3P071 Volume 3

87 Questions

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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

Volume 3


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What information on a map is much like the instruction book that comes with a piece of equipment?
    • A. 

      Topographical.

    • B. 

      Geographical.

    • C. 

      Marginal.

    • D. 

      Index.

  • 2. 
    Which color, found on a map, represents man-made features?
    • A. 

      Yellow.

    • B. 

      Green.

    • C. 

      Orange.

    • D. 

      Black.

  • 3. 
    On a map, what is represented by a solid blue line with a thin black line as the bank?
    • A. 

      A river.

    • B. 

      A lake.

    • C. 

      A stream.

    • D. 

      A dry pond.

  • 4. 
    If a map shows contour lines on the opposite side of a hill so close that they almost appear as a single line, these lines denote a
    • A. 

      Small ridge or plateau.

    • B. 

      Vertical/near vertical cliff.

    • C. 

      Small hill with a gentle slope.

    • D. 

      Depression in the terrain.

  • 5. 
    Which of the following is not one of the three types of contour lines shown on a Defense Mapping Agency map?
    • A. 

      Supplementary.

    • B. 

      Intermediate.

    • C. 

      Secondary.

    • D. 

      Index.

  • 6. 
    Which major terrain feature is a dip or low point between two areas of higher ground?
    • A. 

      Depression.

    • B. 

      Ridge.

    • C. 

      Valley.

    • D. 

      Saddle.

  • 7. 
    A short, continuous sloping line of higher ground, normally jutting out from the side of a ridge is called a
    • A. 

      Spur.

    • B. 

      Hill.

    • C. 

      Cliff.

    • D. 

      Slope.

  • 8. 
    What are the two other grid systems that are used as the basis for the Military Grid Reference System?
    • A. 

      The universal traveling map and the universal plotting scheme.

    • B. 

      The universal transverse mercator and the universal polar stereographic.

    • C. 

      The unit transverse mercator and the unit polar stereographic.

    • D. 

      The universal transit mercator and the universal polarity stereographic.

  • 9. 
    Plotting a six-digit grid coordinate will get you within how many meters of the point you wish to identify?
    • A. 

      1,000.

    • B. 

      100.

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      1

  • 10. 
    In land navigation, which north is your starting point or baseline.
    • A. 

      Geographic.

    • B. 

      Magnetic.

    • C. 

      Polar.

    • D. 

      True.

  • 11. 
    What is an azimuth?
    • A. 

      A vertical angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.

    • B. 

      A horizontal angle measured counterclockwise from true north, magnetic north.

    • C. 

      A horizontal angle measured clockwise from true north, magnetic north, or grid north.

    • D. 

      A vertical angle measured counterclockwise from magnetic north or grid north.

  • 12. 
    How do you convert a grid azimuth to a magnetic azimuth?
    • A. 

      Subtract the 3.5 degrees from your azimuth.

    • B. 

      Add the 3.5-degree grid magnet angle to the azimuth.

    • C. 

      Subtract 3.5 degrees from your back azimuth.

    • D. 

      Subtract the 5.5 degrees from your azimuth.

  • 13. 
    What is the most important thing to look for when inspecting your lensatic compass?
    • A. 

      There is no dirt in the dial.

    • B. 

      The numbers are easy to read.

    • C. 

      The arrows can be seen at night.

    • D. 

      The dial or arrow moves freely.

  • 14. 
    Which method of movement gives you the lowest silhouette?
    • A. 

      High crawl.

    • B. 

      Low crawl.

    • C. 

      Rush.

    • D. 

      Roll.

  • 15. 
    Which movement technique requires a great deal of patience?
    • A. 

      Low crawl.

    • B. 

      Moving at night.

    • C. 

      Moving with stealth

    • D. 

      Moving with precision.

  • 16. 
    When writing paragraph 2 - mission in the operations order, how often do you state the mission?
    • A. 

      One time.

    • B. 

      Two times.

    • C. 

      Three times.

    • D. 

      Four times.

  • 17. 
    In paragraph 3 - execution of the operations order, how should you write the concept of operations?
    • A. 

      Detailed and understandable and describe how the unit will finish its mission.

    • B. 

      Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission.

    • C. 

      Concise describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from start to finish.

    • D. 

      Concise and understandable and describe, in general terms, how the unit will accomplish its mission from the start to finish.

  • 18. 
    In which paragraph of the operations order is the mechanics of the operations addressed in detail?
    • A. 

      Execution.

    • B. 

      Maneuver.

    • C. 

      Offensive.

    • D. 

      Defensive.

