4a051 CDC Pratice Exam Vol. 1 - 5

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4a051 Quizzes & Trivia

pratice exam for Air Force health services manager 5 level 


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    TRICARE Online allows authorized users to do all of the following except: 
    • A. 

      Schedule appointments

    • B. 

      View appointments

    • C. 

      Check medications

    • D. 

      Access medical record information

  • 2. 
    Which system supports the admissions and dispositions functions in the medical treatment facility? 
    • A. 

      DMRIS

    • B. 

      DEERS

    • C. 

      CHCS

    • D. 

      MEDNET

  • 3. 
    Which devices are considered auxiliary storage devices? 
    • A. 

      Magnetic tape, operating system, and hard disk

    • B. 

      Operating system, floppy disk, and hard disk

    • C. 

      Floppy disk, hard disk, usb, and magnetic tape

    • D. 

      Hard disk, monitor, floppy disk

  • 4. 
    Hard disk devices 
    • A. 

      Are used primarily as semi permanent storage devices

    • B. 

      Have smaller storage capacity than floppy disks

    • C. 

      Are standard in most microcomputers

    • D. 

      Offer short term storage capability

  • 5. 
    A program or set of programs that manages and directs a computer system is called  
    • A. 

      An oeprating instruction

    • B. 

      A system instruction

    • C. 

      A system application

    • D. 

      An operating system

  • 6. 
    Random access memory RAM is 
    • A. 

      The temporary eletrical storage space that holds program instructions

    • B. 

      The permanent electrical storage space that holds program instructions

    • C. 

      Memory whose content remains intact when the computer loses power

    • D. 

      Memory whose content are saved automatically to the hard disk drive

  • 7. 
    TRICARE Online allows authorized users to do all of the following except: 
    • A. 

      Schedule appointments

    • B. 

      View appointments

    • C. 

      Check medications

    • D. 

      Access medical record information

  • 8. 
    What process realigns the separated files and moves them into a more defined structure increasing data access rate and performance of the system? 
    • A. 

      Network back up

    • B. 

      Defragment

    • C. 

      File back up

    • D. 

      Disk space clean up

  • 9. 
    What device is used to junction between local area networks (LAN) and wide area networks (WAN)? 
    • A. 

      Wireless access point (WAP)

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Server

    • D. 

      Switch

  • 10. 
    Who is accountable for equipment assisgned to their organization? 
    • A. 

      Equipment control officer (ECO)

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      Equipment custodian (EC)

    • D. 

      Supervisors

  • 11. 
     A physical inventory of all equipment is conducted
    • A. 

      Quarterly

    • B. 

      Bi-annually

    • C. 

      Annually

    • D. 

      Monthly

  • 12. 
     Where do you place the automated data processing equipment (ADPE) identification label?
    • A. 

      Front or top of the equipment

    • B. 

      Back panel of the equipment

    • C. 

      Left side of the equipment

    • D. 

      Right side of the equipment

  • 13. 
     What computer secuirty (COMPUSEC) objective is reached when there is no unexpected downtime due to a virus or sabotage?
    • A. 

      Confidentiality

    • B. 

      Availability

    • C. 

      Integrity

    • D. 

      Safety

  • 14. 
     What computer security (COMPUSEC) objective is attained when access to sensitive information is allowed only to those with the proper clearance, authroization, and need to know?
    • A. 

      Confidentiality

    • B. 

      Availability

    • C. 

      Integrity

    • D. 

      Safety

  • 15. 
    who is responsible for ensuring computer users are trained in computer security (COMPUSEC) awareness and local operating instructions? 
    • A. 

      Information systems security officer (ISSO)

    • B. 

      Computer systems security officer

    • C. 

      Training NCO

  • 16. 
     When writing, which way would be the simplest way for making a personal contact?
    • A. 

      Big words and long sentences

    • B. 

      Familiar, everyday words

    • C. 

      Lots of jarjon and slang

    • D. 

      Fancy sentences

  • 17. 
     The body of your correspondence explains and clarifies your
    • A. 

      Introduction

    • B. 

      Conclusion

    • C. 

      Purpose

    • D. 

      Logic

  • 18. 
     What is the most common format used in Air Force correspondence?
    • A. 

      Official memorandum

    • B. 

      Staff summary sheet

    • C. 

      Personal letter

    • D. 

      Talking paper

  • 19. 
    The best way to manage correspondence involves sorting, routing, and  
    • A. 

      Controlling suspense's

    • B. 

