3f051 V3

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 33

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
Air Force Quizzes & Trivia

.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The accurate accounting for all Air Force personnel at all times regardless of location is defined as what element of accountability?
    • A. 

      Tasked wing.

    • B. 

      Total force.

    • C. 

      Transient.

    • D. 

      Strength.

  • 2. 
    Regardless of status, personnel support for contingency operations (PERSCO) maintains accountability over all personnel on the ground, including transients at their deployed and designated geographically separated locations. Which element of accountability does this describe?
    • A. 

      Tasked wing

    • B. 

      Total force.

    • C. 

      Transient.

    • D. 

      Strength.

  • 3. 
    Forces that spend at least one night in billeting at a location but their final duty location is elsewhere describes which element of accountability?
    • A. 

      Replacement.

    • B. 

      Total force.

    • C. 

      Transient.

    • D. 

      Strength.

  • 4. 
    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a very important component of the total force in these operations except
    • A. 

      Relief.

    • B. 

      Offensive.

    • C. 

      Defensive.

    • D. 

      Deterrence.

  • 5. 
    The Air National Guard (ANG) is a unique institution with both
    • A. 

      Federal and overseas missions.

    • B. 

      Federal and state missions

    • C. 

      State and community missions.

    • D. 

      Overseas and community missions

  • 6. 
    What force is composed of significant elements assigned or attached of two or more military departments under a single Joint Force Commander (JFC)?
    • A. 

      Combined.

    • B. 

      Joint.

    • C. 

      Operational.

    • D. 

      Strength.

  • 7. 
    Which system does the Air Force use to account for joint forces?
    • A. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS)

  • 8. 
    The air expeditionary force’s (AEF) primary purpose is to provide
    • A. 

      Warfighter support.

    • B. 

      Stability to Airmen

    • C. 

      Predictability to Airmen.

    • D. 

      Fair share tempo band support.

  • 9. 
    The air expeditionary force (AEF) doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do all of these except
    • A. 

      Deploy.

    • B. 

      Sustain.

    • C. 

      Present.

    • D. 

      Organize.

  • 10. 
    What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force Management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
    • A. 

      Air Staff.

    • B. 

      Joint Staff.

    • C. 

      HQ Air Force (HAF).

    • D. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

  • 11. 
    Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is capable of establishing and operating an air base?
    • A. 

      Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

    • B. 

      Air expeditionary group (AEG).

    • C. 

      Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

    • D. 

      Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

  • 12. 
    Which component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) normally consists of one or two operations squadrons, associated maintenance squadrons, and mission-specific expeditionary combat support (ECS) squadrons?
    • A. 

      Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

    • B. 

      Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

    • C. 

      Air expeditionary group (AEG).

    • D. 

      Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

  • 13. 
    What component of the air expeditionary task force (AETF) is considered the basic war fighting organization and the building block of the AETF structure?
    • A. 

      Numbered expeditionary Air Force (NEAF).

    • B. 

      Air expeditionary group (AEG).

    • C. 

      Air expeditionary squadron (AES).

    • D. 

      Air expeditionary wing (AEW).

  • 14. 
    An operations plan (OPLAN) includes all of these documents except
    • A. 

      Supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD).

    • B. 

      Annexes.

    • C. 

      Appendices.

    • D. 

      Air Force instructions (AFI).

  • 15. 
    The War Mobilization Plan (WMP) consists of how many volumes?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 16. 
    Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume provides a consolidated reference source for general policies and guidance for mobilization planning and the support of combat forces?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 17. 
    Which War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) volume is governed by AFI 25–101, Air Force War Reserve Material (WRM) Policies and Guidance?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 18. 
    The details of an operations plan (OPLAN) are found in its annexes. Each annex and appendix consists of how many sections?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 19. 
    What is the operations plan (OPLAN) Annex for Personnel?
    • A. 

      Annex B.

    • B. 

      Annex E.

    • C. 

      Annex K.

    • D. 

      Annex Q.

  • 20. 
    What is the operations plan (OPLAN) annex for Medical Services?
    • A. 

      Annex B.

