3D153 Practice Exam

320 Questions | Total Attempts: 1668

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3D153 Practice Exam

This practice exam takes all URE questions from Vol 1 - 3 and randomly gives you 100 to answer. The questions are different every time you take this, so make sure to take this practice test more than once or twice! Hint: This is the MINIMUM you need to know. The number in parenthesis preceding each question gives you the section the answer can be found in. Be sure to read through each section!


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    (201) Equipment used for generating, amplifying, and transmitting RF carrier is collectively called
    • A. 

      A receiver.

    • B. 

      An antenna.

    • C. 

      A transmitter.

    • D. 

      A transmission line.

  • 2. 
    (201) What basic receiver function involves having the transmitted electromagnetic wave pass through the receive antenna in such a manner as to induce a voltage in the antenna?
    • A. 

      Reproduction

    • B. 

      Reception

    • C. 

      Detection

    • D. 

      Selection

  • 3. 
    (201) The ability to reproduce the input signal accurately is characteristic of the receiver’s
    • A. 

      Fidelity.

    • B. 

      Capacity.

    • C. 

      Sensitivity.

    • D. 

      Selectivity.

  • 4. 
    (202) A combination of a transmitter and receiver that is built as a single unit and sharing common tuned circuits is called a
    • A. 

      Transmitter.

    • B. 

      Transceiver.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Coupler.

  • 5. 
    (202) Which of the following cannot be performed by the transceiver’s computerized components and micro-circuitry?
    • A. 

      Specific equipment faults

    • B. 

      Internal equipment tests

    • C. 

      Internal calibrations

    • D. 

      The ability to repair itself

  • 6. 
    (203) A transmission line that consists of a center conductor placed inside a metal tube functioning as the outer shield is called a
    • A. 

      Flexible coaxial cable.

    • B. 

      Rigid coaxial cable.

    • C. 

      Waveguide.

    • D. 

      Twin lead.

  • 7. 
    (203) Which selection best describes the term “cutoff frequency” when discussing transmission line properties?
    • A. 

      The frequency where XL becomes so low that the signal is shunted.

    • B. 

      The frequency where XC causes the signal to be shunted.

    • C. 

      The lowest frequency that the line can pass successfully.

    • D. 

      The frequency at which standing waves are maximum.

  • 8. 
    (203) Using figure 1–10, determine the wavelength if the frequency is changed from 150 MHz to 250 MHz.
    • A. 

      12.0 meters.

    • B. 

      3.0 meters.

    • C. 

      1.5 meters.

    • D. 

      1.2 meters.

  • 9. 
    (203) Using figure 1–10, determine the electrical length if the frequency is changed from 150 MHz to 250 MHz.
    • A. 

      8.33 meters.

    • B. 

      8.33 wavelengths.

    • C. 

      83.3 meters.

    • D. 

      83.3 wavelengths.

  • 10. 
    (203) A non-resonant transmission line is a line
    • A. 

      Having reflected waves.

    • B. 

      Having no reflected waves.

    • C. 

      With maximum voltage across its open termination.

    • D. 

      With maximum voltage across its shorted termination.

  • 11. 
    (203) If a transmission line is terminated in a short,
    • A. 

      Current is at maximum and voltage at minimum at the termination.

    • B. 

      Current is at minimum and voltage at maximum at the termination.

    • C. 

      There would be a nominal amount of signal gain.

    • D. 

      The line would be non-resonant.

  • 12. 
    (204) In a basic communication system, what converts radio frequency (RF) energy’s current oscillation into electric and magnetic fields of force?
    • A. 

      Antenna.

    • B. 

      Coupler.

    • C. 

      Transmitter.

    • D. 

      Transmission lines.

  • 13. 
    (204) The concept that alternating current (AC) changes in magnitude and reverses its direction during each cycle is
    • A. 

      An unproven hypothesis.

    • B. 

      The definition of propagation.

    • C. 

      What makes radio transmission possible.

    • D. 

      What led to the discovery of direct current.

  • 14. 
    (205) If the electric field component travels in a plane perpendicular to the Earth’s surface, the radio wave is
    • A. 

      Magnetically polarized.

    • B. 

      Horizontally polarized.

    • C. 

      Circularly polarized.

    • D. 

      Vertically polarized.

  • 15. 
    (205) What types of polarization do satellite terminals transmit and receive?
    • A. 

      Transmit horizontal and receive vertical polarizations.

    • B. 

      Transmit vertical and receive horizontal polarizations.

    • C. 

      Transmit right hand and receive left hand circular polarizations.

    • D. 

      Transmit left hand and receive right hand circular polarizations.

  • 16. 
    (206) What measurement is used to determine whether an antenna is resonant at a particular frequency?
    • A. 

      Distortion.

    • B. 

      Standing wave ratio.

    • C. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio.

    • D. 

      Percent of modulation.

  • 17. 
    (206) The ability of an antenna to both receive and transmit equally well is known as the antenna’s
    • A. 

      Bandwidth.

    • B. 

      Resonance.

    • C. 

      Reciprocity.

    • D. 

      Effectiveness.

  • 18. 
    (206) The standard used to measure the radiating effectiveness (gain) of an antenna system is the
    • A. 

      Marconi antenna.

    • B. 

      Isotropic antenna.

    • C. 

      Hertz antenna.

    • D. 

      Whip antenna.

  • 19. 
    (206) What does the effectiveness of an entire transmitting and receiving system depend largely upon?
    • A. 

      Impedance matching.

    • B. 

      Antenna distance.

    • C. 

      Antenna properties.

    • D. 

      Line characteristics.

  • 20. 
    (207) Which antenna radiates radio energy in a circular pattern?
    • A. 

      Omnidirectional.

    • B. 

      Unidirectional.

    • C. 

      Bidirectional.

    • D. 

      Directional.

  • 21. 
    (207) Which antenna type is usually used on long-range, point-to-point circuits where the concentrated radio energy is needed for circuitry reliability?
    • A. 

      Omnidirectional.

    • B. 

      Unidirectional.

    • C. 

      Bidirectional.

    • D. 

      Circular.

  • 22. 
    (208) Ungrounded lengths of wire specifically designed to be either a half-wavelength or more than full wavelength long is called a
    • A. 

      Reflector.

    • B. 

      Hertz antenna.

    • C. 

      Marconi antenna.

    • D. 

      Vertical monopole.

  • 23. 
    (209) A long-wire’s takeoff angle depends on the antenna’s
    • A. 

      Length.

    • B. 

      Directivity.

    • C. 

      Front-to-back ratio.

    • D. 

      Standing wave ratio.

  • 24. 
    (209) All antennas used in satellite communications are designed to be
    • A. 

      Circular directional.

    • B. 

      Omnidirectional.

    • C. 

      Bidirectional.

    • D. 

      Directional.

  • 25. 
    (209) A common satellite antenna is the
    • A. 

      Whip.

    • B. 

      Discone.

    • C. 

      Parabolic.

    • D. 

      Long-wire.

  • 26. 
    (209) A helical antenna radiates a signal with what type of polarization?
    • A. 

      Horizontal.

    • B. 

      Vertical.

    • C. 

      Circular.

    • D. 

      Linear.

  • 27. 
    (210) Aircraft antennas are housed
    • A. 

      Inside non-conductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.

    • B. 

      Inside conductive radomes mounted outside or flush with the fuselage.

    • C. 

      Outside non-conductive radomes mounted outside the fuselage.

    • D. 

      Inside conductive radomes mounted flush with the fuselage.

  • 28. 
    (210) In airborne antenna applications for frequencies in the upper portion of the HF band, what vertical angles are used for multi-hop, long distance transmission?
    • A. 

      90 and 180 degrees.

    • B. 

      60 and 90 degrees.

    • C. 

      30 and 60 degrees.

    • D. 

      5 and 30 degrees.

  • 29. 
    (210) What determines an antenna’s location and orientation on the aircraft?
    • A. 

      Antennas always require a 360° radiating pattern.

    • B. 

      The type of aircraft propulsion and power system.

    • C. 

      Antennas are always mounted on top of the fuselage.

    • D. 

      Optimizing the antenna’s radiating pattern for its application.

  • 30. 
    (210) Which type of airborne antenna can be designed into any part of an aerospace vehicle’s surface, so that it does not upset its aerodynamic properties?
    • A. 

      Fixed blade.

    • B. 

      Conformal.

    • C. 

      Probe tip.

    • D. 

      Whip.

  • 31. 
    (211) In selecting an antenna for a circuit, what is the first thing to look at?
    • A. 

      Type of propagation.

    • B. 

      Selecting the antenna.

    • C. 

      Determine the distance.

    • D. 

      Finding the operating frequency.

  • 32. 
    (212) Which object has the greatest effect on an antenna?
    • A. 

      Sun.

    • B. 

      Earth.

    • C. 

      Operator.

    • D. 

      Ionosphere.

  • 33. 
    (212) Where is the most challenging location for a radio frequency (RF) transmission systems technician to establish and operate a radio station from?
    • A. 