      Monitoring all mail

    • C. 

      Using flowcharts

    • D. 

      Keeping logs

  • 20. 
    An emergency involving military forces caused by natural disaster, terrorists, subversives, or by required military operations is called 
    • A. 

      Mobilization

    • B. 

      Contingency

    • C. 

      Deployment

    • D. 

      Exercise

  • 21. 
    What is the relocation of forces to desired area of operation called? 
    • A. 

      Mobilization

    • B. 

      Contingency

    • C. 

      Deployment

    • D. 

      Employment

  • 22. 
     What is aquality or capability of military forces to move from place to place while retaining the ability to fulfill their primary mission called?
    • A. 

      deployment

    • B. 

      Simulation

    • C. 

      Exercise

    • D. 

      Mobility

  • 23. 
    According to the Department of defense (DoD) a unit type code (UTC) is developed and assigned by the 
    • A. 

      Joint Chief of Staff (JCS)

    • B. 

      Chief of staff, United States Air Force (CASF)

    • C. 

      Major Command (MAJCOMM)

    • D. 

      Wing Commander

  • 24. 
    Substitution shall NOT exceed what percent of any Air Force Specialty code (AFSC) requirement in a single unit type code (UTC) or set of UTC's that collectively makes up an operational platform? 
    • A. 

      10 percent

    • B. 

      25 percent

    • C. 

      40 percent

    • D. 

      50 percent

  • 25. 
    Into which triage category and color would you place a patient with injuries requiring inordinate medical treatment to the detriment or neglect of other patients? 
    • A. 

      Delayed yellow

    • B. 

      Minimal green

    • C. 

      Immediate red

    • D. 

      Expectant blue

  • 26. 
    Which laws take precedence over other directives pertaining to access and release of medical information? 
    • A. 

      Drug and alcohol

    • B. 

      Adoptions and abortions

    • C. 

      Sexual assault and abuse

    • D. 

      Child molestation and endangerment

  • 27. 
     Information that may affect a patient's morale, character, medical progress, or mental health is considered
    • A. 

      Non releasable

    • B. 

      Classified

    • C. 

      Sensitive

    • D. 

      Secret

  • 28. 
     If a physician determines that a direct disclosure of medical information to the patient could have an adverse effect on the physical or mental health or safety and welfare of the individual,
    • A. 

      Only release the information to the staff judge advocate (SJA)

    • B. 

      Release a copy of the record to the next of kin (NOK)

    • C. 

      Send the record to the military treatment facility (MTF) commander or designee

    • D. 

      Only release the information to a physician named by the patient or to a person qualified to make psychiatric or mental determinations

  • 29. 
     Which kind of information CANNOT be relaesed without a patient's informed consent?
    • A. 

      Present medical assessment of condition

    • B. 

      General extent of the injury or disease

    • C. 

      Name and rank of individual

    • D. 

      Component occupation

  • 30. 
     What establishes your identity to CHCS and authenticates your use of the system?
    • A. 

      User record

    • B. 

      Access code

    • C. 

      Access and verify codes

    • D. 

      Access and verify code in conjunction with the user record

  • 31. 
     To avoid confusion and duplication, what action should be taken prior to registering a new patient in the CHCS?
    • A. 

      Accomplish a "patient lookup"

    • B. 

      Access online users manual be entering ?OLUM

    • C. 

      Create medical record using post registration options

    • D. 

      Compare patient documentation with DEERS RIP from MPF

  • 32. 
    The validity of registration data entered into the CHCS is critical because 
    • A. 

      Without correct registration data, the military treatment facility MTF will not know which records to inventory

    • B. 

      The MTF budget is based on information derived through the CHCS

    • C. 

      The MTF bills patients from data entered into the CHCS

    • D. 

      It is used by every CHCS user wthin THE MTF

  • 33. 
    A personal link exists between the CHCS and the DEERS to accomplish what task? 
    • A. 

      Verify the patient's eligibility for care

    • B. 

      Ensure the patient's CHCS data is comparable to his or her DEERS data

    • C. 

      Provide a tool for commander's to keep abreast of unit's manning strength

    • D. 

      Provide interface for military personal flight (MPF) to update active duty information

  • 34. 
     What information can be obtained using the CHCS patientrecord inquiry option?
    • A. 

      Verify patient eligibilty for care

    • B. 

      History of the record's movement

    • C. 

      Patient inquire into ancillary services

    • D. 