    • B. 

      Annex E.

    • C. 

      Annex H.

    • D. 

      Annex Q.

  • 21. 
    What is the Department of Defense (DOD) directed single integrated joint command and control (C2) system for conventional operations planning and execution?
    • A. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

  • 22. 
    The objective of which system is to enable improved and streamlined operations planning and execution processes which include associated policy and procedures, along with organizational and technology improvements?
    • A. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • C. 

      Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

  • 23. 
    Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES) supports all phases of operations planning and execution at all of these levels except
    • A. 

      Wing/squadron.

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      Headquarters Air Force (HAF).

    • D. 

      Numbered Air Force (NAF).

  • 24. 
    During a catastrophic event, Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) standardizes a method for the Air Force to account, assess, manage, and monitor the recovery and reconstitution process for
    • A. 

      Military personnel only.

    • B. 

      Military and civilian personnel only

    • C. 

      Wing, group, and squadron commanders only.

    • D. 

      All personnel and their families affected.

  • 25. 
    Which C-rating would the commander assign if the unit possesses the required manpower and resources and is trained to undertake the full mission?
    • A. 

      C-1

    • B. 

      C-2

    • C. 

      C-3

    • D. 

      C-4

  • 26. 
    Air Force manpower and logistics requirements documented in JOPES/DCAPES time phased force deployment data (TPFDD) are used in support of all of these documents except
    • A. 

      Operations order (OPORD).

    • B. 

      Operations plan (OPLAN).

    • C. 

      Functional plan (FUNCPLAN).

    • D. 

      Concept plans (CONPLAN).

  • 27. 
    What type of unit type code (UTC) is used in JOPES/DCAPES to identify manpower and logistics requirements for deployment, movement planning, and plan execution?
    • A. 

      Standard

    • B. 

      Associate.

    • C. 

      Nonstandard.

    • D. 

      No-associate.

  • 28. 
    What type of unit type code (UTC) is considered a placeholder for all deployable positions that cannot be described or do not fit into an existing deployable UTC?
    • A. 

      Standard.

    • B. 

      Associate.

    • C. 

      Nonstandard.

    • D. 

      Nonassociate.

  • 29. 
    The manpower force packaging system (MANFOR) provides Air Force planners with standardized force capability outlining manpower requirements for all of the following except
    • A. 

      Operations planning.

    • B. 

      Execution documents.

    • C. 

      Employment planning.

    • D. 

      Readiness measurement.

  • 30. 
    Which is not one of the guidelines used to determine when a unit type code (UTC) must be developed?
    • A. 

      New equipment types enter the inventory

    • B. 

      When new equipment needs to be replaced.

    • C. 

      Significant program changes occur in manpower or equipment.

    • D. 

      Deployable units experience a significant change in either operational concept or mission.

  • 31. 
    When a unit type code (UTC) is no longer needed, who can request the UTC be cancelled?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    • B. 

      MEFPAK responsible agency (MRA).

    • C. 

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • D. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

  • 32. 
    All Air Force personnel contribute to the air expeditionary force (AEF); therefore, all authorizations must be postured in the
    • A. 

      Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Mission capability statement (MISCAP).

    • C. 

      Unit type code (UTC) availability.

    • D. 

      Unit manning document (UMD).

  • 33. 
    The specific unit type codes (UTC) to posture is based on the Air Staff functional area manager (FAM) prioritization and sequencing instructions that can be found in or on the
    • A. 

      AEFC AEF Online website

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC readiness website

    • C. 

      AFCSM 36–699, Military Personnel Data System

    • D. 

      AFI 10–401, Air Force Operations Planning and Execution

  • 34. 
    A-UTCs are postured in the unit type code (UTC) availability and aligned to the
    • A. 

      Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS).

    • B. 

      Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) libraries.

    • C. 

      Needs of the deployment location

    • D. 

      Tempo bands.

  • 35. 
    Mobilization of the air reserve component (ARC) is also called or considered
    • A. 

      Initiation.

    • B. 

      Activation.

    • C. 

      Recruitment

    • D. 

      Employment.

