      Certification

    • B. 

      Initial training

    • C. 

      Appointment letter

    • D. 

      In-processed the unit

  • 30. 
    The intent of what form is to provide sufficient information for contracting to issue a contract and for the financial service office (FSO) to set aside funds for the requirement?
    • A. 

      AF Form 9, Request for Purchase

    • B. 

      AF Form 616, Fund Cite Authorization

    • C. 

      DD Form 448, Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request

    • D. 

      AF Form 406, Miscellaneous Obligation/Reimbursement Document

  • 31. 
    What is involved at every echelon in the administration of an appropriation warrant?
    • A. 

      Budget execution

    • B. 

      Open document listing

    • C. 

      Budget execution reports

    • D. 

      Future year defense program

  • 32. 
    What represents orders, contracts or agreements (negotiated), and obligations of funds?
    • A. 

      Accrued expenditures paid

    • B. 

      Accrued expenditures unpaid

    • C. 

      Undeliverable orders outstanding

    • D. 

      Undeliverable orders not outstanding

  • 33. 
    What is the term used when the amount available for obligation is a negative number?
    • A. 

      Allocate funds

    • B. 

      Under allocate funds

    • C. 

      Obligate the government

    • D. 

      Over obligate the government

  • 34. 
    During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for dispersing funds to the MTFs?
    • A. 

      Wing Commander

    • B. 

      Air Force Surgeon General

    • C. 

      Air Force Medical Operations Agency

    • D. 

      Secretary of the Air Force, Financial Management Office

  • 35. 
    Locating and clearing discrepancies between the resource advisor's record and the official accounting records occurs during the training annual review of the 
    • A. 

      Budget working group

    • B. 

      Open document listing

    • C. 

      Operating budget authority

    • D. 

      Future years defense program

  • 36. 
    What does not occur during end of year closeout?
    • A. 

      The RA develops the spend plan

    • B. 

      Notify AFMOA immediately if a surplus or deficit in funds develops

    • C. 

      Monitor TDY travel and assist the ALO in liquidating all travel obligations

    • D. 

      Complete any other closeout instructions or orders given by the financial analysis office

  • 37. 
    Who is responsible for maintaining the necessary patient valuable records and protecting the security of the valuables accepted for safekeeping?
    • A. 

      Custodian for patient valuables

    • B. 

      Inpatient unit administration personnel

    • C. 

      Admissions and dispositions personnel

    • D. 

      Medical service accounts office personnel

  • 38. 
    If you notice that a patient valuables have been lost, who do you have to immediately notify?
    • A. 

      Admissions and dispositions noncommissioned officer in charge

    • B. 

      Medical service accounts office officer in charge

    • C. 

      Military treatment facility commander

    • D. 

      Custodian for patient valuables

  • 39. 
    The objective of the medical affirmative claims program is to assist the 
    • A. 

      Staff judge advocate to prosecute active duty airmen liable for third party injuries

    • B. 

      Staff judge advocate in attempting to recover the cost of providing medical care to individuals whose injury or disease was caused by a third party

    • C. 

      MDG/CC in attempting to recover the cost of providing medical care to individuals whose injury or disease was caused by a third party

    • D. 

      MDG/CC in collecting vital data to determine precisely how our beneficiaries are using medical care

  • 40. 
    Who determines if an injury is actually a medical affirmative claims case?
    • A. 

      MDG/CC

    • B. 

      Attending physician

    • C. 

      Health services manager

    • D. 

      Base legal office or MCRP

  • 41. 
    What form does the medical affirmative claims clerk initiate for patients identified as a medical affirmative claims case by the staff judge advocate?
    • A. 

      None, the base legal office assumes responsibility for the case

    • B. 

      AF Form 1488, Daily Log of Patients Treated for Injuries

    • C. 

      AF 438, Medical Care-Third Party Liability Notification

    • D. 

      DD Form 153, Federal Medical Care Recovery

  • 42. 
    How should entries in the medical record pertaining to medical affirmative claims cases be stamped?
    • A. 

      Sequestered record

    • B. 

      Third party liability case

    • C. 

      Medical affirmative claim

    • D. 

      Sensitive medical information

  • 43. 
    Who is responsible for assessing the DQMC program and developing the annual statement of assurance for health affairs?
    • A. 

      Facility data quality monitor

    • B. 

      MAJCOM data quality monitor

    • C. 

      Air Force Data Quality Monitor

    • D. 

      DHA management control manager

  • 44. 
    The medical expense and performance reporting system (MEPRS) information is routinely channeled to which person or agency?
    • A. 

      Commander in Chief

    • B. 

      Chief of Staff, United States Air Force

    • C. 

      Deputy Chief of Staff, United States Air Force

    • D. 