      Provide record of patient appointments

  • 35. 
    In CHCS what does  the schedule HOLD Duration parameter (located in the clinic profile) accomplish? 
    • A. 

      Defines how much time will elapse before the system automatically freezes slots

    • B. 

      Defines how much time will elapse before the system automatically releases frozen slots

    • C. 

      Defines how much time elapse before the appointment technician can manually freeze slots

    • D. 

      Defines how much time will elapse before the appointmen ttechnician can manually release frozen slots

  • 36. 
    If a divorced sponsor remarries, the new spouse's family member prefix (FMP) will be  
    • A. 

      20

    • B. 

      21

    • C. 

      30

    • D. 

      31

  • 37. 
     Which number is blocked on the right hand side of the Air Force form 2100A series health record for a sponsor whose social security number 987-65-4321?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 38. 
     When are new outpatient record jackets prepared for patients with existing outpatient records?
    • A. 

      When an Army patient's records are maintained in an Air Force military treatment facility MTF

    • B. 

      When the patient is removed from the personnel reliability program (PRP)

    • C. 

      When there are no more years left on the table of years

    • D. 

      When the folder no longer protects the contents

  • 39. 
    Where would miscellaneous forms (forms that are not specifically designated to be filed elsewhere) is placed within an AF Form 2100A, Health Record-Outpatient? 
    • A. 

      Section 1

    • B. 

      Section 2

    • C. 

      Section 3

    • D. 

      Section 4

  • 40. 
     How often is active duty records inventoried?
    • A. 

      Never, if the facility has CHCS

    • B. 

      At least semiannually

    • C. 

      Whenever necessary

    • D. 

      At least once a year

  • 41. 
    What reference provides step-by -step instructions for completing records retirement?
    • A. 

      MRTR2 guide

    • B. 

      Records retirement list

    • C. 

      AF137-138, Records Disposition Policies and Procedures

    • D. 

      AFMAN 37-139, Records Disposition schedule

  • 42. 
     What type of team are sctive duty members and their beneficiaries assigned to after the mass medical inprocessing briefing?
    • A. 

      TRICARE team

    • B. 

      Alternative care team

    • C. 

      Health care optimization team

    • D. 

      Primary care optimization team

  • 43. 
     When you in process a medical record and then generate a computer charge-out, to whom do you deliver the records?
    • A. 

      Acute care manager

    • B. 

      Health Care manager

    • C. 

      Primary care manager

    • D. 

      Family practice manager

  • 44. 
     If for some reason the sponsor's  medical record is NOT present at the time of out-processing, give the individual a
    • A. 

      Letter of non-availability

    • B. 

      Letter of justification

    • C. 

      Letter of reason

    • D. 

      Waiver letter

  • 45. 
    When an active duty sponsor is retiring and they have a dependent over the age 18, who must fill out the DD form 2138, request for transfer of outpatient record, for the dependent? 
    • A. 

      The sponsor

    • B. 

      The dependent

    • C. 

      The gaining unit

    • D. 

      The primary care manager

  • 46. 
    For which of the following would you not create an inpatient record? 
    • A. 

      Active duty personal admitted to a non-federal hospital

    • B. 

      Patients admitted and dispositional on the same day

    • C. 

      Patients admitted to a tactical facility

    • D. 

      Stillbirths

  • 47. 
     An inpatient record of an Air Force Staff sergeant admitted on 28 Dec 98 and disposition on 4 Jan 99 (no other inpatient episodes) at a facility with an inpatient records library is
    • A. 

      Eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2001

    • B. 

      Eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2003

    • C. 

      Eligible for retirement 31 Dec 2004

    • D. 

      Never retired as long as the paitent remains on active duty

  • 48. 
     Before a patient without proper identification or verification of Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS) eligibility is provied care in military treatment facility (MTF), they must first sign a statement agreeing to provide proof of eligibility within 
    • A. 

      15 days

    • B. 

      20 days

    • C. 

      25 days

    • D. 

      30 days

  • 49. 
     Who will establish local procedures for management of the quarter's program?
    • A. 

      MTF

    • B. 

      MAJCOM

    • C. 

      SG

    • D. 

      Base Commander

  • 50. 
    In most military treatment facilities MTF the majority of requests for secretary of the Air Force (SAF) designee status come from 
    • A. 

      Teaching cases required to help the Air Force residency programs

    • B. 

      Cases designated to be in the best intrest of the Air Force to help avoid possible litigation

    • C. 

      Former Air Force females discharged under other than honorable conditions who were pregnant at the time of discharge

    • D. 

