Management Quiz

52 Questions

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Management Quizzes & Trivia

AFSC 3S071 URE


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (001) Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to DCS/A1 by managing workflow and tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, managing personnel programs and maintaining unit level records?
    • A. 

      AF/A1

    • B. 

      AF/A1Z

    • C. 

      HQ AFPC

    • D. 

      HQ USAF

  • 2. 
    (001) Which office does AF/A1 communicate new AF manpower requirements to?
    • A. 

      AF/A1D

    • B. 

      AF/A1M

    • C. 

      AF/A1P

    • D. 

      AF/A1X

  • 3. 
    (001) AF/A1 utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy, AF/A1P, to communicate all the following except:
    • A. 

      Developing objectives

    • B. 

      Performing analysis

    • C. 

      Developing force management policies

    • D. 

      Developing programs to help commanders meet their Airman's needs

  • 4. 
    (001) Which office serves as the program manager for AF/A1 information technology (IT) planning, programing and development?
    • A. 

      AF/A1D

    • B. 

      AF/A1M

    • C. 

      AF/A1P

    • D. 

      AF/A1X

  • 5. 
    (001) Which team provides independant analytical support directly to AF/A1 on all issues affecting Air Force members and their families?
    • A. 

      AF/A1D

    • B. 

      AF/A1I

    • C. 

      AF/A1P

    • D. 

      AF/A1X

  • 6. 
    (001) Which office defines culture of Airmen, including core standards and values and expectations?
    • A. 

      AF/A1D

    • B. 

      AF/A1I

    • C. 

      AF/A1P

    • D. 

      AF/A1X

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      9

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      11

  • 8. 
    (003) Which Field Operating Agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements in order to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting AF Concepts of Operations?
    • A. 

      AF Manpower Agency (AFMA)

    • B. 

      AF Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA)

    • C. 

      HQ AF Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

    • D. 

      HQ AF Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC)

  • 9. 
    (003) HQ AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations to develop AF people and
    • A. 

      Meet field commander requirements

    • B. 

      Execute wartime and home-station capabilities

    • C. 

      Design, develop and test personnel processes

    • D. 

      Ensure AF/A1's strategic goals are effectively aligned

  • 10. 
    (003) When HQ AFPC needs to communicate with the rest of the AF, how many directorates do the have to choose from?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      9

  • 11. 
    (003) When AF/A1 is looking for the FOA that measures and manages the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital through an effective performance management system, they contact
    • A. 

      AF Manpower Agency (AFMA)

    • B. 

      AF Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA)

    • C. 

      HQ AF Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)

    • D. 

      HQ AF Military Personnel Center (HQ AFMPC)

  • 12. 
    (003) When HQ AFPC requires help with updating new Unit Type Codes (UTC) and posturing, which directorate assists?
    • A. 

      Assignments

    • B. 

      Personnel Data Systems

    • C. 

      Civilian Force Integration

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations

  • 13. 
    (003) When HQ AFPC requires help to facilitate the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel, which directorate assists?
    • A. 

      Assignments

    • B. 

      Personnel Data Systems

    • C. 

      Civilian Force Integration

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations

  • 14. 
    For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future AF leaders, the HQ AFPC contacts the directorate of
    • A. 

      Assignments

    • B. 

      Personnel Data Systems

    • C. 

      Civilian Force Integration

    • D. 

      Air and Space Expeditionary Force Operations

  • 15. 
    (003) Which directorate assists HQ AFPC with developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve and civilian personnel accountability?
    • A. 

      Assignments

    • B. 

      Force Operations

    • C. 

      Personnel Data Systems

    • D. 

      Personnel Services

  • 16. 
    (003) When HQ AFPC requires help with information technology, which directorate assists?
    • A. 

      Force Operations

    • B. 

      Personnel Data Systems

    • C. 

      Personnel Services

    • D. 

      Staff

  • 17. 
    (004) The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned under
    • A. 