      Amazon jungle.

    • B. 

      North Pole.

    • C. 

      Sahara desert.

    • D. 

      Sierra Nevada mountains.

  • 34. 
    (212) With a mountain between you and the distant end, which antenna is more effective?
    • A. 

      Whip.

    • B. 

      Dipole.

    • C. 

      Discone.

    • D. 

      Near-vertical incidence skywave (NVIS).

  • 35. 
    (213) Direct waves are radio waves that travel
    • A. 

      Long distances with few interruptions.

    • B. 

      From point to point along the earth’s surface.

    • C. 

      Through the air in a straight line.

    • D. 

      No more than 20 miles to the receive antenna.

  • 36. 
    (213) Radio waves that travel near the earth’s surface are called
    • A. 

      Earth waves.

    • B. 

      Global waves.

    • C. 

      Ground waves.

    • D. 

      Terrestrial waves.

  • 37. 
    (213) Sky wave transmission is used for which type of communications?
    • A. 

      Long distance.

    • B. 

      Sub-terrestrial.

    • C. 

      Atmospheric.

    • D. 

      Line of sight.

  • 38. 
    (214) The path that undergoes a 180° phase shift is a
    • A. 

      Ground-reflected path.

    • B. 

      Surface path.

    • C. 

      Direct path.

    • D. 

      Sky path.

  • 39. 
    (214) Which gives sky wave propagation its ability to communicate beyond the optical line-ofsight (LOS)?
    • A. 

      Refraction.

    • B. 

      Reflection.

    • C. 

      Earth’s conductivity.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric charge.

  • 40. 
    (214) Frequencies higher than the critical frequency are
    • A. 

      Returned to earth.

    • B. 

      Passed into space.

    • C. 

      The most desirable.

    • D. 

      Refracted by the F2 layer.

  • 41. 
    (214) In high frequency (HF) communications, the lowest frequency that arrives at the distant receiver on 90 percent of the undisturbed days of the month is called the
    • A. 

      Maximum usable frequency ( MUF).

    • B. 

      Lowest usable frequency (LUF).

    • C. 

      Operating frequency.

    • D. 

      Critical frequency.

  • 42. 
    (214) The abbreviation FOT is derived from the term
    • A. 

      Outbound traffic frequency.

    • B. 

      Optimum tropospheric frequency.

    • C. 

      Frequency of optimum transmission.

    • D. 

      Frequency of outbound transmission.

  • 43. 
    (214) Magneton splitting creates two waves called
    • A. 

      Direct and indirect.

    • B. 

      Ordinary and abnormal.

    • C. 

      In-phase and out-of-phase.

    • D. 

      Ordinary and extraordinary.

  • 44. 
    (214) What occurs when a transmitted signal travels over two or more separate paths during transmission?
    • A. 

      Skip effects.

    • B. 

      Modulation.

    • C. 

      Multipathing.

    • D. 

      Magneton splitting.

  • 45. 
    (215) What is the recombination process dependent upon?
    • A. 

      Season.

    • B. 

      Time of day.

    • C. 

      Regular variation.

    • D. 

      Irregular variations.

  • 46. 
    (215) Which layer of the ionosphere is most important to high frequency (HF) communications?
    • A. 

      D

    • B. 

      E

    • C. 

      F

    • D. 

      Topside

  • 47. 
    (215) During what season do we have the widest range of critical frequencies and less absorption of all frequencies?
    • A. 

      Fall.

    • B. 

      Winter.

    • C. 

      Spring.

    • D. 

      Summer.

  • 48. 
    (215) Sunspots are disturbances
    • A. 

      In the sun’s atmosphere.

    • B. 

      On the sun’s surface.

    • C. 

      In the ionosphere.

    • D. 

      Beneath the sun’s surface.

  • 49. 
    (216) For communications purposes, the usable frequency spectrum ranges from
    • A. 

      3 hertz (Hz) to 300 gigahertz (GHz+).

    • B. 

      300 Hz to 300 GHz.

    • C. 

      3000Hz to 3000 GHz.

    • D. 

      30 megahertz (MHz) to 300 MHz.

  • 50. 
    (216) What U.S. government agency divides the radio frequency (RF) spectrum into different bands?
    • A. 

      Federal Aviation Agency.

    • B. 

      American National Standard Institute.

    • C. 

      Federal Communications Commission.

    • D. 

      Institute of Electrical & Electronics Engineers, Inc.

  • 51. 
    (217) Near-vertical-incidence sky (NVIS) wave operations are most effective when using
    • A. 

      Lower high frequency (HF) frequencies.

    • B. 

      Higher HF frequencies.

    • C. 

      Medium HF frequencies.

    • D. 

      Low takeoff antenna angles.

  • 52. 
    (217) What frequency band is most susceptible to jamming?
    • A. 

      Low frequency.

    • B. 

      Medium frequency.

    • C. 

      High frequency.

    • D. 

      Very high frequency.

  • 53. 
    (217) What frequency bands does the MILSTAR satellite system use?
    • A. 

      High frequency (HF) and ultrahigh frequency (UHF).

    • B. 

      Super-high frequency (SHF) and extremely high frequency (EHF).

    • C. 

      Very high frequency (VHF) and SHF.

    • D. 

      VHF and UHF.

  • 54. 
    (218) The main very high frequency (VHF)/ultra high frequency (UHF) communications emphasis is on
    • A. 

      Long range deploy-able communications.

    • B. 

      Short range fixed communications.

    • C. 

      Emergency communications.

    • D. 

      Air-ground communications.

  • 55. 
    (219) Super high frequency (SHF)/extremely high frequency (EHF) range is limited to
    • A. 

      Scattering.

    • B. 

      Line-of-sight (LOS).

    • C. 

      Earth’s conductivity.

    • D. 

      Atmospheric absorption.

  • 56. 
    (220) In a move to overcome the limited range of forward propagation by tropospheric scatter (FPTS) without requiring many costly relay systems, what was developed?
    • A. 

      Optical horizon radar.

    • B. 

      Satellite communications.

    • C. 

      Microwave communications.

    • D. 

      Line-of-sight (LOS) communications.

  • 57. 
    (220) Why isn’t very high frequency (VHF) normally used for satellite communications?
    • A. 

      The frequency is too low.

    • B. 

      The frequency is too high.

    • C. 

      Ionospheric refraction can occur.

    • D. 

      The rate of absorption is too great.

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Optical; 15.

    • B. 

      Radio; 15.

    • C. 

      Optical; 33.

    • D. 

      Radio; 33.

  • 59. 
    (220) When K is greater than 4/3, the radio horizon will
    • A. 

      Decrease, then increase.

    • B. 

      Remain the same.

    • C. 

      Decrease.

    • D. 

      Increase.

  • 60. 
    (220) A radio wave originates at a center source in free space. If the field strength at one mile from the source has a field strength of 100 microvolts per meter, what is the field strength at two miles?
    • A. 

      25 microvolts per meter.

    • B. 

      50 microvolts per meter.

    • C. 

      100 microvolts per meter.

    • D. 

      200 microvolts per meter.

  • 61. 
    (221) Any military action involving the use of the electromagnetic (EM) spectrum to include directed energy to attack an enemy is called
    • A. 

      Electronic support (ES).

    • B. 

      Electronic warfare (EW).

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic pulse (EP).

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic interference (EI).

  • 62. 
    (221) Which is not an example of electronic protection (EP)?
    • A. 

      Frequency agility in a radio.

    • B. 

      Communications intelligence.

    • C. 

      Electronic and material shielding for systems.

    • D. 

      Process to counter meaconing, interference, jamming, and intrusion.

  • 63. 
    (221) Which electronic warfare (EW) component responds to taskings to search for, intercept, identify, and locate intentional and unintentional sources of radiated energy?
    • A. 

      Electronic attack (EA).

    • B. 

      Electronic control (EC).

    • C. 

      Electronic support (ES).

    • D. 

      Electronic protection (EP).

  • 64. 
    (222) Electromagnetic (EM) deception as it applies to electronic warfare (EW) is
    • A. 

      Controlling the information an enemy receives.

    • B. 

      The elimination of some or all of an adversary’s electronic defenses.

    • C. 

      The deliberate radiation of EM energy intended to convey misleading information to an enemy.

    • D. 

      Degrading or interfering with the enemy’s use of the EM spectrum to limit the enemy’s combat capabilities.

  • 65. 
    (223) What is the process of unscrambling encrypted information so that it is intelligible?
    • A. 

      Decryption.

    • B. 

      Encryption.

    • C. 

      Cryptography.

    • D. 

      Cryptanalysis.

  • 66. 
    (224) How many selectable traffic key slots does the KG–84A have?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      8

  • 67. 
    (224) Which switch on the KY–57 VINSON zeroizes channels one through five?
    • A. 

      Fill.

    • B. 

      Mode.

    • C. 

      Power.

    • D. 

      Volume.