      Former Air Force females discharged under honorable conditions who were pregnant former active duty

  • 51. 
     The manage access to care  (ATC) tools are available in the CHCS and are also located on the web at the web at the
    • A. 

      TRICARE access center

    • B. 

      Managed care tools center

    • C. 

      Managed care tools access center

    • D. 

      TRICARE operations center

  • 52. 
     What schedule in the CHCS makes it simple for you to add, delete, cancel, freeze, and release schedule time slots for specific days within any provider's schedule?
    • A. 

      Interactive

    • B. 

      Automatic list

    • C. 

      Freeze/release

    • D. 

      Maintain/cancel

  • 53. 
     Which CHCS option allows you to cancel all or part of an existing schedule at the request of the provider or another agency at the medical treatment facility?
    • A. 

      Closed appointments

    • B. 

      Cancelled by provider

    • C. 

      Cancellation by facility

    • D. 

      Maintain/cancel appointments

  • 54. 
     What includes all units, organizations, and members of the Air Force National Guard (ANG) and the Air Force Reserves (AFR)?
    • A. 

      Air and guard total force component

    • B. 

      Air national reserve component

    • C. 

      Air Force alternative component

    • D. 

      Air Reserve Component

  • 55. 
     The former civilian health and medical program of the Uniformed services (CHAMPUS) option that pays a share of the cost of covered healthcare services you obtain from an authorized nonnetwork, civilian healthcare provider is
    • A. 

      TRICARE Exclusive

    • B. 

      TRICARE Standard

    • C. 

      TRICARE Prime

    • D. 

      TRICARE Extra

  • 56. 
     Pregnant females discharged under other than honorable conditions that must be authorized by a general court-martial authority to apply to the medical group commander for obstetrical care, fall within what program?
    • A. 

      Secretary of the Air Force maternity

    • B. 

      Secretary of the Air Force designee

    • C. 

      Department of defense designee

    • D. 

      Air Force maternity discharge

  • 57. 
     Active duty service members' family members NOT enrolled in TRICARE prime belong in priority group
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 58. 
    When creating a personal master schedule the appointment personnel must coordinate with the 
    • A. 

      Nurse

    • B. 

      Provider

    • C. 

      Medical technician

    • D. 

      Health services manager

  • 59. 
     To be cognizant of the information you are inputting into the system, you must remember what?
    • A. 

      Accuracy and effectiveness ensure the report is good

    • B. 

      Quality and effectiveness ensure the report is good

    • C. 

      Timeliness and accuracy make the report better

    • D. 

      Completion and quality make the report better

  • 60. 
    When you print reports by using the appropriate option, and enter the necessary report, and print parameters what will happen next? 
    • A. 

      Batch reports will print

    • B. 

      Count reports will print

    • C. 

      Summary reports will print

    • D. 

      On demand reports will print

  • 61. 
    For preventive health assessment (PHA) reasons how often are members' records reviewed to ensure all requirements and recommendations have been addressed? 
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Semi-annually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 62. 
     Medical treatment facilities (MTF) use what two data systems to identify and describe their enrolled population by age, and beneficiary category, and to assess their healthcare needs?
    • A. 

      Department of defense (DoD) and Air Force Medical Servics (AFMS)

    • B. 

      DoD and Air Force Medical Support Agency

    • C. 

      Major Command (MAJCOMM) and AFMS

    • D. 

      MTF and AFMS

  • 63. 
     what non-electronic folder form documenting immunizations is used by all active duty reserve and Air National Guard (ANG) personnel?
    • A. 

      DD Form 2766 Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flow sheet

    • B. 

      Standard Form 600 Medical Record Report of Medical History

    • C. 

      Air Force Form 3922 Adult preventive care flow sheet

    • D. 

      AF Form 560 Authorization and Treatment statement

  • 64. 
     At least how often must medical treatment facilities (MTF) assess centrally and locally produced performance measures for effectiveness and efficiency?
    • A. 

      Weekly

    • B. 

      Quarterly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 65. 
    If an individual is enrolled in a healthcare plan, who is responsible for reimbursing covered individuals for the cost of their healthcare? 
    • A. 

      Managed care organizations

    • B. 

      Health care insurance companies

    • C. 

      Health maintenance organizations

    • D. 

      TRICARE Extra Supplement health insurance

  • 66. 
    If a patient has routine medical needs, who would be the patient's principal provider? 
    • A. 

      Health benefits advisor

    • B. 

