3P071 Vol 2

90 Questions

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3P071 Quizzes & Trivia

7 Level CDC Quiz 2013


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) begins at the 
    • A. 

      Base defense operations center (BDOC)

    • B. 

      Point of insertion

    • C. 

      Base perimeter

    • D. 

      Resource

  • 2. 
    The primary responsibility of air base defense (ABD)  forces is 
    • A. 

      Defeating level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the tactical area of responsibility (TAOR) surrounding the air base.

    • B. 

      Defeating level II threats , and disrupting or delaying level IV threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • C. 

      Stalling level I threats, and disrupting or delaying level II threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

    • D. 

      Defeating level II threats, and disrupting or delaying level I threats in the TAOR surrounding the air base.

  • 3. 
    At a minimum, which two S-functions must operate within the base defense operations center (BDOC)
    • A. 

      S1 and S3

    • B. 

      S2 and S4

    • C. 

      S2 and S3

    • D. 

      S3 and S4

  • 4. 
    What is the staff make-up for the S3?
    • A. 

      The operations officer and staff.

    • B. 

      Supply NCO

    • C. 

      First sergeant or section commander.

    • D. 

      Intelligence officers and security forces investigators.

  • 5. 
    In what way can subordinate joint force commands organize?
    • A. 

      By rank and function.

    • B. 

      By function and location.

    • C. 

      By service component or function.

    • D. 

      By service component and location

  • 6. 
    The primary mission of a joint operation is
    • A. 

      Lead host nation forces in defending and securing the rear area.

    • B. 

      Sustain the campaign and major operations of the joint force.

    • C. 

      Disaster relief operations.

    • D. 

      Humanitarian operations.

  • 7. 
    When terrorist attack DOD affiliated personnel and facilities , what is their mission?
    • A. 

      Determine which other countries support their beliefs.

    • B. 

      Ensure state funding would continue to finance cause.

    • C. 

      Destroy as much property as possible in a short period.

    • D. 

      Persuade US and/or foreign governments to change their policies.

  • 8. 
    A terrorist group that generally operates independently of, but receives support from, one or more governments is
    • A. 

      Non-state-supported.

    • B. 

      State-supported.

    • C. 

      Stated-directed.

    • D. 

      State-organized

  • 9. 
    A typical organization of a terrorist group consists of 
    • A. 

      Group leader, intelligence officer, explosive specialist, and weapons specialist.

    • B. 

      Hard-core leadership, active cadre, active support, and passive support.

    • C. 

      Hard-core cadre, submissive support, inactive leaders, and low support

    • D. 

      Intelligence officer, inactive leaders, and active cadre

  • 10. 
    Generally,, specially trained terrorists are of above average intelligence and between the ages of 
    • A. 

      16-24

    • B. 

      21-28

    • C. 

      23-30

    • D. 

      25-32

  • 11. 
    When are terrorist team members brought together for final rehearsal? 
    • A. 

      Before execution of attack.

    • B. 

      Just before departing for the target sight.

    • C. 

      One week prior to scheduled attack execution.

    • D. 

      Never; terrorist team members do not conduct rehearsals.

  • 12. 
    The tactic most commonly used by terrorist groups is 
    • A. 

      Arson.

    • B. 

      Bombing.

    • C. 

      Hijacking.

    • D. 

      Assassination.

  • 13. 
    The USAF Antiterrorism Program is designed around what three principles?
    • A. 

      State Department intelligence assessments, threat levels, and threat conditions (THREATCON)

    • B. 

      Force Protection conditions (FPCONS), assessment factors, and threat levels

    • C. 

      Intelligence gathering, threat level, and THREATCONs.

    • D. 

      Criminal threat, FPCONS, and the CARVER matrix.

  • 14. 
    What factor is the stated desire or history of terrorist attacks against US interests?
    • A. 

      Activity

    • B. 

      Intentions

    • C. 