  • 19. 
    Which paragraph in the operations order addresses service and support, as needed, to clarify the service and support concept?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 20. 
    Why would a leader issue a fragmentary order?
    • A. 

      To change an existing order.

    • B. 

      To order a fragmentary grenade.

    • C. 

      To advise personnel of a fragile operation.

    • D. 

      To indicate a change in the command structure of the unit.

  • 21. 
    Which presentation shows the control measures and key terrain in relation to each other as well as a large rough drawing of the objective areas?
    • A. 

      Rough draft.

    • B. 

      Concept sketch.

    • C. 

      Operations overlay.

    • D. 

      Terrain Scale model.

  • 22. 
    Which element or team of the combat patrol provides direct fire support and may control indirect fires for the squad or flight?
    • A. 

      Assault.

    • B. 

      Support.

    • C. 

      Breach.

    • D. 

      Demolition.

  • 23. 
    Attacks on a position or installation followed by a plan withdrawal, defines
    • A. 

      An ambush.

    • B. 

      An assault.

    • C. 

      A hasty.

    • D. 

      A raid.

  • 24. 
    Which of the following is not a type of reconnaissance patrol?
    • A. 

      Area.

    • B. 

      Silent.

    • C. 

      Zone.

    • D. 

      Route.

  • 25. 
    Which type of reconnaissance patrol is performed to obtain information on enemy, terrain, and routes within a specified zone?
    • A. 

      Zone.

    • B. 

      Route.

    • C. 

      Area.

    • D. 

      Silent.

  • 26. 
    When leading a reconnaissance patrol, what technique positions surveillance teams in locations where they can collectively observe the entire zone long-term, continuously gathering information?
    • A. 

      Multiple area reconnaissance.

    • B. 

      Successive sector method.

    • C. 

      Converging routes method.

    • D. 

      Stationary teams.

  • 27. 
    Before attempting to maneuver, when employing fire and maneuver techniques, units must establish a base
    • A. 

      Of fire.

    • B. 

      Support plan.

    • C. 

      Camp retrograde.

    • D. 

      Deflection maneuver.

  • 28. 
    In fire and maneuver operations, from where does most of the maneuvering forces fire support come?
    • A. 

      Mortars, MK19s, and M2.50 calibers.

    • B. 

      Your support team weapons.

    • C. 

      Fire and maneuver elements.

    • D. 

      Your team’s own weapons.

  • 29. 
    Why do squads use formations?
    • A. 

      For control flexibility and security.

    • B. 

      Flexibility and movement.

    • C. 

      Flexibility only.

    • D. 

      For control only.

  • 30. 
    The basic formation for the fire team is the
    • A. 

      File.

    • B. 

      Wedge.

    • C. 

      Squad file.

    • D. 

      Squad line.

  • 31. 
    Which squad formation provides maximum firepower to the front?
    • A. 

      Column.

    • B. 

      Wedge.

    • C. 

      Line.

    • D. 

      File.

  • 32. 
    When contact is possible, what movement technique should you choose for your squad?
    • A. 

      Bounding overwatch.

    • B. 

      Traveling overwatch.

    • C. 

      Traverse overwatch.

    • D. 

      Leap frog movements.

  • 33. 
    Which bounding method is easier to control?
    • A. 

      Alternate.

    • B. 

      Successive.

    • C. 

      Progressive.

    • D. 

      Leap frog.

  • 34. 
    Which movement techniques are combined to cross an area so large the squad cannot bypass it due to the time required to accomplish the mission?
    • A. 

      Overwatch and bounding overwatch.

    • B. 

      Traveling overwatch and traversing overwatch.

    • C. 

      Traveling overwatch and bounding overwatch.

    • D. 

      Traversing overwatch and bounding overwatch.

  • 35. 
    You and your squad have come across a small open area to cross. You decide to use a series of 90-degree turns to the right or left so the squad moves around the open area until the far side is reached, then continue the mission. Which movement method did you elect to use?
    • A. 

      Night walking.

    • B. 

      Detour bypass method.

    • C. 

      Contact danger method.

    • D. 

      Contouring around the open area.

  • 36. 
    At squad level, which teams normally provide flank security as well as fires into the kill zone?
    • A. 

      The security elements.

    • B. 

      The outside buddy teams.

    • C. 

      The inside buddy teams.

    • D. 

      The ambush reserve teams.

  • 37. 
    A deliberate ambush is conducted when your team
    • A. 

      Has a specific target and a predetermined location.

    • B. 

      Deploys to attack an enemy in a single kill zone.