      Primary care manager

    • C. 

      Health care finder

    • D. 

      Lead agent

  • 67. 
     What was formerly known as the public health services hospitals, and now operates much like TRICARE prime?
    • A. 

      Uniformed services family health plan

    • B. 

      TRICARE public health program

    • C. 

      TRICARE management activity

    • D. 

      Uniform schools of health care

  • 68. 
     What is the main challenge for most eligible beneficiaries?
    • A. 

      Deciding what TRICARE option is best for their particular situation

    • B. 

      Determining what each of the TRICARE options offers

    • C. 

      Determining where the closest MTF is located

    • D. 

      Deciding who to choose as their PCM

  • 69. 
    The benefits of TRICARE cannot be fully realized without timely information regarding access, utilization and
    • A. 

      Costs

    • B. 

      Enrollement

    • C. 

      Provider availability

    • D. 

      Population health statistics

  • 70. 
    Currently TRICARE Standard pays what percentage of the approved or allowable cost for outpatient care, for active duty families, after the annual deductible is paid? 
    • A. 

      25

    • B. 

      65

    • C. 

      80

    • D. 

      100

  • 71. 
     The TRICARE regional office (TRO) operates under the authority, direction and control of the
    • A. 

      MTF commander

    • B. 

      Regional director

    • C. 

      TMA deputy director

    • D. 

      AF surgeon general

  • 72. 
    What does the TRICARE regional office (TRO) use as the baseline to build additional network needs, develop referral policy and measures access standards? 
    • A. 

      Inpatient medical capability

    • B. 

      Catchment demographics

    • C. 

      Civilian capabilities

    • D. 

      Primary care system

  • 73. 
     Non availability statements (NAS) are processed through the
    • A. 

      CHCS

    • B. 

      Defense eligibility enrollement reporting system (DEERS)

    • C. 

      Medical expense performance reporting system (MEPRS)

    • D. 

      TRANSCOM regualting and command & control evaluation system

  • 74. 
    There is no co-payment or deductible for beneficiaries referred for civilian medical care 
    • A. 

      When care is authorized by the HCF

    • B. 

      When referred by the PCM

    • C. 

      While in an outpatient status in the MTF

    • D. 

      While in an inpatient status in the MTF

  • 75. 
    TRICARE presentations are most effective when done jointly by a knowledgeable uniformed representative and a 
    • A. 

      MCSC marketing representative office

    • B. 

      TRICARE support office NCOIC

    • C. 

      TRICARE support

    • D. 

      MDG/CC

  • 76. 
    Which term is defined as a funding document that represents cash and authorizes commands to commit funds? 
    • A. 

      A bogey

    • B. 

      An allotment

    • C. 

      An allocation

    • D. 

      An annual budget authorization

  • 77. 
    Which term represents intent to purchase that will eventually become legal obligation? 
    • A. 

      Call for estimates

    • B. 

      Citation of funds

    • C. 

      Commitment

    • D. 

      Allotment

  • 78. 
     Which statement BEST defines the operating budget account number (OBAN)?
    • A. 

      Code that identifies types of funds made available to the Air Force by Congress

    • B. 

      Code that has been authorized and assisgned by the Director of Budget

    • C. 

      Code identifying fund accounts to which military funds are authorized

    • D. 

      Code representing personnel equipment and facilities

  • 79. 
    What funding structure, mandated by the TRICARE management Activity (TMA), must military treatment facility (MTF) commanders, resource management personnel and flight commanders review and manage? 
    • A. 

      Program elements

    • B. 

      Budget activity groups

    • C. 

      Operating budget authority document

    • D. 

      Element of expense and investment codes

  • 80. 
    Upon what stucture is the Air Force Resource Management System (RMS) based? 
    • A. 

      Medical expense and perfroamnce reporting system/expense assignment system

    • B. 

      Department of defense planning, programming, budgeting, and execution system

    • C. 

      Operating budget authority document

    • D. 

      Future years defense program

  • 81. 
     Who is responsible for reviewing backorder lists, evaluating stock supply levels and inventorying all equipment within their responsibility?
    • A. 

      Resource advisor

    • B. 

      Flight commander

    • C. 

      Cost center manager

    • D. 

      Squadron commander

  • 82. 
    What time frame constitues the first quarter of a fiscal year? 
    • A. 

      1 Jan thru 31 March

    • B. 

      1 Jan thru 30 March

    • C. 

      1 Oct thru 30 Dec

    • D. 