      Operational capability

    • D. 

      Operating environment

  • 15. 
    Our first line of defense against intelligence collection efforts is
    • A. 

      Communication security (COMSEC)

    • B. 

      Computer security (COMPUSEC)

    • C. 

      Information security (INFOSEC)

    • D. 

      Operations security (OPSEC)

  • 16. 
    The primary purpose of the operations security (OPSEC) program is to 
    • A. 

      Support the OPSEC NCO in charge by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

    • B. 

      Support the wing CC by ensuring the command or organization has an OPSEC program.

    • C. 

      Support the CC by ensuring the command or organization actively practices OPSEC.

    • D. 

      Prevent our communications from falling into the wrong hands.

  • 17. 
    When should CC's and planners identify mission-critical information?
    • A. 

      At the earliest possible moment.

    • B. 

      Only after the subordinate CC's have been notified

    • C. 

      Only after the review and approval from higher-head quarters CCs

    • D. 

      Never; CCs and planners should not have to identify any critical info.

  • 18. 
    Which threat spectrum level consists of small tactical units, unconventional warfare forces, and gurrillas
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 19. 
    Which threat level I activity is identified by random acts against targets of opportunity? 
    • A. 

      Partisans.

    • B. 

      Terrorists.

    • C. 

      Sympathizers.

    • D. 

      Agent activity

  • 20. 
    Missions that primarily target nuclear weapons-related facilities are what threat spectrum level?
    • A. 

      IV

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      II

    • D. 

      I

  • 21. 
    Which threat level uses doctrine that stresses the use of battalion-size units to conduct helicopter insertions to a depth of 50km
    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

  • 22. 
    What group routinely manages the risk assessment process for CCs
    • A. 

      FP working.

    • B. 

      Anti-terrorism working.

    • C. 

      Physical security.

    • D. 

      Threat working.

  • 23. 
    Compiling and examining all available information concerning potential threat by threat analysts is a/an
    • A. 

      Annual process.

    • B. 

      Bi-annual process.

    • C. 

      Monthly process.

    • D. 

      Continual process.

  • 24. 
    What assessment addresses the broad range of physical threat to the security of personnel and assets, and should be conducted periodically?
    • A. 

      Risk.

    • B. 

      Threat.

    • C. 

      Vulnerability.

    • D. 

      Anti-terrorism.

  • 25. 
    The key to FP countermeasure planning is 
    • A. 

      The classified protection plan

    • B. 

      Protecting sensitive information

    • C. 

      The offensive FP plan

    • D. 

      The defensive FP plan

  • 26. 
    The capability to reduce the capability of attacking forces and reconnaissance assets through the principles of hide, blend, disguise, and decoy to protect friendly assets and aim points with materials and equipment that alter or obscure part or all of their multispectral signatures is
    • A. 

      Cover, camouflage, and deception (CCD)

    • B. 

      Concealing camouflage deceitfully (CCD)

    • C. 

      Deceptive camouflage concealment (DCC)

    • D. 

      Camouflage, concealment and deception (CCD)

  • 27. 
    To modify to prevent recognition of the true identity or character of an asset or activity is to 
    • A. 

      Hide

    • B. 

      Blend

    • C. 

      Decoy

    • D. 

      Disguise

  • 28. 
    The political-military nature of military operations other that war (MOOTW) requires you to coordinate your activities 
    • A. 

      Through the Department of State, drug enforcement agencies, and Immigration and Naturalization Services.

    • B. 

      With a number of government and civilian agencies outside the department of Defense.

    • C. 

      Through the Red Cross, Red Crescent, and Cooperative for Assistance and relief Everywhere.

    • D. 

      Through the joint rear area CC (JRAC)

  • 29. 
    Military operations other than war (MOOTW) missions do not include 
    • A. 

      Quarantine

    • B. 

      Peacekeeping

    • C. 

      Clandestine infiltration

    • D. 