  • 68. 
    (225) The common name for the method of changing the encryption keys over the radio channel in a two-way radio system is called
    • A. 

      Over-the-air-rekeying (OTAR).

    • B. 

      Asymmetric.

    • C. 

      Symmetric.

    • D. 

      Off-line.

  • 69. 
    (225) Centralized control of encryption keys will not reduce
    • A. 

      Procedural problems.

    • B. 

      Operational problems.

    • C. 

      Security problems.

    • D. 

      Safety problems.

  • 70. 
    (226) In frequency hopping (FH) operation, the interval at which each transmitter remains on a given frequency for a specific time is known as the
    • A. 

      Dwell time.

    • B. 

      Hopping rate.

    • C. 

      Frequency offset.

    • D. 

      Transmitter velocity.

  • 71. 
    (227) Which RT–1523 SINCGARS subassembly removes synchronization and frequency hopping information that is embedded in a receive signal?
    • A. 

      The interleaver.

    • B. 

      The modulator.

    • C. 

      The demodulator.

    • D. 

      The exciter/power amplifier module.

  • 72. 
    (227) The RT–1523 SINCGARS radio’s time sync and correlator module manipulates control signal outputs during the frequency hopping (FH) mode to
    • A. 

      Stop frequency shifts during receive operations.

    • B. 

      Shut down reception only during frequency shifts.

    • C. 

      Shut down transmission only during frequency shifts.

    • D. 

      Shut down reception and transmission during frequency shifts.

  • 73. 
    (228) Concerning HAVE QUICK II communications (MWOD), how long can each word of day (WOD) be used?
    • A. 

      Each WOD is used until it is manually changed.

    • B. 

      For a total of 3 days.

    • C. 

      For 48 hours.

    • D. 

      For 24 hours.

  • 74. 
    (229) Which one of the following statement is not a characteristic of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver?
    • A. 

      It operates from 116 MHz to 149.975 megahertz (MHz).

    • B. 

      It provides antijam communications in amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).

    • C. 

      It contains both HAVE QUICK and HAVE QUICK II.

    • D. 

      It can communicate on any one of 7,000 available channels.

  • 75. 
    (229) What does the low-pass filter of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver perform?
    • A. 

      Image frequency rejection in receive and harmonic attenuation in transmit.

    • B. 

      Image frequency rejection in transmit and harmonic attenuation in receive.

    • C. 

      RF decoupling in transmit and harmonic suppression in receive.

    • D. 

      RF decoupling in receive and harmonic suppression in transmit.

  • 76. 
    (229) The output power of the AN/GRC–171B(V)4 transceiver is
    • A. 

      25 Watts in both amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM).

    • B. 

      20 Watts in AM, 50 Watts in FM.

    • C. 

      20 Watts in AM, 20 Watts in FM.

    • D. 

      50 Watts in narrowband, 25 Watts in wideband.

  • 77. 
    (230) The Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS) is commonly referred to as
    • A. 

      Link 4A.

    • B. 

      Link 11.

    • C. 

      Link 16.

    • D. 

      Link 22.

  • 78. 
    (231) Which service uses the Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS) to locate and track amphibious assault craft?
    • A. 

      Army.

    • B. 

      Navy.

    • C. 

      Marines.

    • D. 

      Air Force.

  • 79. 
    (231) What type of network radio does the Air Force use for close air support?
    • A. 

      Single Channel Ground and Airborne Radio System (SCGARS).

    • B. 

      Enhanced Position Location Reporting System (EPLRS).

    • C. 

      Joint Tactical Information Distribution System (JTIDS).

    • D. 

      Situation Awareness Data Link (SADL).

  • 80. 
    (232) How many programmable devices can the multiband inter/intra team radio hold?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      5

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      10

  • 81. 
    (233) What must the primary and remote annunciators be capable of in an intrusion detection system (IDS)?
    • A. 

      Provide dual line of detection.

    • B. 

      Operate independently of one another.

    • C. 

      Backup power for one another.

    • D. 

      Located within the same area for redundancy.

  • 82. 
    (233) On a sensor system the annunciation display must be able to differentiate between
    • A. 

      Alarms and tampers.

    • B. 

      Alarms and equipment failures.

    • C. 

      Tampers and nuisance alarms.

    • D. 

      Failed self-test and power loss.

  • 83. 
    (233) The interior sensor that operates on a principle of magnetic fields imposed on a reed switch is a
    • A. 

      Dual-phenomenology.

    • B. 

      Passive infrared sensor.

    • C. 

      Balanced magnetic switch.

    • D. 

      Ported coaxial cable sensor.

  • 84. 
    (234) Which personnel identification device provides positive identification through measurement of biometrics?
    • A. 

      Card-reader personal identification number (PIN) pad.

    • B. 

      Card-reader prompt.

    • C. 

      Hand geometry unit (HGU).

    • D. 

      X-ray machine.

  • 85. 
    (234) On the advanced entry control system (AECS), which panel configuration monitors sensors and reports any alarm conditions detected?
    • A. 

      Security.

    • B. 

      Distribution.

    • C. 

      Portal control.

    • D. 

      Intrusion detection.

  • 86. 
    (234) What device on the advanced entry control system (AECS) allows the operator to install, review, modify, and broadcast databases created to all other workstations?
    • A. 

      Enrollment operator workstation.

    • B. 

      System administrator terminal.

    • C. 

      Enrollment master station.

    • D. 

      Security workstation.

  • 87. 
    (234) How many hours of power must the uninterrupted power supply (UPS) in an advanced entry control system (AECS) provide in the event that the station power is lost?
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 88. 
    (235) Which site configuration was designed to provide coverage for a small geographical area?
    • A. 

      Single-site.

    • B. 

      Multi-site.

    • C. 

      Simulcast.

    • D. 

      Multicast.

  • 89. 
    (236) What provides the interface between dispatch consoles and the central controller in a trunking system?
    • A. 

      Modems.

    • B. 

      Access control.

    • C. 

      Switching equipment.

    • D. 

      System management computer.

  • 90. 
    (236) How many talkgroups can a trunked mobile radio monitor at one time?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      Every talkgroup programmed in the radio.

  • 91. 
    (236) What has the ability to patch different talkgroups together?
    • A. 

      Control station.

    • B. 

      Dispatch console.

    • C. 

      Portable.

    • D. 

      Mobile.

  • 92. 
    (237) What Air Force instruction (AFI) requires communications squadrons to maintain “installation warning systems”?
    • A. 

      AFI 10–2501.

    • B. 

      AFI 21–116.

    • C. 

      AFI 33–106.

    • D. 

      AFI 33–118.

  • 93. 
    (237) What is a common problem with a mass alert system in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      Low power out.

    • B. 

      Efficiency.

    • C. 

      Cleanliness.

    • D. 

      Reliability.

  • 94. 
    (238) In the Whelen siren stacks, what size driver does a speaker cell contain?
    • A. 

      40–watt.

    • B. 

      60–watt.

    • C. 

      100–watt.

    • D. 

      400–watt.

  • 95. 
    (238) In the Whelen siren cabinet, what controls signal routing and power distribution of the system?
    • A. 

      Landline board.

    • B. 

      Control board.

    • C. 

      Motherboard.

    • D. 

      Radio board.

  • 96. 
    (238) With the Whelen configuration software, which tabs allow you to troubleshoot the system?
    • A. 

      Status and multi-format decoding (MFD).

    • B. 

      Status and dual tone multi-frequency (DTMF).

    • C. 

      Status and radio.

    • D. 

      Status and siren.

  • 97. 
    (239) In high frequency (HF) communications, your station’s self address is
    • A. 

      User programmed into your system.

    • B. 

      Shared with other members.

    • C. 

      The address of an unprogrammed station.

    • D. 

      The same address of other stations in the net.

  • 98. 
    (240) We define link quality analysis (LQA) as
    • A. 

      Reviewing a network station listing and determining which is assigned a clear channel.

    • B. 

      Reviewing a network station listing and assigning a channel to each.

    • C. 

      The process of sounding and determining channel clarity.

    • D. 

      The process of calling and determining channel clarity.

  • 99. 
    (241) What is the maximum power of the AN/PRC–150 in frequency modulation (FM) mode?
    • A. 

      5 watts.

    • B. 

      10 watts.

    • C. 

      15 watts.

    • D. 

      20 watts.

  • 100. 
    (242) Where do the modulation and digital-to-analog (D/A) conversion take place in the AN/PRC–150?
    • A. 

      Signal process and control module.

    • B. 

      Information security (INFOSEC) printed wiring board.

    • C. 

      Antenna coupler assembly.

    • D. 

      Crypto assembly.

  • 101. 
    (001) What reason for modulation involves modulating low frequency signals for transmission over long distances?
    • A. 

      Spectrum conservation.

    • B. 

      Channel allocation.

    • C. 

      Ease of radiation.

    • D. 

      Companding.

  • 102. 
    (001) What are the three general categories used to produce modulation in radio frequency (RF) transmission today?
    • A. 