      1 Oct thru 31 Dec

  • 83. 
    During the initial distribution phase of the budget process, who is responsible for dispersing funds to the military treatment facility? 
    • A. 

      MAJCOM

    • B. 

      Wing commander

    • C. 

      Air Force surgeon general

    • D. 

      Secretary of the Air Force, Financial Management Office

  • 84. 
     Which document's PRIMARY purpose is to explain to higher levels how much money will be needed to carry out the military treatment facility objectives an dhow the funds will be used?
    • A. 

      Financial Plan

    • B. 

      Open document listing

    • C. 

      Operating financial ledger

    • D. 

      Operating financial document

  • 85. 
     Which document is often referred to as the financial blueprint for an organization for a specific period of time and reflects an organization's funded and unfounded requirements?
    • A. 

      Financial plan

    • B. 

      Open document listing

    • C. 

      Operating financial ledger

    • D. 

      Operating financial document

  • 86. 
    Which document provides the basis for all decisions regarding the management of dollar resources? 
    • A. 

      Spend plan

    • B. 

      Open documenting listing

    • C. 

      Operating budget code

    • D. 

      Operating budget authority document

  • 87. 
    How many times during the fiscal year (FY) must the tri annual review of the Open document listing (ODL) take place? 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 88. 
     Under the patient's valuables guidelines, which item must not be accpeted for storing and safekeeping?
    • A. 

      Cigarette lighters

    • B. 

      All knives & firearms

    • C. 

      Jewerly with a value above $10,000

    • D. 

      Knives with blades above the length permitted by law

  • 89. 
    Who is responsible for reporting the loss of patient valuables to the Medical Group Commander (MDG/CC)?
    • A. 

      Medical service accounts office personnel

    • B. 

      Admissions and dispositions personnel

    • C. 

      Any individual who discovers the loss

    • D. 

      Custodian for patient valuables

  • 90. 
    Which form supports the entries made on AF form 1086, cash and sales journal? 
    • A. 

      SF 1080, Voucher for transfers between appropriations and or fund

    • B. 

      AF Form 1339 dining hall signature record

    • C. 

      DD form 139 pay adjustment authorization

    • D. 

      AF form 542 subsistence stock record

  • 91. 
     Where can you find information regarding entitlements appropriation rates, and mode and site collection for all patient categories?
    • A. 

      Expense assignment system

    • B. 

      Third party outpatient collection system

    • C. 

      Patient billing category standardization table

    • D. 

      Medical expense and performance reporting system

  • 92. 
     The active accounts receivable file should be broken down into inpatients discharged, outpatients from whom full payment has not been received and accounts
    • A. 

      Reported delinquent

    • B. 

      From foreign militaries

    • C. 

      From civilian pay patients

    • D. 

      From whom all payments have been satisfied

  • 93. 
    The purpose of the standard form (SF) 1081, voucher and schedule of withdrawals and credits, is to bill 
    • A. 

      Civilian agencies

    • B. 

      Governmental agencies other than military

    • C. 

      Civilians for emergency care rendered in a US MTF

    • D. 

      Reserve and national guard forces

  • 94. 
    When must medical service account (MSA) funds be transferred to the defense accounting office (DAO)? 
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      When the amount on hand at the end of a business day exceeds the amount approved for the container

    • D. 

      When the amount on hand exceeds the amount specified as deemed appropriate by MDG office instructions

  • 95. 
    Who assigns a voucher number series of consecutive numbers by fiscal year to the DD form 1131, cash collection voucher? 
    • A. 

      The MDG/CC

    • B. 

      The MSA officer

    • C. 

      The defense accounting office

    • D. 

      The flight commander, resource management office

  • 96. 
    A prescribed quantity of food, as defined by components and monetary value, required to provide a nutritionally adequate diet for one person for one day explains the  
    • A. 

      Basic daily food allowance

    • B. 

      Subsistence in kind

    • C. 

      MTF basic daily food allowance

    • D. 

      Patient basic daily food allowance

  • 97. 
    Which form does the medical service accounts (MSA) office use to maintain perpetual inventory records of subsistence purchased, stored, and consumed by the nutritional medicine flight (NMF) activities? 
    • A. 

      AF form 542, subsistence stock record

    • B. 

      AF form 544, ration earnings record

    • C. 

      AF form 287, subsistence request

    • D. 

      AF form 543, food issue record

  • 98. 
    Which report provides specific daily information on categories of patrons served for each meal, total meals, weighted meal days; cash, other income collected, and earned income? 
    • A. 