    • C. 

      Deploys in two or more related point ambushes.

    • D. 

      Makes visual contact with an enemy force and has time to establish an ambush.

  • 38. 
    During a deliberate ambush, which action is not taken by the assault element?
    • A. 

      Identifying individual sectors of fire as assigned by you, the team leader.

    • B. 

      Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning devices.

    • C. 

      Emplacing protective devices, such as early warning device.

    • D. 

      Emplacing grenadiers to cover dead space within the kill zone.

  • 39. 
    Which ambush uses limiting stakes to prevent friendly fires from hitting the assault element?
    • A. 

      Point.

    • B. 

      Linear.

    • C. 

      I-shaped.

    • D. 

      L-shaped.

  • 40. 
    If there is any return fire once the assault element begins to search, they must be prepared to move across the kill zone using which movement technique?
    • A. 

      Individual.

    • B. 

      Fire team.

    • C. 

      Teams organized.

    • D. 

      Bounding fire team.

  • 41. 
    Normally, how does a team withdraw from an ambush site?
    • A. 

      In the reverse order that they established their positions.

    • B. 

      In the order that they established their positions.

    • C. 

      Two at a time so one can cover the other.

    • D. 

      Simultaneously.

  • 42. 
    What does a delay in an economy-of-force operation create to allow other actions to take place?
    • A. 

      Space.

    • B. 

      Area.

    • C. 

      Time.

    • D. 

      Opportunity.

  • 43. 
    What are the two types of withdrawals?
    • A. 

      Fast and slow.

    • B. 

      Aid and unaided.

    • C. 

      Assisted and unassisted.

    • D. 

      Forward and backward.

  • 44. 
    Which is not a method of disengaging from the enemy?
    • A. 

      Under Enemy Pressure.

    • B. 

      Thinning the lines.

    • C. 

      Fire teams.

    • D. 

      By squads.

  • 45. 
    Which S-function is responsible for personnel management and development and maintenance of morale?
    • A. 

      S–1.

    • B. 

      S–2.

    • C. 

      S–3.

    • D. 

      S–4.

  • 46. 
    Which S-function gathers intelligence for air base defense force operations; predicts effects of nuclear, biological, and chemical attacks; and relays weather information?
    • A. 

      S–4.

    • B. 

      S–3.

    • C. 

      S–2.

    • D. 

      S–1.

  • 47. 
    The S–4 is normally responsible for completing which paragraph of the squadron operations order?
    • A. 

      Paragraph 4.

    • B. 

      Paragraph 3.

    • C. 

      Paragraph 2.

    • D. 

      Paragraph 1.

  • 48. 
    The base commander form the base defense operations center with
    • A. 

      Personnel from the augmentation force.

    • B. 

      Personnel who are on temporary duty.

    • C. 

      Personnel from the S-function staff.

    • D. 

      Available base assets.

  • 49. 
    Who is the chief of the base defense operations center?
    • A. 

      Commander, Security Forces.

    • B. 

      Commander, Base Defense Force.

    • C. 

      Commander, Area Defense Force.

    • D. 

      Commander, Joint Response Task Force.

  • 50. 
    The CIS is responsible for all plans, estimates, reports, and requests concerning ground combat intelligence. The S2 CIS is responsible for all
    • A. 

      ABD affecting the GCI force.

    • B. 

      Support and supply functions.

    • C. 

      GCI affecting the ABD force.

    • D. 

      Operational matters with the ABD force.

  • 51. 
    What is EEI?
    • A. 

      Essential elements of information.

    • B. 

      Essential evaluation information.

    • C. 

      Emergency enemy information.

    • D. 

      Enemy evaluation information.

  • 52. 
    Which operational step in the vulnerability/criticality analysis is concerned with determining specific threats?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      1

  • 53. 
    For planning purposes, what is the range for field wire circuits using battery-operated telephones?
    • A. 

      20.0 to 35.4 km.

    • B. 

      22.5 to 34.5 km

    • C. 

      22.5 to 35.4 km.

    • D. 

      25.2 to 35.4 km.

  • 54. 
    When interviewing experts individually or as a group, you should ask the key questions during which operational step of the vulnerability/critically analysis?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      2

  • 55. 
    Which installation methods are the easiest to maintain and provide the most satisfactory service?
    • A. 

      Buried (underwater) wire/cable.

    • B. 

      Aerial (overhead) wire/cable.

    • C. 

      Buried wire/cable.

    • D. 

      Surface wire/cable.

  • 56. 
    How often should you conduct visual inspections of individual communications systems equipment?
    • A. 