      Binary amplitude shift keying, frequency shift keying, and phase shift keying.

    • B. 

      Pulse amplitude, pulse width, and pulse position.

    • C. 

      Amplitude, frequency, and phase.

    • D. 

      Analog, digital and shift keying.

  • 103. 
    (002) When the modulating signal and carrier signal are combined within a modulator, the output signal contains a/an
    • A. 

      Modulating signal, upper sideband, lower sideband.

    • B. 

      Carrier, upper sideband, and lower sideband.

    • C. 

      Upper sideband and modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Carrier and modulating signal.

  • 104. 
    (002) If a carrier frequency of 1 MHz and a modulating tone of 10 kHz goes to the modulator, the output signal include
    • A. 

      1.01 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.99 MHz.

    • B. 

      1.1 MHz, 1 MHz, and 0.9 MHz.

    • C. 

      1.11 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.99 MHz.

    • D. 

      1.111 MHz, 1 MHz, 0.999 MHz.

  • 105. 
    (002) If the modulating audio signal is 10 kHz wide, what is the bandwidth of the transmitted amplitude modulated signal?
    • A. 

      5 kHz.

    • B. 

      10 kHz.

    • C. 

      15 kHz.

    • D. 

      20 kHz.

  • 106. 
    (002) The bandwidth of an amplitude modulated signal is
    • A. 

      Two times the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      The same as the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Determined by the modulation index.

    • D. 

      Defined in terms of maximum amount of modulation.

  • 107. 
    (002) The amount of effect or change that the intelligence has on the carrier in an amplitude modulated signal is expressed as the
    • A. 

      Percent of modulation.

    • B. 

      Modulation index.

    • C. 

      Bandwidth.

    • D. 

      Deviation.

  • 108. 
    (002) Which statement concerning bandwidth is true?
    • A. 

      Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.

    • B. 

      Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the production of harmonics.

    • C. 

      Overmodulating increases bandwidth due to the output’s increased amplitude.

    • D. 

      Undermodulating increases bandwidth due to the output’s decreased amplitude.

  • 109. 
    (002) Reducing modulation to less than 100 percent gives
    • A. 

      More total power.

    • B. 

      A reduction in carrier power.

    • C. 

      No reduction in carrier power.

    • D. 

      A reduction in carrier and sideband power.

  • 110. 
    (003) In frequency modulation (FM), the amount of oscillator frequency change is
    • A. 

      Inversely proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      Directly proportional to the amplitude of the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Inversely proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Directly proportional to the phase of the modulating signal.

  • 111. 
    (003) In frequency modulation (FM), what is considered a significant sideband?
    • A. 

      Sidebands containing at least 1 percent of the total transmitted power.

    • B. 

      Sidebands containing at least 3 percent of the total transmitted power.

    • C. 

      Sidebands containing at least 10 percent of the total transmitted power.

    • D. 

      Sidebands containing at least 0.1 percent of the total transmitted power.

  • 112. 
    (003) What is the formula to find the modulating index?
    • A. 

      Deviation divided by frequency of modulation.

    • B. 

      Deviation times frequency of modulation.

    • C. 

      Sideband divide by carrier frequency.

    • D. 

      Sideband times carrier frequency.

  • 113. 
    (004) In phase modulation (PM), the carrier’s
    • A. 

      Phase is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.

    • B. 

      Phase shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.

    • C. 

      Amplitude is shifted at the rate of the modulating signal.

    • D. 

      Amplitude is shifted with the phase of the modulating signal.

  • 114. 
    (004) What is the advantage of adding more phase shifts?
    • A. 

      Easier detection.

    • B. 

      Smaller bit error rate.

    • C. 

      Better signal-to-noise ratio.

    • D. 

      Higher data rates within a given bandwidth.

  • 115. 
    (005) What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process?
    • A. 

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses.

    • B. 

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample.

    • C. 

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses.

    • D. 

      The analog signal is band-limited.

  • 116. 
    (005) What part of the pulse code modulation (PCM) process converts a continuous time signal into a discrete time signal?
    • A. 

      Sampling.

    • B. 

      Rectifying.

    • C. 

      Oscillating.

    • D. 

      Band limiting.

  • 117. 
    (005) A type of pulse modulation (PM) that changes the amplitude of the pulse train to vary according to the amplitude of the input signal is called
    • A. 

      Pulse width modulation (PWM).

    • B. 

      Pulse position modulation.

    • C. 

      Pulse duration modulation.

    • D. 

      Pulse amplitude modulation.

  • 118. 
    (006) If an error should occur, what data transmission is lost in a synchronous transmission?
    • A. 

      One character.

    • B. 

      Block of data.

    • C. 

      A parity bit.

    • D. 

      Synchronization (SYNC) bit.

  • 119. 
    (007) When using vertical redundancy check (VRC), what significance does the amount of ones have in a data bit pattern?
    • A. 

      Determines parity.

    • B. 

      Determines transmission rate.

    • C. 

      Determines whether transmission is in American Standard code for Information Interchange (ASCII) format.

    • D. 

      Determines whether transmission is synchronous or asynchronous.

  • 120. 
    (007) What two error detection methods, when used together, are 98 percent effective in detecting errors?
    • A. 

      Checksum and cyclic redundancy check.

    • B. 

      Longitudinal redundancy check and checksum.

    • C. 

      Cyclic redundancy check and vertical redundancy check.

    • D. 

      Vertical redundancy check and longitudinal redundancy check.

  • 121. 
    (007) What error detection method adds stacked characters, divides it by 255, and disregards the answer except for the remainder?
    • A. 

      Checksum.

    • B. 

      Block check character.

    • C. 

      Cyclic redundancy check.

    • D. 

      Vertical redundancy check.

  • 122. 
    (007) What error-correction technique sends a retransmittal request by the receiver to the sender if it finds an error in a received frame?
    • A. 

      Error-correcting code.

    • B. 

      Forward error control.

    • C. 

      Redundant data transfer.

    • D. 

      Automatic retransmit on request.

  • 123. 
    (007) When using forward error control as a method of error correction, where does error correction take place?
    • A. 

      Receiving end.

    • B. 

      In the oscillator.

    • C. 

      Transmitting end.

    • D. 

      In the primary buffers.

  • 124. 
    (008) What does an optical source do?
    • A. 

      Terminates fiber optics cable.

    • B. 

      Converts electrical energy into optical energy.

    • C. 

      Extend the distance and to preserve signal integrity.

    • D. 

      Accepts optical signals and converts them into electrical signals.

  • 125. 
    (008) Light sources that are applicable to fiber optic waveguide are light-emitting diodes (LED) and
    • A. 

      Photo transistors.

    • B. 

      Hybrid photodiodes.

    • C. 

      Semiconductor laser diodes.

    • D. 

      Integrated photodiode/preamplifiers.

  • 126. 
    (008) What type of light is emitted from a laser?
    • A. 

      Incoherent.

    • B. 

      Coherent.

    • C. 

      Ordinary.

    • D. 

      Invisible.

  • 127. 
    (008) Laser diode power coupling is measured in which range
    • A. 

      Megawatt.

    • B. 

      Microwatt.

    • C. 

      Milliwatt.

    • D. 

      Kilowatt.

  • 128. 
    (009) A device that accepts optical signals from an optical fiber and coverts them into electrical signals is called an optical
    • A. 

      Regenerator.

    • B. 

      Transmitter.

    • C. 

      Amplifier.

    • D. 

      Receiver.

  • 129. 
    (009) Small current that flows from a photodiode even with no light is called
    • A. 

      Dark current.

    • B. 

      Dispersion.

    • C. 

      Distortion.

    • D. 

      Ionization.

  • 130. 
    (009) The responsivity of a photo detector is dependent on the
    • A. 

      Emitter rise time.

    • B. 

      Wavelength of light.

    • C. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio (SNR).

    • D. 

      Emitter modulation speed.

  • 131. 
    (009) What are the two main types of photodetectors?
    • A. 

      Positive intrinsic negative and avalanche photodiode.

    • B. 

      Light-emitting diode (LED) and avalanche photodiode.

    • C. 

      LED and semiconductor laser.

    • D. 

      Tunnel and zener diodes.

  • 132. 
    (009) What photo detector converts one photon to one electron?
    • A. 

      Light emitting diode (LED).

    • B. 

      Avalanche photodiode.

    • C. 

      Positive intrinsic negative (PIN) diode.

    • D. 

      Integrated photodiode/preamplifier (IDP).

  • 133. 
    (010) What is used to extend the distance of a fiber optic communication systems link?
    • A. 

      Receiver.

    • B. 

      Transmitter.

    • C. 

      Repeater.

    • D. 

      Patch cords.

  • 134. 
    (010) Which repeater amplifies optical signal without converting to and from the electrical domain?
    • A. 

      Repeaters.

    • B. 

      Regenerators.

    • C. 

      Optical amplifiers.