      The wing commander (Wing CC)

    • B. 

      A numbered Air Force (NAF)

    • C. 

      HQ AFPC

    • D. 

      Headquarters Air Force (HAF)

  • 18. 
    (004) Why the did Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center move from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas?
    • A. 

      There was no longer room at Langley forthe AEFC

    • B. 

      The HQ Air Combat Command Commander (COMACC) requested the move

    • C. 

      The HQ AFPC/CC requested the move

    • D. 

      To bring two centers together in order to focus on operationalizing personnel by merging permanent authorizations, wartime requirements and assignments under a single commander

  • 19. 
    (005) Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) mission is to provide citizen Airmen to defend the US and protect its interests through
    • A. 

      The Air National Guard bureau

    • B. 

      The governor of the prospective state

    • C. 

      Robins AFB, Georgia

    • D. 

      Air and space power

  • 20. 
    (005) How many officer and enlisted personnel, who serve 37 flying wings, does the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) have?
    • A. 

      54,000

    • B. 

      64,000

    • C. 

      74,000

    • D. 

      84,000

  • 21. 
    (005) The Air Force Reserve Command's (AFRC) vision is
    • A. 

      Citizen Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach and power

    • B. 

      Citizen officers fully engaged in global vigilance, reach and power

    • C. 

      Citizen enlisted fully engaged in global vigilance, reach and power

    • D. 

      Citizen Air Force reservists engaged in global vigilance, reach and power

  • 22. 
    (005) How many aircraft does the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC) have assigned to it?
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      440

    • C. 

      480

    • D. 

      520

  • 23. 
    (006) In August 2005, Hurricane Katrina, one of the most devistating hurricanes of all time, hit the Louisiana/Mississippi gulf coast. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?
    • A. 

      Air National Guard Bureau

    • B. 

      Chief of Staff of the Air Force (CSAF)

    • C. 

      HQ Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)

    • D. 

      HQ Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC)

  • 24. 
    (006) During peace time, the Air National Guard's (ANG) combat-ready units and support units are assigned to most AF MAJCOs to carry out missions compatable with
    • A. 

      Training, mobilization readiness and contingency operations

    • B. 

      Wing authorizations

    • C. 

      Their flying mission

    • D. 

      Their dependent populace

  • 25. 
    (006) When Air National Guard units (ANG) are not mobilized or under federal contol, they report to the
    • A. 

      President

    • B. 

      Vice President

    • C. 

      Governor

    • D. 

      Mayor

  • 26. 
    (007) If you were providing guidance to an enlisted retraining customer and the customer asked about the duties and responsibilities of a specific Air Force Specialty Code (AFSC) what, reference would you refer to?
    • A. 

      Personnel Services Directory (PSD) handbook

    • B. 

      Air Force Officer Classification Directory (AFOCD)

    • C. 

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD)

    • D. 

      Base Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) handbook

  • 27. 
    (007) The duties and responsibilities of the craftsman and superintendent include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs

    • B. 

      Create, maitain and audit personnel records

    • C. 

      Perform personnel actions

    • D. 

      Provide casualty assistance

  • 28. 
    (007) You have just been notified that you will be working as a MSgt superintendent (9-level) over a section and you will supervise two TSgt Craftsmen and four SSgt craftsmen. What reference will tell you how their duties and responsibilities differ?
    • A. 

      Personnel Services Directory (PSD) handbook

    • B. 

      Air Force Officer Classification Directory (AFOCD)

    • C. 

      Air Force Enlisted Classification Directory (AFECD)

    • D. 

      Base Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM) handbook

  • 29. 
    (008) The duties of the superintendent include all of the following except
    • A. 

      Advise officers and Airmen on military personnel issues and programs

    • B. 

      Create, maintain and audit personnel records

    • C. 

      Perform dormitory checks

    • D. 

      Provide casualty assistance

  • 30. 
    (008) The wide scope of work activities and funtions that the superintendent is responsible for include all the following except
    • A. 