  • 36. 
    To meet immediate requirements for augmentation of the active Air Force during emergency or contingency operations describes which type of activation?
    • A. 

      Volunteerism.

    • B. 

      Total mobilization

    • C. 

      Partial mobilization

    • D. 

      Presidential selected reserve call up.

  • 37. 
    Expansion of the active armed forces by mobilization of reserve component (RC) units and/or individual reservists to deal with a situation where armed forces may be required to protect life, federal property and functions or to prevent disruption of federal activities describes which type of activation?
    • A. 

      Full mobilization.

    • B. 

      Total mobilization.

    • C. 

      Partial mobilization

    • D. 

      Selective mobilization for a domestic emergency

  • 38. 
    Activation that requires passage by the Congress of a public law or joint resolution declaring war or a national emergency describes which type of activation?
    • A. 

      Full mobilization.

    • B. 

      Total mobilization.

    • C. 

      Partial mobilization.

    • D. 

      Presidential selected reserve call up.

  • 39. 
    Normally, Push-Pull activation will not be recommended unless all of these factors are present except
    • A. 

      Partial or full mobilization has been or is expected to be granted.

    • B. 

      Shortages can be predicted in terms of Air Force specialty code (AFSC), quantity, and timing.

    • C. 

      Large deployments of Air Force forces are required accompanied by expected personnel shortages.

    • D. 

      Pretrained individual manpower (PIM) resources do not represent the best source of personnel to satisfy the projected shortages.

  • 40. 
    Once the deactivation process occurs, the projected separation in the personnel data system (PDS) flows from base to Headquarters Air Force (HAF); the HAF records status changes from 10 to
    • A. 

      17

    • B. 

      18

    • C. 

      19

    • D. 

      20

  • 41. 
    On the projected effective date of deactivation, Headquarters Air Force (HAF) changes the member’s record status from 20 to
    • A. 

      81

    • B. 

      82

    • C. 

      83

    • D. 

      84

  • 42. 
    When demobilization orders are not required, what two documents are used to verify deactivation?
    • A. 

      DD Form 214 and a copy of TDY orders.

    • B. 

      DD Form 214 and the paid travel voucher.

    • C. 

      Copy of activation orders and DD Form 214.

    • D. 

      Copy of temporary duty (TDY) orders and paid travel voucher

  • 43. 
    In order to be issued a DD Form 214, how many consecutive days must an activated volunteer serve?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      45

    • C. 

      60

    • D. 

      90

  • 44. 
    The purpose of the Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-day program is to provide the Air Force (AF) with skilled manpower to support AF missions when which component resources are not available?
    • A. 

      Regular.

    • B. 

      Guard.

    • C. 

      Reserve.

    • D. 

      Conscript.

  • 45. 
    Military Personnel Appropriation (MPA) man-day orders for air reserve component (ARC) members supporting active component (AC) in a voluntary status should be for durations of how many days?
    • A. 

      60 days or less.

    • B. 

      120 days or less

    • C. 

      150 days or less

    • D. 

      181 days or less

  • 46. 
    Once an air reserve component (ARC) member begins an military personnel appropriation (MPA) tour, they are obligated to fulfill how much of the tour length?
    • A. 

      Quarter.

    • B. 

      Half.

    • C. 

      Three fourths

    • D. 

      Entire.

  • 47. 
    Combatant commanders are also referred to as
    • A. 

      Joint Force commander

    • B. 

      Troop commander

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Commander in charge.

  • 48. 
    Who nominates appointment of a combatant commander (CCDR)?
    • A. 

      President.

    • B. 

      Vice president

    • C. 

      Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF).

    • D. 

      Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS).

  • 49. 
    What staff is the mechanism through which the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) exercises responsibilities across the range of military operations from steady state operations in the engagement phase through major operations?
    • A. 

      Air Force forces (AFFOR).

    • B. 

      Combatant commander (CCDR)

    • C. 

      Major command (MAJCOM) commander.

    • D. 

      Area of responsibility (AOR) commander

  • 50. 
    The Air Force forces (AFFOR) staff supports the Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) in operational and what other type of responsibility?
    • A. 