    • D. 

      Receiver.

  • 135. 
    (011) Short sections of single fiber cables that has a connector at each end is called a
    • A. 

      Pigtail.

    • B. 

      Patch cord.

    • C. 

      Jumper.

    • D. 

      Breakout cables.

  • 136. 
    (011) Which fiber-optic connector uses quick-release, keyed bayonet couplings that are preferred in situations where severe vibrations are not expected?
    • A. 

      Biconic.

    • B. 

      Field connector (FC)

    • C. 

      Straight tip (ST).

    • D. 

      Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).

  • 137. 
    (011) Which fiber optic connector uses a push-pull engagement for mating?
    • A. 

      Biconic.

    • B. 

      Field (FC).

    • C. 

      Subscriber (SC).

    • D. 

      Sub-miniature, type A (SMA).

  • 138. 
    (012) What initial nuclear radiation elements generate electromagnetic pulses?
    • A. 

      Gamma rays and neutrons.

    • B. 

      Thermally generated x-rays.

    • C. 

      Transient radiation effects on electronics.

    • D. 

      Neutrons and thermally generated X-rays.

  • 139. 
    (012) High-altitude electromagnetic pulse is what type of frequency phenomenon, and involves which frequency range?
    • A. 

      Secondary; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.

    • B. 

      Wideband; 1 hertz to 1 gigahertz.

    • C. 

      Secondary; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.

    • D. 

      Wideband; 10 hertz to 10 gigahertz.

  • 140. 
    (012) A system-generated electromagnetic pulse is a problem for satellites and reentry vehicles that are
    • A. 

      Susceptible to the wideband frequency phenomenon.

    • B. 

      Directly exposed to nuclear radiations from a high-altitude burst.

    • C. 

      Affected by the azimuthal magnetic fields and time-varying air conductivity.

    • D. 

      Influenced by the signal fading or waveform distortion caused by the structured plasma field.

  • 141. 
    (012) Which distinct region of the source region electromagnetic pulse is produced by the interactions between the weapon products and the earth’s atmosphere?
    • A. 

      Secondary.

    • B. 

      Radiated.

    • C. 

      Plasma.

    • D. 

      Source.

  • 142. 
    (012) What electromagnetic pulse region is the principal threat to electronic systems by cable?
    • A. 

      Local.

    • B. 

      Source.

    • C. 

      Radiated.

    • D. 

      Long-line.

  • 143. 
    (012) How does scintillation effect communications?
    • A. 

      Large attenuation of the transmitted signal causing the received signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) to fall below unity.

    • B. 

      Transmitted signal fading caused by multiple path propagation through the structured plasma field.

    • C. 

      Layers of charged electrons that are trapped and prevent transmissions through the layer.

    • D. 

      Absorption of the transmitted signal through the contaminated area.

  • 144. 
    (012) Atmospheric disturbances from initial nuclear radiation on higher frequencies affect communications by which type of effect?
    • A. 

      Blackout.

    • B. 

      Absorption.

    • C. 

      Scintillation.

    • D. 

      Attenuation.

  • 145. 
    (013) Which one of the following statements are true concerning shielding?
    • A. 

      Cables should be of unshielded construction.

    • B. 

      Only ventilation ports are shielded along the walls.

    • C. 

      Sensitive equipment will be located within the shielded barrier.

    • D. 

      All power lines supplying shielded areas does not require filters.

  • 146. 
    (013) What is the purpose of bonding?
    • A. 

      To isolate facility from any external electrical electromagnetic propagation.

    • B. 

      To reduce interference coupling around circuits and around interconnecting lines.

    • C. 

      To ensure a mechanically strong, low impedance interconnection between metal objects.

    • D. 

      To eliminate harmful differences of potential between the various telephone cables entering facility.

  • 147. 
    (013) Which types of filters are always used in combination with surge arresters?
    • A. 

      Linear.

    • B. 

      Alternating current (AC) line.

    • C. 

      Direct current (DC) DC line.

    • D. 

      Power line.

  • 148. 
    (014) If the interference can be eliminated by disconnecting the receiving antenna, the source of the disturbance is most likely
    • A. 

      Line noise.

    • B. 

      Internal to the radio.

    • C. 

      External to the radio.

    • D. 

      Radio receiver trouble.

  • 149. 
    (014) What is an example of intentionally induced electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
    • A. 

      Jamming.

    • B. 

      Spurious responses.

    • C. 

      Intermodulation.

    • D. 

      Power line noise.

  • 150. 
    (014) What type of electromagnetic interference (EMI) occurs when a receiver responds to off-frequency signals?
    • A. 

      Rusty Bolt.

    • B. 

      Co-channel.

    • C. 

      Brute force.

    • D. 

      Spurious responses.

  • 151. 
    (014) What type of equipment often generates many spurious emissions?
    • A. 

      Slow tuning receiver.

    • B. 

      Rapid tuning receiver.

    • C. 

      Slow tuning transmitter.

    • D. 

      Rapid tuning transmitter.

  • 152. 
    (014) What man-made noise results from voltage surges, arcing, or corona discharges?
    • A. 

      Relays.

    • B. 

      Lighting.

    • C. 

      Power line.

    • D. 

      Switching equipment.

  • 153. 
    (014) How can you normally eliminate electromagnetic interference (EMI) noise bursts caused by sodium and mercury vapor lights that have stopped working while the power is still applied?
    • A. 

      Change the bulb.

    • B. 

      Ground out the light fixture.

    • C. 

      Install a noise reject filter on the light.

    • D. 

      Install a noise reject filter on the receiver.

  • 154. 
    (015) What Air Force program is used to resolve an electromagnetic interference (EMI) incident?
    • A. 

      Mishap prevention.

    • B. 

      Frequency management (FM).

    • C. 

      Electrostatic discharge (ESD) control.

    • D. 

      Spectrum interference resolution (SIR).

  • 155. 
    (015) At what level does the Air Force want electromagnetic interference (EMI) problems resolved?
    • A. 

      Affected unit.

    • B. 

      Affected major command.

    • C. 

      Electromagnetic environmental effects office.

    • D. 

      Spectrum interference resolution office.

  • 156. 
    (015) What is the first step in the Air Force spectrum interference resolution (SIR) program?
    • A. 

      Identify the source.

    • B. 

      Verifying the source.

    • C. 

      Resolving the interference.

    • D. 

      Reporting the interference.

  • 157. 
    (015) What do you do when you are reasonably sure electromagnetic interference (EMI) exists?
    • A. 

      Request engineering assistance.

    • B. 

      Contact the base frequency manager.

    • C. 

      Systematically gather data for analysis.

    • D. 

      Contact the spectrum interference resolution (SIR) office.

  • 158. 
    (015) Who is initially responsible for reporting an electromagnetic interference (EMI)?
    • A. 

      The operator.

    • B. 

      Major command (MAJCOM).

    • C. 

      The frequency manager (FM).

    • D. 

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

  • 159. 
    (015) Which Air Force service provides on-site direction finding and interference problem analysis?
    • A. 

      USAF Gold Flag Program.

    • B. 

      Unit Self-Sufficiency Support.

    • C. 

      Reliability and Maintainability Deficiency.

    • D. 

      Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability.

  • 160. 
    (015) What program addresses persistent and recurring interferences problems in joint operations?
    • A. 

      The reliability and maintainability.

    • B. 

      Joint Spectrum Interference Resolution (SIR).

    • C. 

      Air Force Spectrum Interference Resolution (AFSIR).

    • D. 

      The Quick Fix Interference Reduction Capability (QFIRC).

  • 161. 
    • A. 

      The operator.

    • B. 

      Joint Spectrum Center (JSC).

    • C. 

      Installation spectrum manager (ISM).

    • D. 

      Federal Communications Commission (FCC).

  • 162. 
    (016) Which feature of the Fluke 8025A locks the measurement into the display for viewing and automatically updates the display when you take a new measurement?
    • A. 

      Rotary switch.

    • B. 

      Range push button.

    • C. 

      Power-up self-test.

    • D. 

      Touch-hold push button.

  • 163. 
    (017) Which current range on the Fluke 8025A do you select to measure 250 milliamps alternating current (AC)?
    • A. 

      Microamps direct current (DC).

    • B. 

      Microamps AC.

    • C. 

      Milliamps/amp DC.

    • D. 

      Milliamps/amp AC.

  • 164. 
    (017) When testing a diode with the 8025A, the leads across a “good” diode produces an “OL” (open) on the display in one direction while reversing the leads produces
    • A. 

      A continuous audible tone.

    • B. 

      “SL” (short) on the display.

    • C. 

      A wavering audible tone.

    • D. 

      Three short beeps.

  • 165. 
    (018) How are voltage, time, and depth represented on the oscilloscope display?
    • A. 

      Voltage = intensity, time = vertical axis, and depth = horizontal axis.

    • B. 

      Voltage = intensity, time = horizontal axis, and depth = vertical axis.

    • C. 