      Daily facility summary report

    • B. 

      Monthly/quarterly facility summary report

    • C. 

      Nutritional medicine daily facility summary report

    • D. 

      Nutritional medicine service subsistence cost report

  • 99. 
    Which form provides operating data for nutritional medicine flight (NMF) managers to control expenditures for subsistence in their activities? 
    • A. 

      AF Form 542, subsistence stock record

    • B. 

      AF form 544, ration earnings record

    • C. 

      AF form 546, food cost record

    • D. 

      AF form 543, food issue record

  • 100. 
    What form should be initated by the medical affirmative claims manager for patients identified as a medical affirmative claims case by the staff judge advocate? 
    • A. 

      None. The base legal office assumes responsibility for the case

    • B. 

      AF form 1488, daily log of patients treated for injuries

    • C. 

      AF form 348, medical care third party liability notification

    • D. 

      AF form 153, federal medical care recovery

  • 101. 
     Why is it necessary to ensure all personnel are educated and able to use the virtual Military Personnel Flight (vamp) tools?
    • A. 

      Our force is decreasing

    • B. 

      Personnel can commit more time to work

    • C. 

      Personnel information should just be viewed by each member

    • D. 

      Routine personnel actions are not important enough for face to face interaction

  • 102. 
     What is the Air Force's primary human resource system?
    • A. 

      Personnel concepts III (PCSIII)

    • B. 

      Defense travel system (DTS)

    • C. 

      Virtual military personnel flight (vamp)

    • D. 

      Military personnel data system (MILPDS)

  • 103. 
     What system allows commanders and managers near real time retrieval capability for alpha rosters and other routine reports?
    • A. 

      Personnel concepts III (PCSIII)

    • B. 

      Defense travel system (DTS)

    • C. 

      Virtual military personnel flight (vMPF)

    • D. 

      Military personnel data system (MILPDS)

  • 104. 
     What was designed to make official travel management easy and efficient for Defense department personnel and save taxpaper money?
    • A. 

      Computer access system

    • B. 

      Defense travel system (DTS)

    • C. 

      Virtual military personnel flight (vMPF)

    • D. 

      Department of defense (DoD) accounting system

  • 105. 
    Why is it necessary to ensure all personnel are educated and able to use the virtual military personnel flight (vamp) tools? 
    • A. 

      Our force is decreasing

    • B. 

      Personnel can commit more time to work

    • C. 

      Personnel information should just be viewed by each member

    • D. 

      Routine personnel actions are not important enough for face to face interaction

  • 106. 
    What is the Air Force's primary human resource system? 
    • A. 

      Personnel concepts III

    • B. 

      Defense travel system (DTS)

    • C. 

      Virtual military personnel flight (vamp)

    • D. 

      Military personnel data system (MPDS)

  • 107. 
     what system allows commanders and managers near real time retrieval capability for alpha rosters and other routine reports?
    • A. 

      Personnel comcepts III

    • B. 

      Defense travel system (DTS)

    • C. 

      Virtual military personeel flight (vMPF)

    • D. 

      Military personnel data system (MilPDS)

  • 108. 
    What was designed to make official travel management easy and efficient for defense department personnel and save taxpaper money? 
    • A. 

      Computer access system

    • B. 

      Defense travel system (DTS)

    • C. 

      Virtual military personnel flight (vMPF)

    • D. 

      Department of defense (DoD) accounting system

  • 109. 
    Air Force members cannot carry leave in excess of how many days into the next fiscal year if they are not eligible for special leave accrual? 
    • A. 

      30 days

    • B. 

      45 days

    • C. 

      60 days

    • D. 

      90 days

  • 110. 
    How many continental US (CONUS) or outside of CONUS (OCONUS) permissive TDY days may a losing commander approve for eligible members? 
    • A. 

      20 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS

    • B. 

      30 days CONUS/20 days OCONUS

    • C. 

      30 days CONUS/30 days OCONUS

    • D. 

      20 days OCONUS/45 days OCONUS

  • 111. 
    Which of the following facotrs is NOT considered when a commander decides if a member is entitled to BAS? 
    • A. 

      Duty hours

    • B. 

      Time in grade

    • C. 

      Dining hall capacity

    • D. 

      Special duty: honor guard, recruiting, band

  • 112. 
     How often is a unit required to conduct reviews to verify members entitled to BAS are receiving it?
    • A. 

      Monthly

    • B. 

      Annually

    • C. 