      Mission.

    • B. 

      Taskings.

    • C. 

      Service.

    • D. 

      Administrative.

  • 51. 
    Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel deploying are processed according to the reporting guidance/processing instructions?
    • A. 

      Unit personnel

    • B. 

      Supporting command

    • C. 

      Supported command

    • D. 

      Unit deployment manager

  • 52. 
    Who outlines unique reporting requirements and their submission timelines and develops and validates personnel requirements for sourcing overall approval authority for unit type code (UTC) tailoring actions?
    • A. 

      Unit personnel.

    • B. 

      Unit deployment manager

    • C. 

      Supported command.

    • D. 

      Supporting command.

  • 53. 
    Who serves as the force support squadron (FSS) war planner for the personnel facet of all contingencies, exercises, and deployments?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • C. 

      Airmen and Family Readiness

    • D. 

      Customer Support

  • 54. 
    Who does the installation personnel readiness (IPR) work with to ensure the installation deployment plan covers all aspects of processing and accounting for movement of personnel?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • C. 

      Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

    • D. 

      Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

  • 55. 
    Which organization helps define the requirements and improve deployment procedures in conjunction with the installation’s responsible agencies, subordinate commanders, and functional managers?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR)

    • C. 

      Logistics Plans

    • D. 

      Manpower.

  • 56. 
    Which organization must Manpower coordinate with to ensure success of deployment operations?
    • A. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • B. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

    • C. 

      Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

    • D. 

      Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC).

  • 57. 
    What is a centralized function aligned under the logistics readiness squadron/commander (LRS/CC) and generally located within the LRS facilities?
    • A. 

      Logistics plans.

    • B. 

      Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

    • C. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

    • D. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

  • 58. 
    The permanent staff of the installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC) consist of all of these organizations except
    • A. 

      Logistics plans.

    • B. 

      Installation deployment officer (IDO).

    • C. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • D. 

      Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

  • 59. 
    Who is a member assigned to a unit that manages all deployment readiness and training aspects for all deployable personnel and equipment within their units to ensure they are deployment ready?
    • A. 

      Manpower commander

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR) personnel.

    • C. 

      Unit deployment manager (UDM).

    • D. 

      Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC) chief

  • 60. 
    Before tasking individuals to deploy, the unit commander must review not only duty status codes but also the
    • A. 

      Member’s mental state.

    • B. 

      Deployment availability (DAV) codes.

    • C. 

      Last three enlisted performance reports (EPR).

    • D. 

      Results of the member’s physical training (PT) test.

  • 61. 
    Who uses Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS) to update, maintain, and correct deployment availability (DAV) codes?
    • A. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR) and Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

    • B. 

      IPR and military personnel section (MPS).

    • C. 

      A&FRC only.

    • D. 

      IPR only.

  • 62. 
    During a disaster, commanders must take all prudent measures to apply guidance to account for
    • A. 

      All personnel.

    • B. 

      Enlisted only.

    • C. 

      Officers only.

    • D. 

      Active duty only

  • 63. 
    Who is the first and most critical link when it comes to establishing accountability of forces?
    • A. 

      Unit commander

    • B. 

      Unit control center

    • C. 

      Personnel control center.

    • D. 

      Force support squadron commander

  • 64. 
    Which type of accountability is maintained of all deployed locations employment requirements manning document (ERMD) requirements and personnel against those positions?
    • A. 

      Unit.

    • B. 

      Strength.

    • C. 

      Total force.

    • D. 

      Replacement.

  • 65. 
    Which type of accountability do deployed commanders use to account for the personnel assigned to them?
    • A. 

      Replacement.

    • B. 

      Total Force

    • C. 

      Strength.

    • D. 

      Unit.

  • 66. 
    Installation personnel readiness (IPR) also serves as what organization that reports directly to the Base Crisis Action Team during exercises, inspections, disaster control exercises and accomplishes personnel actions required to respond to natural disasters, chemical, biological or nuclear attacks?
    • A. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

    • B. 

      Personnel control center (PCC).

    • C. 