      Voltage = horizontal axis, time = vertical axis, and depth = intensity.

    • D. 

      Voltage = vertical axis, time = horizontal axis, and depth = intensity.

  • 166. 
    (018) Which mode of triggering an oscilloscope causes a trace to be drawn on the screen at all times, whether there is an input signal or not?
    • A. 

      Auto.

    • B. 

      Norm.

    • C. 

      External.

    • D. 

      Source.

  • 167. 
    (019) Which probe does not need to actually make contact with the circuit under test?
    • A. 

      Current probe.

    • B. 

      Passive 1:1 probe.

    • C. 

      Active (FET) probe.

    • D. 

      Passive divider, 10:1 probe.

  • 168. 
    (020) What digital storage oscilloscope circuit compensates for high sampling rates of high frequency signals?
    • A. 

      Analog-to-digital converter.

    • B. 

      Digital-to-analog converter.

    • C. 

      Charged coupled device.

    • D. 

      Cathode-ray tube.

  • 169. 
    (020) Sampled data points are stored in the memory of a digital storage oscilloscope as
    • A. 

      Sequential records.

    • B. 

      Waveform points.

    • C. 

      Record lengths.

    • D. 

      Record points.

  • 170. 
    (020) What area of a digital storage oscilloscope takes digitized samples and performs numerous manipulations on the data including measuring rise and fall times, periods, time intervals, and math computations?
    • A. 

      Microprocessors.

    • B. 

      Acquisition.

    • C. 

      Memory.

    • D. 

      Input.

  • 171. 
    (020) What type of sampling does a digital storage oscilloscope normally use on single-shot or seldom-occurring signals?
    • A. 

      Sequential.

    • B. 

      Repetitive.

    • C. 

      Real-time.

    • D. 

      Random.

  • 172. 
    (020) In real-time sampling, what type of interpolation is used when measuring pulse waves?
    • A. 

      Sine.

    • B. 

      Linear.

    • C. 

      Non-uniform.

    • D. 

      Companding.

  • 173. 
    (020) Which are the three types of digital storage oscilloscope acquisition modes, and which is the standard operating mode?
    • A. 

      Sample, peak detect, averaging; sample.

    • B. 

      Real-time, peak detect, sample; real-time.

    • C. 

      Real-time, peak detect, sample; averaging.

    • D. 

      Sample, peak detect, averaging; peak detect.

  • 174. 
    (020) In acquiring a 4K record length on a digital storage oscilloscope, how many samples can you view at one time?
    • A. 

      1,000.

    • B. 

      2,000.

    • C. 

      3,000.

    • D. 

      4,000.

  • 175. 
    (021) What test equipment provides a bit error detection system that can determine the received data quality after traveling over a communications link?
    • A. 

      Megger.

    • B. 

      Multimeter.

    • C. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • D. 

      Bit error rate (BER).

  • 176. 
    (021) What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set accepts a 48-bit parallel word and generates a serial pattern?
    • A. 

      48-bit transmitter only.

    • B. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) generator.

    • C. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) comparator.

    • D. 

      48-bit register and 8-bit word display.

  • 177. 
    (021) What pattern simulator section of the bit error rate test set converts the non-return zero-level (NRZ-L) data into the desired coding, such as non-return zero-mark (NRZ-M)?
    • A. 

      Data drivers.

    • B. 

      Code converter.

    • C. 

      External data comparator.

    • D. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) generator.

  • 178. 
    (021) What pattern synchronizer and error counter section of the bit error rate test set internally generates its own pattern to compare with the received data from the data/clock receivers?
    • A. 

      48-bit transmitter.

    • B. 

      48-bit synchronizer/comparator.

    • C. 

      External data pattern synchronizer/comparator.

    • D. 

      Pseudo random noise (PRN) synchronizer/comparator.

  • 179. 
    (022) Which of these bit rates do you use for a bit error rate test on a 64 Kbps data circuit?
    • A. 

      511 bps.

    • B. 

      9,600 bps.

    • C. 

      64 Kbps.

    • D. 

      1.544 Mbps.

  • 180. 
    (022) On the bit error rate test (BER) set, the 25-pin connectors are designed to operate with data modems to
    • A. 

      Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to transmit the test pattern.

    • B. 

      Simplify connection of test equipment to the modem under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.

    • C. 

      Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to transmit the test pattern.

    • D. 

      Isolate test equipment from the data circuit under test and to carry the necessary signaling and handshake signals for modem operations.

  • 181. 
    (023) System grounds must continually be tested
    • A. 

      Randomly.

    • B. 

      Periodically.

    • C. 

      Every 10 years.

    • D. 

      Just one time only.

  • 182. 
    (024) A known current is generated by the earth ground tester between the earth ground electrode and the
    • A. 

      Grounding point

    • B. 

      Inner earth stake Y.

    • C. 

      Auxiliary current probe.

    • D. 

      Auxiliary potential probe.

  • 183. 
    (024) Where is voltage potential measured in the fall of potential ground testing method?
    • A. 

      Between the auxiliary potential electrode and the earth ground electrode.

    • B. 

      Between the auxiliary current electrode and the earth ground electrode.

    • C. 

      Between the auxiliary potential and auxiliary current electrodes.

    • D. 

      Between the earth ground electrode and the outer stake Z.

  • 184. 
    (024) The Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) have recommended a ground resistance value of
    • A. 

      5 ohms or less.

    • B. 

      10 ohms or less.

    • C. 

      20 ohms or less.

    • D. 

      25 ohms or less.

  • 185. 
    (025) What component on a protocol analyzer process the frames based on the selected test and user configuration inputs?
    • A. 

      Counter.

    • B. 

      Buffer.

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU).

    • D. 

      Filter.

  • 186. 
    (025) What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the network utilization and frame error that are related to a specific protocol?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 187. 
    (025) What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media access control (MAC) node statistics.

    • B. 

      Connection statistics.

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics.

    • D. 

      Node discovery.

  • 188. 
    (025) What active test is selected to see the path that the packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to compete the trip.
    • A. 

      Packet Internetwork Groper (PING).

    • B. 

      Trace Route.

    • C. 

      Traffic Generator.

    • D. 

      Route Generator.

  • 189. 
    (026) Which one of these is not an application of a radio frequency (RF) generator?
    • A. 

      Verifying transmitter frequencies.

    • B. 

      Troubleshooting receivers.

    • C. 

      Checking antenna systems.

    • D. 

      Aligning telemetry receivers.

  • 190. 
    • A. 

      Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-milliwatt standard.

    • B. 

      Ratio of decibels relative to a 1-megawatt standard.

    • C. 

      Actual power level expressed in milliwatts.

    • D. 

      Actual power level expressed in megawatts.

  • 191. 
    (028) During what operation is the radio frequency blanking output used on the HP 436A power meter?
    • A. 

      While in WATT mode operation.

    • B. 

      While in REMOTE mode operation.

    • C. 

      During the automatic zeroing operation.

    • D. 

      During calibration adjustment operation.

  • 192. 
    (029) Plug-in elements of the wattmeter are selected based on the
    • A. 

      Selection of the autorange function.

    • B. 

      Frequency and power to be measured.

    • C. 

      1-milliwatt standard and relative decibels.

    • D. 

      Absolute and relative power levels to be measured.

  • 193. 
    (029) The two switches on the front panel of the wattmeter is to correspond to the
    • A. 

      Power range of the reverse element.

    • B. 

      Power range of the forward element.

    • C. 

      Frequency range of the forward element.

    • D. 

      Frequency range of the reverse element.

  • 194. 
    (029) When reading forward power on a wattmeter, what does two right facing arrow head mean?
    • A. 

      Equipment malfunction.

    • B. 

      Calculating forward power.

    • C. 

      No power is applied for reading.

    • D. 

      Power exceeds 120 percent of the range.

  • 195. 
    (029) What feature is useful for making adjustments to optimize any of the parameters which the wattmeter measures?
    • A. 

      Peaking aid.

    • B. 

      Minimum reading.

    • C. 

      Maximum reading.

    • D. 

      Standing wave ratio.

  • 196. 
    (030) Which measurements are not made with a spectrum analyzer?
    • A. 

      Frequency stability.

    • B. 

      Peak-peak voltage.

    • C. 

      Amplitude modulation.

    • D. 

      Subcarrier oscillator outputs.

  • 197. 
    (031) Which are the correct four classes of electronic counters?
    • A. 

      Frequency counters, time counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • B. 

      Frequency counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • C. 

      Frequency counters, universal counters, period counters, and reciprocal counters.

    • D. 

      Scaling counters, universal counters, microwave counters, and reciprocal counters.

  • 198. 
    (032) What test equipment combines the operations of many test instruments into a single compact unit?
    • A. 

      Volt meter.

    • B. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • C. 

      Impedance meter.

    • D. 

      Communication service monitor.

  • 199. 
    (032) What function is not part of the communication service monitor?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency generator.

    • B. 

      Analog multimeter.

    • C. 