      Department of Defense, Secretary of Health Affairs

  • 45. 
    Who is primarily responsible for managing medical expense performance reporting system (MEPRS) within the military treatment facility (MTF)?
    • A. 

      Medical group commander

    • B. 

      Medical support squardron commander

    • C. 

      Resources from within the resource management office

    • D. 

      Resources from within the personnel and administration flight

  • 46. 
    What is established to collect operating expenses when two or more work centers share physical space, personnel, and supplies?
    • A. 

      Cost pool

    • B. 

      Sub-account

    • C. 

      Element of expense

    • D. 

      Functional account code

  • 47. 
    On average, what percentage of military treatment facility's budget is allocated for personnel in the form of salaries?
    • A. 

      50-65

    • B. 

      60-75

    • C. 

      70-85

    • D. 

      80-95

  • 48. 
    Timecard approvers must approve or reject timecards NLT close of business the
    • A. 

      Last duty day of the month

    • B. 

      First duty day after timecard period ends

    • C. 

      Fifth duty day after timecard period ends

    • D. 

      Third duty day after timecard period ends

  • 49. 
    What system is responsible for incorporating all of a military treatment facility's captured expense, workload and personnel data into one single report?
    • A. 

      Expense assignment

    • B. 

      Composite health care

    • C. 

      Defense eligibility enrollment registration

    • D. 

      Medical expense and performance reporting

  • 50. 
    What report contains total expenses, performance factor workloads, and cost per performance factor amounts at the FCC code level?
    • A. 

      Personnel detail

    • B. 

      MEPRS detailed

    • C. 

      EAS cost table

    • D. 

      EAS allocation summary

  • 51. 
    What report will give you a detailed picture of the expenses processed through EAS?
    • A. 

      Personnel detail

    • B. 

      MEPRS detailed

    • C. 

      EAS cost table

    • D. 

      EAS allocation summary

  • 52. 
    Once a project has been closed, who does the medical expense performance reporting system (MEPRS) program manager contact if hours need to be changed?
    • A. 

      MEPRS program office

    • B. 

      MAJCOM MEPRS

    • C. 

      Air FOrce MEPRS monitor

    • D. 

      DHA management control manager

  • 53. 
    What part of the unit manpower document four-digit code identifying a particular work center which HQ USAF controls?
    • A. 

      MAJCOM code

    • B. 

      Program element code

    • C. 

      Functional account code

    • D. 

      Organizational structure code

  • 54. 
    What is it called when a request for an increase in the unit manpower document (UMD) authorization must be accompanied by a proposal for equivalent offsetting resource/decrease from elsewhere?
    • A. 

      Zero balance transaction

    • B. 

      Authorization change request

    • C. 

      Organizational change request

    • D. 

      Career progression group

  • 55. 
    What document is a by name personnel roster reflecting authorized positions, position number, Air Force specialty code (AFSC) authorized grade, functional account code (FAC), personnel accounting system (PAS)?
    • A. 

      Unit personnel management roster

    • B. 

      Unit manpower personnel roster

    • C. 

      Unit personnel manning roster

    • D. 

      Unit manpower document

  • 56. 
    What is trained/prepared to accomplish their assigned tasks and duties to augment or to offset dwindling active duty manpower in support of the Total Air Force and national objectives?
    • A. 

      Traditional reservist

    • B. 

      Air Force National Guard

    • C. 

      Oversees contingency operations

    • D. 

      Individual mobilization augmentee

  • 57. 
    What is intended to mitigate the effects on deployment on healthcare access, quality, and scope?
    • A. 

      Traditional reservisst

    • B. 

      Air Force National Guard

    • C. 

      Oversees contingency operations

    • D. 

      Individual mobilization augmentee

  • 58. 
    Through what system are allocation notices generated?
    • A. 

      MilPDS

    • B. 

      PCIII

    • C. 

      MURT

    • D. 

      DTS

  • 59. 
    What is one of the most important aspects of in processing?
    • A. 

      Completing GTC form

    • B. 

      Creating a suspense file

    • C. 

      Deleting from database

    • D. 

      In processing into database

  • 60. 
    What is the first step to take in DMHRSi when in processing a member?
    • A. 

      Add the members profile

    • B. 

      Delete the members profile

    • C. 

      Remove employee from the command

    • D. 

      Verify the source system information with the member

  • 61. 
    What is not an action a PAC worksheet can communicate to the CSS?
    • A. 

      PCA

    • B. 

      CRO

    • C. 

      PCS-in

    • D. 

      Promotion

  • 62. 
    Once the change request has been submitted, what do you check to ensure the change has been made?
    • A. 

      Alpha roster

    • B. 

      Unit manning document

    • C. 

      Expense assignment system

    • D. 

      Medical expense and performance reporting

  • 63. 
    What is defined as termination of active duty status and transfer or reversion to a reserve component not on active duty, including transfer to the individual ready reserve (IRR)?
    • A. 