      Humanitarian assistance

  • 30. 
    Which military operations other than war (MOOTW) principle never permits hostile factions to acquire a military, political, or informational advantage?
    • A. 

      Unity of Effort

    • B. 

      Objective

    • C. 

      Restraint

    • D. 

      Security

  • 31. 
    As a Total Force organization, a typical air and space expeditionary force (AEF) is responsive and capable of
    • A. 

      Full spectrum of air and space domination

    • B. 

      Deploying to multiple geographic locations simultaneously

    • C. 

      Deploying to conduct broad range operations with minimum waring time

    • D. 

      Supporting multi-national forces under the control of host nation CCs

  • 32. 
    What is the time limit for an air and space expeditionary force (AEF) package to respond to and unexpected contingency?
    • A. 

      12 hrs

    • B. 

      24 hrs

    • C. 

      48hrs

    • D. 

      72hrs

  • 33. 
    What does SF provide for the IBD concept?
    • A. 

      Support

    • B. 

      Foundation

    • C. 

      Tactical Operation

    • D. 

      Retrograde operations

  • 34. 
    Based on the IBD concept of operations, what are all Airmen considered?
    • A. 

      Detectors

    • B. 

      Monitors

    • C. 

      Fighters

    • D. 

      Sensors

  • 35. 
    Which essential element of the IBD concept slows the enemy without the need for a massive response at the outset of an engagement?
    • A. 

      Anticipate

    • B. 

      Detect

    • C. 

      Delay

    • D. 

      Deny

  • 36. 
    What does the risk management process allow the CC to determine?
    • A. 

      Countermeasures options

    • B. 

      If reassessments and follow ups are needed

    • C. 

      Whether to introduce risk management process training

    • D. 

      If there is a need to maximize live-fire training on full impact ranges

  • 37. 
    An expeditionary military force is defined as a force that conducts military operations 
    • A. 

      Within 24 hrs of notification in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives.

    • B. 

      On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

    • C. 

      On short notice in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve unlimited and unclear objectives.

    • D. 

      Within 72 hrs in response to crises with forces tailored to achieve limited and clearly stated objectives

  • 38. 
    What does the AF maintain to support the on-call air and space expeditionary force, as well as on-call lead wings to open expeditionary bases?
    • A. 

      Two bomber group leads (BGL)

    • B. 

      Three BGLs

    • C. 

      Four BGLs

    • D. 

      Five BGLs

  • 39. 
    The key to optimizing peacetime participation of the traditional guardsman and reservists who must balance military duties with full-time civilian employment is
    • A. 

      Predictability

    • B. 

      Flexibility

    • C. 

      Mobility

    • D. 

      Stability

  • 40. 
    Since unit type codes (UTC) are functionally grouped, what will all security forces UTCs have as a designator?
    • A. 

      UT

    • B. 

      FP

    • C. 

      AT

    • D. 

      QF

  • 41. 
    When the need for a new UTC or a major change in an existing UTC is required, who may initiate the action for the change?
    • A. 

      Any level

    • B. 

      Unit level

    • C. 

      Major Command (MAJCOM) level

    • D. 

      Air Staff level only

  • 42. 
    What is the list of all unit type codes (UTC) approved for use in planning?
    • A. 

      Air Force Unit Tasking Document (AUTD)

    • B. 

      Air Force-wide UTC roster (AFWUR)

    • C. 

      Air expeditionary Unit Tasking summary sheet (AUTSS)

    • D. 

      Air Force-wide Unit type code availability system (AFWUS)

  • 43. 
    Directing your operation toward a defined and attainable objective that contributes to operational and tactical claim is what principle of war
    • A. 

      Maneuver

    • B. 

      Offensive

    • C. 

      Objective

    • D. 

      Mass

  • 44. 
    Avoiding unnecessary complexity in organizing, preparing, planning, and conducting military operations is what principle of war?
    • A. 