      Reception control center

    • D. 

      Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

  • 67. 
    To whom does the personnel control center (PCC) provide the capability to determine how many personnel, by skill, are available at any time?
    • A. 

      Military personnel section (MPS).

    • B. 

      Supervisors only.

    • C. 

      Commanders only.

    • D. 

      Commanders and staff.

  • 68. 
    To ensure accurate accountability, what must the PERSCO team (PT) establish?
    • A. 

      Reception and inprocessing procedures

    • B. 

      Order and control

    • C. 

      Pressure tactics.

    • D. 

      In-processing only.

  • 69. 
    How many copies of contingency/exercise/deployment (CED) orders must PERSCO teams (PT) must collect from each member?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      5

  • 70. 
    When members in-process, the PERSCO team (PT) must review all of these documents for accuracy except
    • A. 

      Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

    • B. 

      AF Form 623.

    • C. 

      Servicemembers’ Group Life Insurance (SGLI).

    • D. 

      ID tags

  • 71. 
    Accountability will be maintained in how many separate places by the PERSCO team (PT)?
    • A. 

      0

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      3

  • 72. 
    Air Force active duty (AD), Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC), Air National Guard (ANG), major commands (MAJCOM), wings, groups, and units will make every effort to meet all
    • A. 

      Requests.

    • B. 

      Goals

    • C. 

      Deployments.

    • D. 

      Taskings.

  • 73. 
    Once a disaster has been officially declared, all Department of Defense (DOD) components shall report personnel accountability utilizing which system?
    • A. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Personnel Accountability Reporting System (PARS).

  • 74. 
    Who plays a large part in monitoring Air Force Personnel Accountability and Assessment System (AFPAAS) during evacuation/emergency events in order to track the personal needs of personnel and their family members?
    • A. 

      Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • C. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

    • D. 

      Airman & Family Readiness Center (A&FRC).

  • 75. 
    Who is responsible for total force accountability (TFA) in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO).

    • B. 

      Wing commander.

    • C. 

      Unit commander.

    • D. 

      Installation deployment readiness cell (IDRC).

  • 76. 
    Which team is the basis for forming an Expeditionary Force Support Squadron (EFSS) and includes a commander, superintendent, and the basic PERSCO accountability team?
    • A. 

      RFPF2––PERSCO Augmentation Team.

    • B. 

      RFPF3––PERSCO Sustainment Team

    • C. 

      RFL01––Command and Control Team.

    • D. 

      RFL02––Manpower and Personnel Force Management Team.

  • 77. 
    The component command personnel planner determines the PERSCO team (PT) requirements at each location based on a variety of factors. The formula of one personnel per how many individuals is used as a guide?
    • A. 

      275

    • B. 

      290

    • C. 

      375

    • D. 

      390

  • 78. 
    The personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) is a multifunctional entity consisting of representatives from all of these agencies except
    • A. 

      Legal.

    • B. 

      Chaplain.

    • C. 

      Finance.

    • D. 

      Communications.

  • 79. 
    The installation deployment officer (IDO) in conjunction with whom determines base requirements for standing up a personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?
    • A. 

      FSS commander.

    • B. 

      MPS commander

    • C. 

      MPS chief.

    • D. 

      OIC.

  • 80. 
    Whenever a personal deployment facility (PDF) line is not required, what will the deploying personnel be provided to ensure they visit the required services offered in a formal personnel deployment facility function (PDFF) line?
    • A. 

      They are exempt.

    • B. 

      Out-processing checklist.

    • C. 

      Numbers of the out-processing agencies.

    • D. 

      Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED) updates.

  • 81. 
    Strength accountability provides valuable planning and decision making information to senior leaders at all levels concerning all except
    • A. 

      Deployed force closure.

    • B. 

      Force sustainment

    • C. 

      Force structure.

    • D. 

      Force availability

  • 82. 
    How often will PERSCO teams (PT) update Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES)?
    • A. 

      Daily.

    • B. 

      Twice a week.

    • C. 

      Three times a week.

    • D. 

      Bi-weekly.