      Discharge

    • B. 

      Release from active duty

    • C. 

      Military service obligation

    • D. 

      Expiration term of service (ETS)

  • 64. 
    What is not necessarily a consideration for a hardship voluntary separation?
    • A. 

      The family is separated

    • B. 

      Separation will eliminate the hardship

    • C. 

      The dependency or hardship is not temporary

    • D. 

      The airman has made every reasonable effort to remedy the situation

  • 65. 
    When is involuntary discharge not mandatory?
    • A. 

      Drug abuse

    • B. 

      Alcohol abuse

    • C. 

      Civil Court conviction

    • D. 

      Fraudulent enlistment

  • 66. 
    What is emergency leave?
    • A. 

      Chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the member's presence

    • B. 

      Non-chargeable leave that is granted within the limits of accrued, advance, or excess leave for a personal or family emergency that requires the members to be present

    • C. 

      Chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment

    • D. 

      Non-chargeable leave that is granted to members who are under medical care as part of their prescribed treatment

  • 67. 
    How many permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members?
    • A. 

      20 days CONUS / 30 days OCONUS

    • B. 

      30 days CONUS / 20 days OCONUS

    • C. 

      30 days CONUS / 30 days OCONUS

    • D. 

      20 days CONUS / 45 days OCONUS

  • 68. 
    What order is issued by a competent authority for reimbursement of expenses incident to official travel?
    • A. 

      Travel

    • B. 

      Written

    • C. 

      Accounting

    • D. 

      Permissive

  • 69. 
    The sponsoring unit can authorize lodging allowance up to what percent of the local lodging per diem rate for conferences?
    • A. 

      110

    • B. 

      115

    • C. 

      120

    • D. 

      125

  • 70. 
    What is awarded only to numbered organizations that perform meritorious service or outstanding achievements that clearly set the unit above and apart from similar units?
    • A. 

      Air Force Outstanding Unit Award (AFOUA)

    • B. 

      Air Force Organizational Excellence Award (ADOEA)

    • C. 

      Joint Meritorious Unit Award (JMUA)

    • D. 

      MAJCOM Award

  • 71. 
    What is not a more common Air Force achievement awards?
    • A. 

      Air Force Longevity Service Award (AFLSA)

    • B. 

      Air Force Overseas Ribbon (AFOR)

    • C. 

      Air Force Training Ribbon (AFTR)

    • D. 

      Service Award

  • 72. 
    Who may initiate a recommendation for a decoration?
    • A. 

      Supervisor

    • B. 

      Anyone, other than the person being recommended

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      First Sergeant

  • 73. 
    When an airman will not be allowed to assume the next higher grade, the commander's written notice must include the reasons for the non-recommendation, inclusive dates of the non-recommendation action, and
    • A. 

      The Airman's acknowledgement

    • B. 

      The promotion eligibility status code

    • C. 

      The Airman's time in grade and time in service

    • D. 

      A statement indicating that the status is withheld

  • 74. 
    In the WAPS, what two weighted factors account for 44 percent of the total point value?
    • A. 

      PDG and EPRs

    • B. 

      SKT and PDG

    • C. 

      PDG and time in grade

    • D. 

      SKT and decorations

  • 75. 
    In the weighted airman promotion system (WAPS), time in grade (TIG) is computed at the rate of
    • A. 

      One-fourth point per month in grade up to 10 years

    • B. 

      One-fourth point per month in grade up to 20 years

    • C. 

      One-half point per month in grade up to 10 years

    • D. 

      One-half pint per month in grade up to 20 years

  • 76. 
    What is the enlisted performance reports (EPR) conversion factor?
    • A. 

      27

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      9

  • 77. 
    A TSgt is eligible for promotion to MSgt after becoming a 7 level,
    • A. 

      23 months TIG and 7 years TAFMS

    • B. 

      23 months TIG and 8 years TAFMS

    • C. 

      24 months TIG and 7 years TAFMS

    • D. 

      24 months TIG and 8 years TAFMS

  • 78. 
    Under the stripes for exceptional performers program (STEP), no airman may be promoted more than once during any 12-month period under any combination of promotion programs except
    • A. 

      SRAs

    • B. 

      SSgts

    • C. 

      TSgts

    • D. 

      MSgts

  • 79. 
    Monthly increment products are produced automatically upon receipt of the monthly promotion increment transactions that flow from Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) before the promotion effective date and on or about what day of the month?
    • A. 

      1st

    • B. 

      5th

    • C. 

      10th

    • D. 

      15th

  • 80. 
    What the P&A staff not able to do in BLSDM?
    • A. 

      Request an individual report

    • B. 

      Request change of status

    • C. 

      Report duty status change

    • D. 