      Unity of Command

    • B. 

      Simplicity

    • C. 

      Objective

    • D. 

      Offensive

  • 45. 
    CCs do not use ROE's to ensure operations
    • A. 

      Follow the rule of law

    • B. 

      Meet manning standards

    • C. 

      Follow national policy goals

    • D. 

      Follow mission requirements

  • 46. 
    Guidance on the application of force and exercising of the inherent right and obligation of self-defense is the purpose of the 
    • A. 

      United Nations

    • B. 

      Geneva Convention

    • C. 

      Joint force CCs directives

    • D. 

      US military's standing ROE's

  • 47. 
    What is one of the fundamental purposes of the LOAC?
    • A. 

      Prevent unnecessary suffering

    • B. 

      Prevent use of political influence

    • C. 

      Maintain a well-defined military plan

    • D. 

      Provide equal representation of all combatants

  • 48. 
    What is the key element in the design of forces that should be paramount to planners?
    • A. 

      Sustainability

    • B. 

      Attainability

    • C. 

      Flexibility

    • D. 

      Simplicity

  • 49. 
    What UTC is a 4-person team designed to provide 24-hr security forces augmentation to immediate headquarters for ground defense and weapons systems security functions?
    • A. 

      QFDB9

    • B. 

      QFEBA

    • C. 

      QFEBB

    • D. 

      QFEBD

  • 50. 
    What UTC, when deployed with UTCs QFEBB  and QFEBS, provides HQ staff support for a medium to large (130-180 personnel) deployed SF unit.
    • A. 

      QFEBU

    • B. 

      QFEPR

    • C. 

      QFFPF

    • D. 

      QFEBA

  • 51. 
    What UTC is composed of one home station-validated explosive detection dog and an assigned handler?
    • A. 

      QFEBM

    • B. 

      QFEBN

    • C. 

      QFEBP

    • D. 

      QFEBR

  • 52. 
    What UTC consists of a 3-person team of specially trained and equipped SF personnel, who deploy as mission essential ground personnel on airlift aircraft transiting or operating out of high-risk locations?
    • A. 

      QFEBU

    • B. 

      QFEPR

    • C. 

      QFFPF

    • D. 

      QFFPG

  • 53. 
    During peacetime operation, what UTC would provide the initial security for USAF resources and personnel, conduct convoys; and defend local and other security missions as required?
    • A. 

      QFEB2

    • B. 

      QFEB3

    • C. 

      QFEB4

    • D. 

      QFEB5

  • 54. 
    What UTC is essential to direct the fire of and provide support for the mortar teams?
    • A. 

      QFEBK

    • B. 

      QFEBR

    • C. 

      QFEBJ

    • D. 

      QFERT

  • 55. 
    What pre-deployment factor is considered a constant?
    • A. 

      Weather

    • B. 

      Treaties

    • C. 

      Intelligence

    • D. 

      Political climate

  • 56. 
    How long are the majority of SF UTC's capable of existing without support?
    • A. 

      5 days

    • B. 

      7 days

    • C. 

      14 days

    • D. 

      30 days

  • 57. 
    What is a base already possessing resources and an established infrastructure? 
    • A. 

      Bare base

    • B. 

      Standby base

    • C. 

      Main operating base

    • D. 

      Collocated operating base

  • 58. 
    What operations are key to assembling an accurate picture of the battle space?
    • A. 

      Ground defense

    • B. 

      Clandestine

    • C. 

      Intelligence

    • D. 

      Aerial

  • 59. 
    Fixed bases having well-established perimeters usually have limited 
    • A. 

      Depth

    • B. 

      Intelligence

    • C. 

      Denial capabilities

    • D. 

      All-around defense

  • 60. 
    What two factors add depth to the battle outside the perimeter, allowing the base to continue its primary mission with minimal interference? 
    • A. 

      Counter-reconnaissance and counterattack

    • B. 