      Plan

    • B. 

      Control

    • C. 

      Coordinate

    • D. 

      Implement

  • 31. 
    (009) why is it important to document interuptions to upgrade training, such as leave or TDY, in the 623a?
    • A. 

      So the Unit Training Manager (UTM) can reference the dates

    • B. 

      So the Air Force Carrer Field Manager (AFCMF) can reference the dates

    • C. 

      If the trainee is having dificulty with upgrade training, the CFETP may become obsolete

    • D. 

      If the trainee is having dificulty with upgrade training, the documentation can be referenced

  • 32. 
    (009) If a trainee completes the mandatory CDCs, are signed off on all core tasks identified in the CFETP and other duty position tasks identified by the supervisor, have completed a minimum 15 months in upgrade training (UGT) and they have been recommended by their supervisor and approved by their commander, this trainee is working towards which level in upgrade training (UGT)?
    • A. 

      Helper

    • B. 

      Apprentice

    • C. 

      Journeyman

    • D. 

      Superintendent

  • 33. 
    (010) All the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process, except
    • A. 

      Develop a Master Training Plan (MTP)

    • B. 

      Budget on and off duty time to complete assigned training tasks

    • C. 

      Comprehend the applicable CFETP requirements and career path

    • D. 

      Acknowledge and document task qualification upon completion of training

  • 34. 
    (010) Within how many days of an active duty trainee's initial assignment should a supervisor conduct and document an initial evaluation of trainee qualifications?
    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      90

  • 35. 
    (011) When granting an individual access to classified information why is it important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Disclosure Agreement (NdA)?
    • A. 

      To ensure all necessary steps have been completed

    • B. 

      To ensure the DOD sends the proper form to Holloman AFB, New Mexico

    • C. 

      To ensure you include this form as part of the Field Record Group

    • D. 

      To ensure that you have a source document signed and dated by the individual that reflects the date when the attestation took place

  • 36. 
    (011) When confirming a persons level of access to classified information, why is it imperitive to complete the four step process?
    • A. 

      Because each step is an intricate piece of the "checks and balance" process

    • B. 

      You will be unable to process the request and therefore, the person will not get access

    • C. 

      Because if you do not complete the four step process, you will be unable to process the request

    • D. 

      You will be unable to process the request, the person will not get access and then you will have to start the process over

  • 37. 
    (011) When dealing with classified material, why is it important to develop and implement control measures?
    • A. 

      So you know where the classified information is kept

    • B. 

      In order to keep track of the people dealing with the classified information

    • C. 

      So Security Forces has knowledge of where the classified information is kept

    • D. 

      To help decrease the possibility of the classified information falling into the wrong hands

  • 38. 
    (011) What is the disposition of the nondisclosure agreement (NdA) and why is it so important the NdA be mailed off to the appropriate authority?
    • A. 

      50 year disposition and to validate the individuals security clearance

    • B. 

      70 year disposition and it may need to be referred to again

    • C. 

      50 year disposition and it may need to be referred to again

    • D. 

      70 year disposition and to validate the individuals security clearance

  • 39. 
    (012) When communicating a message, why is it important to have success with your audience?
    • A. 

      So you can know you did a good job

    • B. 

      So they will pay attention long enough to receive and understand the meassage that you are sending

    • C. 

      So you can have a sense of ownership

    • D. 

      So your audeince can count on you for future briefings

  • 40. 
    (012) Why is it so important to fight for feedback in effective communication?
    • A. 

      So others will iknow your writing is interesting

    • B. 

      So others will be able to understand the topic you are writing about

    • C. 

      So others will be able to pull information from your paper for future purposes

    • D. 

      So the coordination process becomes much smoother and you get a second pair or eyes to review the communication

  • 41. 
    (013) What would happen if an individual brought reenlistment paperwork into the reenlistments clerk and the clerk did not update MilPDS?
    • A. 