      Semiannually

    • D. 

      As requested by the financial services office

  • 113. 
    What is used by commanders to perform various quality force actions? 
    • A. 

      Control roster

    • B. 

      Quality force tools

    • C. 

      Substance in kind (SIK) roster

    • D. 

      Unfavorable information file (UIF)

  • 114. 
    Who determines which optional documents are filed in a member's un favorable information file (UIF)? 
    • A. 

      Rater

    • B. 

      Commander

    • C. 

      First sergeant

    • D. 

      Staff judge advocate

  • 115. 
    Today, the commander signed section V of an AF form 1058, unfavorable information file action, putting a staff sergeant on the control roster. What is the FINAL diposition date? 
    • A. 

      Tomorrow

    • B. 

      30 days from today

    • C. 

      6 months from today

    • D. 

      12 months from today

  • 116. 
     what is marked on the front and the back of an unfavorable information file (UIF) folder?
    • A. 

      The words " privacy act of 1974"

    • B. 

      The words "for official use only"

    • C. 

      The final and interim disposition dates

    • D. 

      The name of the commander who initiated the UIF

  • 117. 
    Upon assumption of command, when must a commander review all unit favorable information files (UIFs)? 
    • A. 

      Within 30 days

    • B. 

      Within 90 days

    • C. 

      During the next scheduled annual review

    • D. 

      During the next schedule semiannual review

  • 118. 
     When does the unfavorable information file (UIF) monitor remove documentation pertaining to Article 15 action?
    • A. 

      When the member becomes eligible for retirement

    • B. 

      When the member becomes selected for an assignment

    • C. 

      Upon receipt of a record of action from staff judge advocate showing that punishment was set aside

    • D. 

      Upon notification from the unit commander that the member's behavior has improved and he or she will be removed from the control roster

  • 119. 
    What action is taken by the TDY commander when an unfavorable information file (UIF) is established on members who will return to their permanent duty station after completion of TDY? 
    • A. 

      Destroy the package whn the member completes the TDY

    • B. 

      Sent the completed package to the member's unit commander

    • C. 

      Give the package to the member to hand carry to the unit commander

    • D. 

      Send the UIF summary and a memorandum explaining the unacceptable conduct

  • 120. 
    You change member's duty status to "absent without leave" AWOL when they have an un authorized absence of more than 
    • A. 

      24 hours but less than 15 days

    • B. 

      24 hours but less than 30 days

    • C. 

      48 hours but less than 15 days

    • D. 

      48 hours but less than 30 days

  • 121. 
    What is not an action a personnel action changes (PAC) worksheet can communicate to the commander's support staff (CSS)? 
    • A. 

      Permanent change of assignment

    • B. 

      Permanent change of station (PCS) in

    • C. 

      Change of reporting official (CRO)

    • D. 

      Promotion

  • 122. 
     Through what system are allocation notices generated?
    • A. 

      Defense travel system (DTS)

    • B. 

      Personnel concepts III (PCIII)

    • C. 

      Medical unit readiness training (MURT)

    • D. 

      Military personnel data system (MilPDS)

  • 123. 
    When is involuntary discharge NOT mandatory? 
    • A. 

      Drug abuse

    • B. 

      Alcohol abuse

    • C. 

      Homosexual conduct

    • D. 

      Fraudulent enlistment

  • 124. 
    Who approves a member's projected departure date on the assignment notification printout? 
    • A. 

      CSS personnel

    • B. 

      First sergeant

    • C. 

      Commander

    • D. 

      Supervisor

  • 125. 
     MSgt Bryce has over 20 year's active service. When will he be considered under the selective reenlistment program (SRP)?
    • A. 

      Never, he is retirement eligible

    • B. 

      Never, he is within 36 months of his high year of tenure (HYT)

    • C. 

      When he is less than 33 months from high year of tenure (HYT)

    • D. 

      When he is within 13 months of his expiration term of service (ETS)

  • 126. 
    What part of the Selective Reenlistment program (SRP) roster identifies airmen who have not applied for a career job reservation? 
    • A. 

      Part I, SRP actions

    • B. 

      Part II, SRP monitor

    • C. 

      Part III, Career job reservation

    • D. 

      Part IV, reenlistment ineligibility

  • 127. 
    Which of the following is NOT a rank order factor when personnel are given a waiting list position number? 
    • A. 

      Projected grade

    • B. 

      Unfavorable information file

    • C. 

      Last 5 enlisted performance reports

    • D. 

      Total active federal military service