      Counter-espionage and counterattack.

    • C. 

      Counterattack and counter-resistance.

    • D. 

      Counter-defense and counterattack.

  • 61. 
    What is not an example of a routine in defense measure?
    • A. 

      Personal hygiene, sanitation, rest, relief, and rotation.

    • B. 

      Area of operation policing for cleanliness.

    • C. 

      Weapons maintenance and cleaning schedules.

    • D. 

      Assign sectors of fire.

  • 62. 
    What should always be your first priority of work?
    • A. 

      Establish local security.

    • B. 

      Emplace obstacles and mines.

    • C. 

      Prepare primary fighting positions.

    • D. 

      Mark or improve marking for target reference points.

  • 63. 
    What should the defense force CC consider in the sectorization scheme to provide maximum protection for base critical resources?
    • A. 

      The entire base tactical boundary.

    • B. 

      The entire ABD plan

    • C. 

      The entire tactical area of responsibility (TAOR)

    • D. 

      The limiting factors to the defense of the air base

  • 64. 
    What would necessitate the need to dig hasty firing positions in the field? 
    • A. 

      When you have made contact with the enemy

    • B. 

      When time and materials are not a factor

    • C. 

      When there is ample natural cover

    • D. 

      When aerial strikes are imminent

  • 65. 
    Where is an excellent position to place a marksman in an urban area?
    • A. 

      A scrape out

    • B. 

      A shell crate

    • C. 

      Peak of a roof

    • D. 

      Under a parked vehicle

  • 66. 
    When the machine gun is not assigned to the maneuver element, what is its primary mission?
    • A. 

      Provide covering fire for the assault element

    • B. 

      It's only function is with the maneuver element.

    • C. 

      Provide over-head fire for maneuvering fire teams

    • D. 

      Lay down covering fore for reconnaissance elements

  • 67. 
    When establishing base sectors, you must ensure critical resources and areas are
    • A. 

      Located on unidentifiable terrain

    • B. 

      Split between two sectors

    • C. 

      Evenly grouped

    • D. 

      Camouflaged

  • 68. 
    In terms of engagement ranges, machine guns in the base-of-fire element may find themselves firing at targets within how many meters of the element? 
    • A. 

      400

    • B. 

      600

    • C. 

      800

    • D. 

      1000

  • 69. 
    Proper machine gun placement maximizes fire in 
    • A. 

      Area and mass

    • B. 

      Width and depth

    • C. 

      Length and width

    • D. 

      Length and depth

  • 70. 
    What is the main mission of the machine gun?
    • A. 

      To provide a high rate of fire to fight off enemy attacks

    • B. 

      To protect and defend through defensive and offensive missions

    • C. 

      To protect the wounded and critical resources from further injury or destruction

    • D. 

      To provide the most effective firepower against any weapon the enemy can attack with

  • 71. 
    What does not need to be shown on a sketch?
    • A. 

      LP/OP locations and patrol routes, if any

    • B. 

      Maximize engagement lines for the light anti-tank weapons

    • C. 

      Mines, sensors, and obstacles

    • D. 

      Location of home station flight

  • 72. 
    What provides key info to the defense force CC and support staffs on specific ABD  activities in order to make decisions, and develop and implement tactical plans and orders?
    • A. 

      Maps

    • B. 

      Signals

    • C. 

      Reports

    • D. 

      Telegrams

  • 73. 
    What is an engagement priority for machine gun gunners to direct their fire?
    • A. 

      Individual personnel

    • B. 

      Light armored vehicles in sector

    • C. 

      Crew-served automatic weapons

    • D. 

      Groups of five or more in the primary sector

  • 74. 
    When conducting ambushes, units refer to the engagement areas as
    • A. 

      ENGAGEMENT ZONE

    • B. 

      AMBUSH ZONE

    • C. 

      DEATH ZONE

    • D. 