      Oscilloscope.

    • D. 

      Receiver.

  • 200. 
    (033) What operational capability of the communication service monitor produces sine, square, and triangle waveforms?
    • A. 

      Scope.

    • B. 

      Duplex.

    • C. 

      Receiver.

    • D. 

      Function generator.

  • 201. 
    (401) When using space diversity, the AN/TRC–170 receive antenna spacing should be a minimum of
    • A. 

      10 wavelengths apart.

    • B. 

      25 wavelengths apart.

    • C. 

      50 wavelengths apart.

    • D. 

      100 wavelengths apart.

  • 202. 
    (401) Which type of diversity requires two antennas, two receivers, and two transmitters?
    • A. 

      Polarization.

    • B. 

      Crossband.

    • C. 

      Frequency.

    • D. 

      Space.

  • 203. 
    (401) In an AN/TRC–170 terminal, the quantity of digital group multiplexer units supplied and their application are
    • A. 

      Different in the V2 and V3 systems.

    • B. 

      Identical in the V2 and V3 systems.

    • C. 

      Dependent on the mission and number of channels.

    • D. 

      Dependent on the deployment of the technical control.

  • 204. 
    (401) The MD–1026 digital data modem can interface up to four groups of
    • A. 

      Balanced non-return-to-zero (NRZ) signals.

    • B. 

      Conditioned diphase signals.

    • C. 

      Unbalanced NRZ signals.

    • D. 

      Isochronous signals.

  • 205. 
    (401) Which type of encryption device does full-duplex encryption of AN/TRC–170’s group or supergroup mission traffic?
    • A. 

      KY–68 digital secure voice terminal/phone.

    • B. 

      KY–58 VINSON.

    • C. 

      KG–84 dedicated loop encryption device.

    • D. 

      KG–81 trunk encryption device.

  • 206. 
    (401) Digital voice orderwire traffic that originates at the AN/TRC–170’s voice orderwire control unit is encrypted by the
    • A. 

      KY–68 digital secure voice terminal/phone.

    • B. 

      KY–58 VINSON encryption device.

    • C. 

      KG–84 dedicated loop encryption device.

    • D. 

      KG–81 trunk encryption device.

  • 207. 
    (401) Which jack field in the AN/TRC–170’s baseband patch panel provides timing and data connections?
    • A. 

      Middle.

    • B. 

      Center.

    • C. 

      Upper.

    • D. 

      Lower.

  • 208. 
    (401) The tropospheric scatter modem processes mission traffic at data rates of 128 through 4,096 Kbps in the
    • A. 

      512 Kbps data rate family.

    • B. 

      576 Kbps data rate family.

    • C. 

      1,024 Kbps data rate family.

    • D. 

      1,152 Kbps data rate family.

  • 209. 
    (401) Which unit in the AN/TRC–170 terminal contains the rubidium standard?
    • A. 

      Electrical frequency synthesizer.

    • B. 

      Frequency subsystem unit.

    • C. 

      Tropospheric scatter modem.

    • D. 

      Transmitter-amplifier converter.

  • 210. 
    (401) The quick reaction antenna for the V3 AN/TRC–170 terminal uses
    • A. 

      Two 6-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

    • B. 

      Four 6-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

    • C. 

      Two 9.5-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

    • D. 

      Four 9.5-foot-diameter, linearly dual-polarized antennas.

  • 211. 
    (402) The Tropo/Satellite Support Radio frequency coverage extends from
    • A. 

      4.4 to 5.25 GHz.

    • B. 

      7.25 to 8.4 GHz.

    • C. 

      14.4 to 15.25 GHz.

    • D. 

      17.25 to 18.4 GHz.

  • 212. 
    (402) The maximum distance a Tropo/Satellite Support Radio can operate with the 2-foot antenna is
    • A. 

      10 miles.

    • B. 

      25 miles.

    • C. 

      100 miles.

    • D. 

      250 miles.

  • 213. 
    (402) In the Tropo/Satellite Support Radio’s baseband assembly, a 1-volt peak-to-peak input signal results in how much frequency deviation in the transmitter?
    • A. 

      ±4 MHz.

    • B. 

      Less than ±4 MHz.

    • C. 

      More than ±4 MHz.

    • D. 

      No signal deviation.

  • 214. 
    (402) In the Tropo/Satellite Support Radio frequency assembly, what permits the transmitter and receiver to be connected to the same antenna?
    • A. 

      Circulator.

    • B. 

      Combiner.

    • C. 

      Coupler.

    • D. 

      Hybrid.

  • 215. 
    (402) What is the intermediate frequency of the Tropo/Satellite Support Radio?
    • A. 

      70 MHz with a 10 MHz bandpass.

    • B. 

      70 MHz with a 20 MHz bandpass.

    • C. 

      700 MHz with a 10 MHz bandpass.

    • D. 

      700 MHz with a 20 MHz bandpass.

  • 216. 
    (403) The closest point of orbit that a satellite comes to the Earth is called the
    • A. 

      Apogee.

    • B. 

      Perigee.

    • C. 

      Major axis.

    • D. 

      Minor axis.

  • 217. 
    (403) What is the inclination angle of a polar orbit?
    • A. 

      0 degrees.

    • B. 

      45 degrees.

    • C. 

      90 degrees.

    • D. 

      180 degrees.

  • 218. 
    (404) What are the two types of communications satellites?
    • A. 

      Active and passive.

    • B. 

      Active and real-time.

    • C. 

      Delay and passive.

    • D. 

      Delay and real-time.

  • 219. 
    (404) Which satellite reflects signals transmitted toward it?
    • A. 

      Active.

    • B. 

      Delay.

    • C. 

      Passive.

    • D. 

      Real-time.

  • 220. 
    (404) An advantage of passive satellites is that they
    • A. 

      Have a larger transmitter power.

    • B. 

      Have more sensitive equipment.

    • C. 

      Operate as repeater stations in space.

    • D. 

      Operate over a wider-frequency range.

  • 221. 
    (404) What is the time delay of a real-time satellite?
    • A. 

      0.1 seconds.

    • B. 

      0.6 seconds.

    • C. 

      1.0 seconds.

    • D. 

      6.0 seconds.

  • 222. 
    (405) What satellite access technique was the first multiple access method developed?
    • A. 

      Code division multiple access (CDMA).

    • B. 

      Time division multiple access (TDMA).

    • C. 

      Demand assigned multiple access (DAMA).

    • D. 

      Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

  • 223. 
    (405) What satellite access technique is being used when all channels are pooled and used by any station, according to its instantaneous traffic load?
    • A. 

      Code division multiple access (CDMA).

    • B. 

      Time division multiple access (TDMA).

    • C. 

      Demand assigned multiple access (DAMA).

    • D. 

      Frequency division multiple access (FDMA).

  • 224. 
    (406) When computing satellite look angles, ground distance on the earth’s surface is expressed in
    • A. 

      Degrees.

    • B. 

      Seconds.

    • C. 

      Minutes.

    • D. 

      Nautical miles.

  • 225. 
    (406) One degree of arc on the Earth’s surface equals
    • A. 

      One statute mile.

    • B. 

      One nautical mile.

    • C. 

      69 statute miles.

    • D. 

      69 nautical miles.

  • 226. 
    (407) Solar time is based on
    • A. 

      Atomic clock oscillations.

    • B. 

      Apparent constellation movement.

    • C. 

      The moon’s rotation about the sun

    • D. 

      The apparent motion of the sun in the sky.

  • 227. 
    (407) An atomic time scale is based on the frequency of which type of oscillator?
    • A. 

      Pendulum.

    • B. 

      Crystal.

    • C. 

      Quartz.

    • D. 

      Cesium.

  • 228. 
    (408) On what kind of clock system is coordinated universal time based?
    • A. 

      Amplitude modulation and pulse modulation.

    • B. 

      Daylight saving.

    • C. 

      24-hour.

    • D. 

      12-hour.

  • 229. 
    (409) The international agency responsible for coordinated universal time (UTC) is the
    • A. 

      United States Naval Observatory.

    • B. 

      International Bureau of Weights and Measures.

    • C. 

      Precision Measurement Equipment Laboratory.

    • D. 

      National Institute of Standards and Technology.

  • 230. 
    (409) Uploading satellite control data, tracking ballistic missiles, and predicting satellite tracking coordinates are examples of missions where all parties involved must have
    • A. 

      Identical time code formats.

    • B. 

      Different time code formats.

    • C. 

      Synchronized timing.

    • D. 

      Offset timing.

  • 231. 
    (410) What two factors cause a quartz oscillator’s resonant frequency to drift?
    • A. 

      Humidity and aging.

    • B. 

      Temperature and aging.

    • C. 

      Humidity and operating frequency.

    • D. 

      Temperature and operating frequency.

  • 232. 
    (410) The operation of the atomic clock is based on the phenomenon that
    • A. 

      Crystals resonate when an electric charge is applied.

    • B. 

      Atoms release energy at a particular resonant frequency.