      Bi-weekly.

    • B. 

      Weekly.

    • C. 

      Monthly.

    • D. 

      Daily.

  • 57. 
    When cleaning communication equipment, what should you use to dust the switches and light emitting diodes?
    • A. 

      A soft bristled brush.

    • B. 

      An abrasive material.

    • C. 

      A soft damp cloth .

    • D. 

      A lint-free cloth.

  • 58. 
    To avoid injury and circuit damage, what should you always do before replacing components or making adjustments to electronic equipment?
    • A. 

      Clean, dry, and inspect the equipment.

    • B. 

      Remove equipment knobs, wires, and plugs.

    • C. 

      Remove power, discharge, and ground the equipment.

    • D. 

      Remove wires, plugs, and all control knobs.

  • 59. 
    The purpose of the communication security protective measures is to
    • A. 

      Deny unauthorized persons telecommunications information.

    • B. 

      Prevent unauthorized users from using our communication system.

    • C. 

      Keep honest people honest by denying the enemy access to our communications equipment.

    • D. 

      Listen in on all incoming and outgoing communications in the tactical area of responsibility.

  • 60. 
    An authentication system is designed to protect a communications system against the
    • A. 

      Unauthorized use of fraudulent transmissions.

    • B. 

      Acceptance of fraudulent transmissions.

    • C. 

      Sending of fraudulent transmissions.

    • D. 

      Acceptance of faulty transmissions.

  • 61. 
    Before initiation of a nuclear weapon movement, the convoy commander is responsible for completing a
    • A. 

      Risk/vulnerability assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.

    • B. 

      Risk/location assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.

    • C. 

      Risk/vulnerability assessment and making sure deployment procedures are in place.

    • D. 

      Route assessment and making sure recapture/recovery procedures are in place.

  • 62. 
    When conducting a general on-base nuclear weapon movement, which of the following is not an objective of a sweep? To decrease the possibility of
    • A. 

      Involvement with traffic obstructions.

    • B. 

      Other hazards to safe movement.

    • C. 

      A breakdown in the road.

    • D. 

      Civil disturbances.

  • 63. 
    What is the response time of a back-up force supporting ground movements of nuclear weapons?
    • A. 

      5 minutes.

    • B. 

      10 minutes.

    • C. 

      15 minutes.

    • D. 

      30 minutes.

  • 64. 
    Which term is best to use when arranging a general off-base nuclear weapon movement with local authorities?
    • A. 

      Sensitive movement.

    • B. 

      Nuclear movement.

    • C. 

      Secret movement.

    • D. 

      Hot movement.

  • 65. 
    What civilian law enforcement agent will be included in any off-base nuclear weapon movement?
    • A. 

      Local patrolman.

    • B. 

      Deputy chief of police.

    • C. 

      United States Marshal.

    • D. 

      Local Federal Bureau of Investigations agent.

  • 66. 
    In reference to convoy communications, what is the frequency requirement for a convoy program report?
    • A. 

      Every 10 minutes.

    • B. 

      Every 15 minutes.

    • C. 

      Every 20 minutes.

    • D. 

      Every 30 minutes.

  • 67. 
    Most convoy planning is based on unit
    • A. 

      SOP.

    • B. 

      SOI.

    • C. 

      ROI.

    • D. 

      ESBI.

  • 68. 
    While a convoy is moving on a controlled route, where will the start point usually be located?
    • A. 

      Where the convoy commander designates.

    • B. 

      Where you pick up your convoy vehicle.

    • C. 

      At the last checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes.

    • D. 

      At the first checkpoint on the route that the convoy passes.

  • 69. 
    Who is responsible for the mechanical condition of convoy vehicles?
    • A. 

      Vehicle commander noncommissioned officer.

    • B. 

      Commander of the moving unit.

    • C. 

      Assistant driver.

    • D. 

      Driver.

  • 70. 
    When hardening vehicles using sandbags, as an additional precaution, what is placed over the sandbags to reduce danger from fragments?
    • A. 

      An additional layer of sandbags.

    • B. 

      A heavy rubber or fiber mat.

    • C. 

      Camo netting.

    • D. 

      Chicken wire.

  • 71. 
    What is the convoy driver’s sector of observation?
    • A. 

      From 9 to 11 o’clock.

    • B. 

      From 6 to 1 o’clock.

    • C. 

      From 9 to 1 o’clock.

    • D. 

      From 11 to 1 o’clock.

  • 72. 
    Which formation is used to prevent third party traffic interference with the convoy’s ability to change lanes?
    • A. 