      Change of rater

  • 81. 
    What is used for entering, tracking, resolving and reporting on pay and personnel related cases?
    • A. 

      Case Management System

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Data System

    • C. 

      Base-Level Service Delivery Model

    • D. 

      Defense Medical Human Resources System - Internet

  • 82. 
    You change members' duty status to "absent without leave - AWOL" when they have an unauthorized absence of more than
    • A. 

      24 hours, but less than 15 days

    • B. 

      24 hours, but less than 30 days

    • C. 

      48 hours, but less than 15 days

    • D. 

      48 hours, but less than 30 days

  • 83. 
    You may change members' duty status to "deserter" if they are absent for less than 30 days and
    • A. 

      Are in civil confinement

    • B. 

      Are known to have purchased airline tickets

    • C. 

      Have received counseling for personal problems

    • D. 

      Have action pending on a previous unauthorized absence

  • 84. 
    An enlisted performance report (EPR) will have at least how many evaluators
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2, unless the rater qualifies as a single evaluator

    • D. 

      3, unless the rater qualifies as a single evaluator

  • 85. 
    Who is the evaluation forwarded to upon completion?
    • A. 

      AFPC or ARPC

    • B. 

      AETC

    • C. 

      HQ USAF

    • D. 

      Members command

  • 86. 
    In which situation would a letter of evaluation (LEO) not be mandatory?
    • A. 

      Officers when required by AFI 36-3208

    • B. 

      Enlisted members participating in the WACP

    • C. 

      Active duty AICs and below with less than 20 months TAFMS when CRO occurs due to PCS/PCA of the rater or rate or separation of the rater

    • D. 

      A1C with 5 months TAFMS

  • 87. 
    What below is not one of the tree substantiating document used in conjunction with the BAS program
    • A. 

      AF Form 220

    • B. 

      DD Form 114

    • C. 

      DD Form 714

    • D. 

      DD Form 1475

  • 88. 
    What is an example of a nondirective publication?
    • A. 

      Policy memorandums

    • B. 

      Mission directives

    • C. 

      Instructions

    • D. 

      Handbooks

  • 89. 
    A MAJCOM or FOA issues what type of forms for use within the organization and subordinate organizations?
    • A. 

      Field

    • B. 

      Departmental

    • C. 

      Non-prescribed

    • D. 

      Headquarters and unit

  • 90. 
    This is a form used Air Force-wide or by more than one MAJCOM, FOA, DRU, base or wing
    • A. 

      Field

    • B. 

      Departmental

    • C. 

      Non-prescribed

    • D. 

      Headquarters and unit

  • 91. 
    What is the second step if you have identified suspicious mail?
    • A. 

      Isolate the article and evacuate the immediate area

    • B. 

      Put the article in an enclosed area (desk drawer) and evacuate the area

    • C. 

      Place the package in the trash bag, seal the bag, and put it in the dumpster

    • D. 

      Open the item to make sure it is something significant, before calling security forces

  • 92. 
    What is the best choice for ensuring that accountable containers remain in a controlled environment?
    • A. 

      Certified mail

    • B. 

      Registered mail

    • C. 

      Image confirmation

    • D. 

      Certificate of mailing

  • 93. 
    Personnel information file (PIF) contents are available to everyone except 
    • A. 

      Office of special investigation

    • B. 

      Area defense council

    • C. 

      First Sergeant

    • D. 

      Commander

  • 94. 
    Who appoints the trusted agents for issuing and ensuring member notification to provide a urine sample?
    • A. 

      First Sergeant

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Drug demand reduction manager

    • D. 

      Staff Judge Advocate

  • 95. 
    Individuals who have been designated the authority to order, receive and sign for equipment materiel in writing by the medical group commander are
    • A. 

      Supply representatives

    • B. 

      Property custodians

    • C. 

      Accountable officers

    • D. 

      Logistics liaisons

  • 96. 
    The statutory obligation of an individual to reimburse the government for loss, damage, or destruction of government property arising from his or her negligence is the definition of 
    • A. 

      Pecuniary liability

    • B. 

      Monetary liability

    • C. 

      Financial liability

    • D. 

      Fiscal liability

  • 97. 
    The end item of medical equipment that has a unit cost of between $3,300 and $250,000, a life expectancy of at least 5 years, and maintains its identity during use is classified as 
    • A. 

      A maintenance significant supply item

    • B. 

      Medical investment equipment

    • C. 

      Medical expense equipment

    • D. 

      A medical supply item

  • 98. 
    Which statement best defines prime vendors?
    • A. 

      Civilian companies contracted by Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) that usually deliver supplies withing 24 hours

    • B. 

      Civilian companies that accept the International Merchant Purchase Authorization Card

    • C. 

      Civilian companies with which the government has a blanket purchase agreement

    • D. 

      Civilian companies that use the 13-digit national stock number (NSN)