      The reenlistment would not get updated

    • B. 

      The reenlistment would not get updated and no DJMS action would be produced

    • C. 

      The reenlistment would not get updated, no DJMS action would be produced and no update would flow to finance

    • D. 

      The reenlistment would not get updated and no DJMS action would be produced, no update would flow to finance and the individuals pay would stop

  • 42. 
    (013) When performing the E6C update on the Defense Joint Military Pay System (DJMS), if the individual is in a "T" status, why is it important to correct the status to "A" before completing the update?
    • A. 

      The update will produce a reject at DFAS

    • B. 

      MilPDS will not allow you to perform the update

    • C. 

      Then you will be able to update the status from "A" to "Z" status

    • D. 

      The DFAS POC will be contacting you to perform a status update

  • 43. 
    (013) Which office is responsible to update the reenlistment and extension DJMS transaction?
    • A. 

      Reenlistments

    • B. 

      Relocations

    • C. 

      Customer Service

    • D. 

      Personnel Readiness Function

  • 44. 
    (013) What is the E63 update used for?
    • A. 

      To update a reenlistment or extension to DFAS

    • B. 

      To change the first stage/updateof the E63

    • C. 

      To correct a members MMPA TOE

    • D. 

      To cancel and extension prior to the effective date

  • 45. 
    (014) If a new military personnel section (MPS) commander looks at the MPS's file monitor TR and sees an excessive amount of data in overdue status, what can he/she conclude?
    • A. 

      The transactions in MilPDS did not match the transactions in the finance file

    • B. 

      Information did not flow properly from the PSM element to the finance file

    • C. 

      Either the proper data was not entered into MilPDS or items in hold status were not released

    • D. 

      The Military Personnel Section (MPS) Commander did not complete their updates in a timely manner

  • 46. 
    (014) A transaction register (TR) is a standard product designed and controled by HQ
    • A. 

      AFPC

    • B. 

      ARPC

    • C. 

      AMC

    • D. 

      AETC

  • 47. 
    (014) Transaction Registers (TR) are programmatically controlled and produced
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Monthly

    • C. 

      Semi-annually

    • D. 

      Annually

  • 48. 
    (015) If an individual is showing up on MAP2-enhancements-HYT, what conclusions can we make?
    • A. 

      Individual has reenlisted, but their reenlistment paperwork has not been returned yet

    • B. 

      Inividual is within one year of seperation and they do not have their seperation orders yet

    • C. 

      Inividual is within one year retirement and their request to retire was not updated in MilPDS

    • D. 

      Inividual is within one year of their HYT and their reenlistment code does not reflect the correct code

  • 49. 
    (015) If an inbound contacts customer service stating they have not been assigned a sponsor, their name should be reflected on MAP
    • A. 

      7A

    • B. 

      7B

    • C. 

      7C

    • D. 

      8

  • 50. 
    (015) If an individual is inquiring about reenlisting, and the reenlistment clerk checks MilPDS and finds the individual is not eligible for reenlistment because they are not a US citizen, the reenlistment clerk sends them to customer service so the customer service clerk can check MAP
    • A. 

      21

    • B. 

      22

    • C. 

      25

    • D. 

      27

  • 51. 
    (015) If Lt Smith walks into your office and asks you a question but you cannot find his record in MilPDS, what does this mean?
    • A. 

      That he is an ROTC accession and his finance record has not been built yet

    • B. 

      That he is an ROTC accession and his personnel record has not been built yet

    • C. 

      That he is an AF Academy graduate and his personnel record has not been built yet

    • D. 

      That he is on his way to college to finish his undergraduate degree and his spring training

  • 52. 
    (015) If a member is projected to PCS and receives a demotion, what MAP can the Career Development Section use in order to ensure database integrity?
    • A. 

      MAP 9

    • B. 

      MAP 4

    • C. 

      MAP 5

    • D. 

      MAP 6