      Diamond.

    • B. 

      Inverted “T”.

    • C. 

      Changing lanes.

    • D. 

      Block and bump.

  • 73. 
    Which convoy drill is used for small to medium vehicles and not a heavy or tractor-trailer configuration?
    • A. 

      Bailout.

    • B. 

      Downed driver.

    • C. 

      Hasty vehicle recovery.

    • D. 

      In-stride hasty vehicle recovery.

  • 74. 
    Producing combat ready units that respond to known or suspected enemy activity and defeat the enemy is the goal of
    • A. 

      Mission readiness.

    • B. 

      Preparedness.

    • C. 

      Deploying.

    • D. 

      Training.

  • 75. 
    A collective action executed by a flight or smaller element without the application of a deliberate decision-making is a
    • A. 

      Crew drill.

    • B. 

      Battle drill.

    • C. 

      Drill rehearsal.

    • D. 

      Mission training experiment.

  • 76. 
    A collective action that a crew of a weapons system or a piece of equipment must perform to use the weapon or equipment successfully in combat or to preserve life describes a
    • A. 

      Crew drill.

    • B. 

      Battle drill.

    • C. 

      Drill rehearsal.

    • D. 

      Mission training experiment.

  • 77. 
    If you are acting out the actions that will occur during a mission using the actual vehicles and equipment that will be used to conduct the operation, you are performing which type of mission rehearsal?
    • A. 

      Walk-through.

    • B. 

      Full-scale.

    • C. 

      Back brief.

    • D. 

      Rock drill.

  • 78. 
    When moving parallel to a building during an urban operation, how should you move from one covered position to another covered position?
    • A. 

      Stealthily.

    • B. 

      Quickly.

    • C. 

      Quietly.

    • D. 

      Easily.

  • 79. 
    Before entering a building through a window or door that was created by artillery fire, what should you throw into the new entrance to reinforce the effects of the original blast?
    • A. 

      A helmet as a decoy airman.

    • B. 

      A cooked off hand grenade.

    • C. 

      A white handkerchief.

    • D. 

      A signal flare.

  • 80. 
    You would use precision room clearing techniques when
    • A. 

      The fire team leader feels a precision clearing operation needs to occur in a hostile environment.

    • B. 

      The tactical situation calls for room-by-room clearing of a relatively intact building in which enemy combatants and noncombatants may be intermixed.

    • C. 

      You need to replace other techniques currently being used to clear buildings and rooms during high-intensity combat.

    • D. 

      There is a reasonable doubt that insurgents are held up inside the facility you would like to search.

  • 81. 
    What clearing task involves seizing control of the room with the purpose of neutralizing the enemy in the room?
    • A. 

      Precision.

    • B. 

      High threat.

    • C. 

      High energy.

    • D. 

      High intensity.

  • 82. 
    What advantage is gained by performing a rapid, violent assault?
    • A. 

      It conserves badly needed ammunition for future assaults and missions.

    • B. 

      It overwhelms and destroys the enemy force and seizes the objective.

    • C. 

      It only requires minimal manpower, due to the use of pyrotechnics.

    • D. 

      It scares the enemy into simply surrendering the objective at hand.

  • 83. 
    Which of the following statement concerning the reconnaissance in force (precision techniques) is not true?
    • A. 

      It reduces damage.

    • B. 

      It conserves ammunition.

    • C. 

      It causes minimal stress in those involved.

    • D. 

      It minimizes the chance of noncombatant casualties.

  • 84. 
    Which principle of precision room clearing is the key to a successful assault at close quarters?
    • A. 

      Controlled violence of action.

    • B. 

      Surprise.

    • C. 

      Timing.

    • D. 

      Speed.

  • 85. 
    What is often needed to defeat barriers that are more elaborate or to produce a desired effect to aid the initial entry?
    • A. 

      Demolitions.

    • B. 

      Battering Rams.

    • C. 

      Sledgehammers.

    • D. 

      Small arms (5.56 or 7.62 mm).

  • 86. 
    After entering a room, which enemy threat is engaged first?
    • A. 

      The least immediate enemy threat.

    • B. 

      The most immediate enemy threat.

    • C. 

      The most heavily armed enemy threat.

    • D. 

      The enemy threat furthest from the entry point.

  • 87. 
    When performing building clearing, what must squad and fire team leaders consider to achieve the desired results?
    • A. 

      The method they are to use.

    • B. 

      The task and purpose they have been given.

    • C. 

      The firepower they have been given and the method they are to use.

    • D. 

      The task and purpose they have been given and the method they are to use.