      KILL ZONE

  • 75. 
    Which principle of indirect fire aims to destroy enemy soldiers and degrade the effectiveness of enemy vehicles by causing them to fight buttoned-up
    • A. 

      Integrating indirect suppressive fires

    • B. 

      Unit protection as rounds impact

    • C. 

      Required effect

    • D. 

      Timing

  • 76. 
    Because the danger increases with the size of the weapons, how should artillery be used when integrating indirect suppressive fires to support the breach and assault?
    • A. 

      On enemy positions away from the breach site

    • B. 

      To isolate the objective

    • C. 

      For close suppression

    • D. 

      To clear a path

  • 77. 
    A "call for fire" is a message 
    • A. 

      Given to an observer

    • B. 

      Prepared by the unit

    • C. 

      Prepared by an observer

    • D. 

      Prepared by the flight leader

  • 78. 
    Against what threat levels can close precision engagement add significantly to delaying actions by enhancing the standoff capabilities of defense forces?
    • A. 

      III and IV

    • B. 

      II and III

    • C. 

      II and IV

    • D. 

      I and IV

  • 79. 
    Once fully implemented, what will the IBD security system greatly enhance in base defensive operations?
    • A. 

      Alarms and detection

    • B. 

      Detection and security

    • C. 

      Security and prevention

    • D. 

      Detection and alert notifications

  • 80. 
    Where is the best position for you to locate an LP/OP
    • A. 

      In a water tower

    • B. 

      In a stand-alone position

    • C. 

      In a single small gathering of trees

    • D. 

      In a position that doesn't draw attention

  • 81. 
    LP/OP teams are not equipped to 
    • A. 

      Indicate enemy location using flares

    • B. 

      Protect themselves

    • C. 

      Report information

    • D. 

      Observe the area

  • 82. 
    What placement allows for redundancy in observation and better sector coverage?
    • A. 

      All-around

    • B. 

      In-depth

    • C. 

      Area

    • D. 

      Spot

  • 83. 
    A relatively secure area that allows for positive identification of personnel and vehicles is defined as 
    • A. 

      Exclusion area

    • B. 

      Search area

    • C. 

      Denial area

    • D. 

      Safe area

  • 84. 
    What three subordinate areas are search areas divided into?
    • A. 

      Personnel, vehicle, and safe

    • B. 

      Personnel, vehicle, and denial

    • C. 

      Personnel, vehicle, and reaction force

    • D. 

      Personnel, vehicle, and response force

  • 85. 
    What are the two types of obstacles you may encounter?
    • A. 

      Existing and reinforcing

    • B. 

      Disrupting and turning

    • C. 

      Blocking and turning

    • D. 

      Turning and fixing

  • 86. 
    Protective barriers consist of what two major categories?
    • A. 

      Man-made and fabricated

    • B. 

      Natural and structural

    • C. 

      Hard and soft

    • D. 

      Left and right

  • 87. 
    The environment for SF personnel working in the entry control facilities must be 
    • A. 

      Protected and guarded

    • B. 

      Safe and comfortable

    • C. 

      Well lit and elevated

    • D. 

      Cool and calm

  • 88. 
    The immediate impression the entry control facility must impart through its design is one of 
    • A. 

      Strict and rigid rules

    • B. 

      Relaxation and friendliness

    • C. 

      Professionalism and commitment

    • D. 

      Openness, professionalism and commitment

  • 89. 
    You should make restricted areas as small as possible to eliminate the 
    • A. 

      Number of troops required guarding it

    • B. 

      Amount of time it would take to patrol the area

    • C. 

      Need for securing and maintaining unnecessary terrain

    • D. 

      Necessity of care and maintenance required for a larger area

  • 90. 
    The authority for establishing a national defense area (NDS) is shown with
    • A. 

      A red line

    • B. 

      A temporary sign

    • C. 

      Rope marking off the area

    • D. 

      Posted guards every 50 ft