  • 83. 
    Duty status change (DSC) reports will continue to be sent by what local time?
    • A. 

      1400 hrs.

    • B. 

      1700 hrs.

    • C. 

      2000 hrs.

    • D. 

      2400 hrs.

  • 84. 
    Promotion selection results for enlisted/E5 and above are released simultaneously through which system?
    • A. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

    • C. 

      AF Portal.

    • D. 

      Email.

  • 85. 
    What will deployed PERSCO teams (PT) have access to as "read only"?
    • A. 

      PT scores.

    • B. 

      Bank accounts

    • C. 

      Military records.

    • D. 

      Virtual Record of Emergency Data (vRED).

  • 86. 
    What is an individual considered when he/she arrives at a location that is not their final destination and stays in AF billeting?
    • A. 

      Deployer.

    • B. 

      Transient.

    • C. 

      Coalition force.

    • D. 

      PERSCO team member.

  • 87. 
    Which AF form and system is used to account for transients?
    • A. 

      910 and installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • B. 

      245 and Global Command and Control System (GCCS).

    • C. 

      245 and Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • D. 

      910 and Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

  • 88. 
    The rotation and redeployment concepts apply to onward or forward deployments as well as returns to
    • A. 

      Home station

    • B. 

      Home of record.

    • C. 

      The area of responsibility (AOR).

    • D. 

      Contingency/exercise/deployment (CED) orders.

  • 89. 
    A redeployment assistance team (RAT) may be established to facilitate
    • A. 

      Redeployments

    • B. 

      Travel vouchers.

    • C. 

      Family separation pay.

    • D. 

      Airline tickets.

  • 90. 
    What provides the PERSCO team (PT) a list of in-place and employment requirement authorizations for the deployed location?
    • A. 

      Duty status change (DSC).

    • B. 

      Unit manning document (UMD).

    • C. 

      Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).

    • D. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

  • 91. 
    Which agency can provide deployed commanders and their troops with general information or respond to specific inquiries across the entire spectrum of personnel programs?
    • A. 

      Military personnel section (MPS).

    • B. 

      Installation personnel readiness (IPR).

    • C. 

      Total force service center (TFSC).

    • D. 

      AF Portal.

  • 92. 
    A member must respond within how many days of assignment selection notification of intent to separate or retire?
    • A. 

      3 duty days.

    • B. 

      3 calendar days

    • C. 

      7 duty days.

    • D. 

      7 calendar days

  • 93. 
    If a deployed member is separating/retiring you should include how many additional days to complete out-processing actions?
    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60.

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

  • 94. 
    Who is the focal point for personnel readiness within AF USAF/A1XO?
    • A. 

      AFPC/DPWOR.

    • B. 

      AFPC/ROW.

    • C. 

      HAF

    • D. 

      HAF/XP.

  • 95. 
    Which web-based application is managed by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)?
    • A. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • B. 

      Deployment Processing Discrepancy Reporting Tool (DPDRT).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Employment requirements manning document (ERMD).

  • 96. 
    Which agency is able to update personnel actions while deployed?
    • A. 

      PERSCO team (PT)

    • B. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

  • 97. 
    In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s)
    • A. 

      Senior master sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief master sergeant (CMSgt) only

    • B. 

      Master sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt

    • C. 

      Staff sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt

    • D. 

      CMSgt only.

  • 98. 
    What is the department’s functional information system of record for the DD Form 1300?
    • A. 

      Defense Casualty Information Processing System (DCIPS).

    • B. 

      Deliberate Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segments (DCAPES).

    • C. 

      Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES).

    • D. 

      Military Personnel Data System (MilPDS).

  • 99. 
    Which Hasty Report is a follow-up report to the Hasty Report (Initial)?
    • A. 

      Civilian

    • B. 

      Medical Progress Report

    • C. 

      Deceased.

    • D. 

      Missing.

  • 100. 
    All duty status whereabouts unknown (DUSTWUN) casualties require search progress reports every
    • A. 

      24 hrs.

    • B. 

      48 hrs

    • C. 

      72 hrs

    • D. 

      96 hrs