    • C. 

      Atoms are sensitive to temperature and directional effects.

    • D. 

      When atoms are split they produce predictable nuclear reactions.

  • 233. 
    (411) Which type of modems transmits RF signals over coaxial cable?
    • A. 

      Voice.

    • B. 

      Cable.

    • C. 

      Radio.

    • D. 

      Wireless.

  • 234. 
    (412) What is multiplexing?
    • A. 

      Transmitting one signal over multiple transmission paths.

    • B. 

      Transmitting one signal multiple times over a single transmission path.

    • C. 

      Combining multiple signals for transmission over a single transmission path.

    • D. 

      Combining multiple signals for transmission over separate, individual transmission paths.

  • 235. 
    (412) What technique of multiplexing samples each low speed channel in sequence to interleave bits or characters and then transmit them at high speed?
    • A. 

      Wavelength division.

    • B. 

      Frequency division.

    • C. 

      Code division.

    • D. 

      Time division.

  • 236. 
    (412) Wavelength division multiplexing assigns each incoming optical signal to a specific
    • A. 

      Pseudorandom code.

    • B. 

      Frequency of light.

    • C. 

      Radio frequency.

    • D. 

      Time slot.

  • 237. 
    (413) What comprises a telemetry data stream?
    • A. 

      Mission data and mission satellite health and status data.

    • B. 

      Command data and mission satellite health and status data.

    • C. 

      Mission data, satellite ephemeris table, and satellite status data.

    • D. 

      Command data, satellite ephemeris table, and satellite status data.

  • 238. 
    (413) On a satellite, position and orientation control is especially critical for what type of antenna?
    • A. 

      Broadband.

    • B. 

      Wide angle.

    • C. 

      High frequency.

    • D. 

      Highly directional.

  • 239. 
    (414) The function of the command and control () segment of the space systems is to
    • A. 

      Provide downlink information and recover the payload and health and status data.

    • B. 

      Maintain the satellite health and status and recover the payload and health and status data.

    • C. 

      Provide downlink information and recover the payload and the area of coverage required by the program mission.

    • D. 

      Maintain the satellite health and status and recover the payload and the area of coverage required by the program mission.

  • 240. 
    (414) What type of command is sent to the satellite by the space systems mission control complex and contains embedded timing that specifies the time the satellite will execute the command?
    • A. 

      Real-time.

    • B. 

      Time-delayed.

    • C. 

      Timed program.

    • D. 

      Stored program.

  • 241. 
    (415) What is the purpose of the space system user segment?
    • A. 

      Receive, process, use, or distribute mission data as required by a program’s taskings.

    • B. 

      Receive, process, use, or distribute payload data and provide essential space support tasks as required by a program’s tasking.

    • C. 

      Transmit, process, use, or distribute mission data as required by a program’s tasking.

    • D. 

      Transmit, process, use, or distribute payload data and provide essential space support tasks as required by a program’s tasking.

  • 242. 
    (415) The two major subdivisions of the Defense Meteorological Satellite Program user segment are
    • A. 

      Air Force Weather Agency and the Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center and tactical terminals.

    • B. 

      Air Force Weather Agency and Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center only.

    • C. 

      Air Force Weather Agency and National Oceanographic Atmospheric Administration.

    • D. 

      Fleet Numerical Meteorology Oceanography Center and National Oceanographic Atmospheric Administration and tactical terminals.

  • 243. 
    (415) Which early warning center receives Defense Support Program warning data from the 460th Space Wing units?
    • A. 

      Air Force Weather Agency.

    • B. 

      Mission Control Squadron.

    • C. 

      Mission Control Command.

    • D. 

      North American Aerospace Defense Command.

  • 244. 
    (415) For an operational mission, the purpose of the global positioning system user segment is to enable users to
    • A. 

      Actively receive satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

    • B. 

      Actively transmit satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

    • C. 

      Passively receive satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

    • D. 

      Passively transmit satellite broadcast position, velocity, and time data.

  • 245. 
    (415) What system supports the National Command Authority and provides all-service (Army, Navy and Air Force) communication for interoperable command, control and communications () at all levels of conflict?
    • A. 

      Defense Satellite Communications System.

    • B. 

      Global Positioning System.

    • C. 

      Defense Support Program.

    • D. 

      Milstar.

  • 246. 
    (416) What sequence of events you must follow when establishing a communication link with a satellite?
    • A. 

      Frequency acquisition, space acquisition, antenna pointing, and satellite tracking.

    • B. 

      Satellite acquisition, satellite tracking, power correction, and antenna pointing.

    • C. 

      Orbit prediction, antenna pointing, satellite acquisition, and satellite tracking.

    • D. 

      Orbit prediction, space acquisition, and frequency acquisition.

  • 247. 
    (416) Telemetry refers to
    • A. 

      A low power signal transmitted from the satellite and is separate from the communications components.

    • B. 

      A low power signal transmitted from the satellite and is part of the communications components.

    • C. 

      The data transmitted by the satellite concerning on-board status and is separate from the communications components.

    • D. 

      The data transmitted by the satellite concerning on-board status and is part of the communications components.

  • 248. 
    (416) Information contained in the ephemeris data pertain to the
    • A. 

      Predicted satellite orbit.

    • B. 

      Predicted atmospheric conditions.

    • C. 

      Channels through a satellite that are available for use.

    • D. 

      Combinations of ground stations that can communicate with each other.

  • 249. 
    (416) Which tracking method requires no input from a satellite?
    • A. 

      Programmed track.

    • B. 

      Automatic track.

    • C. 

      Pseudoconscan.

    • D. 

      Step track.

  • 250. 
    (416) Automatic tracking systems are superior to programmed tracking systems because they
    • A. 

      Use servomechanisms to control antenna movements.

    • B. 

      Track only signals received from the satellite.

    • C. 

      Track the actual position of the satellite.

    • D. 

      Use updated ephemeris data.

  • 251. 
    (416) What signals originating from the satellite do we use to acquire and track the satellite?
    • A. 

      Beacon.

    • B. 

      Ephemeris.

    • C. 

      Telemetry.

    • D. 

      Communication.

  • 252. 
    (417) The intermediate frequencies/levels used by Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) earth terminals are 70 MHz at
    • A. 

      –10 dBm and 630 MHz @ –13 dBm.

    • B. 

      –13 dBm and 630 MHz @ –10 dBm.

    • C. 

      –10 dBm and 700 MHz @ –13 dBm.

    • D. 

      –13 dBm and 700 MHz @ –10 dBm.

  • 253. 
    (417) How are the high power amplifiers (HPA) cooled in an AN/GSC–52 earth terminal?
    • A. 

      Air.

    • B. 

      Cryogenic.

    • C. 

      Liquid nitrogen.

    • D. 

      Ethanol/glycol solution.

  • 254. 
    (417) The downlink frequency range of the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) is
    • A. 

      7.25 to 7.75 MHz.

    • B. 

      7.25 to 7.75 GHz.

    • C. 

      7.9 to 8.4 MHz.

    • D. 

      7.9 to 8.4 GHz.

  • 255. 
    (417) In the AN/GSC–52 earth terminal, the downconverter normally dedicated for tracking is downconverter
    • A. 

      1 in Downconverter Rack 1.

    • B. 

      8 in Downconverter Rack 1.

    • C. 

      1 in Downconverter Rack 7.

    • D. 

      8 in Downconverter Rack 7.

  • 256. 
    (417) What information is used for satellite tracking on an AN/GSC–52 earth terminal operating in the memory track mode?
    • A. 

      Beacon signal.

    • B. 

      Recorded data.

    • C. 

      Ephemerous data.

    • D. 

      Communications signal.

  • 257. 
    (417) Which of the following component is not used to control the AN/GSC–52 earth terminal?
    • A. 

      Remote terminal processor (RTP).

    • B. 

      External control element.

    • C. 

      Internal control element.

    • D. 

      Terminal processor (TP).

  • 258. 
    (418) Which feedhorns are located in the AN/GSC–52 earth terminal feed assembly?
    • A. 

      Single tracking and communication feedhorn.

    • B. 

      One tracking feedhorn and one communications feedhorn.

    • C. 

      One tracking feedhorn and four communications feedhorns.

    • D. 

      Four tracking feedhorns and one communication feedhorn.

  • 259. 
    (418) In the AN/GSC–52 earth terminal’s tracking system, what converts the azimuth/elevation (AZ/EL) velocity commands from the antenna control unit into drive power outputs to move the antenna?
    • A. 

      Scanner.

    • B. 

      Comparator.

    • C. 

      Servo amplifier.

    • D. 

      Optical converter.

  • 260. 
    (418) How are the high power amplifiers normally configured in the AN/GSC–52 earth terminal?
    • A. 

      One active online with three in standby mode.

    • B. 

      Two active online with two in standby mode.

    • C. 

      Three active online with one in standby mode.

    • D. 

      Four active online with none in standby mode.

  • 261. 
    (418) In the event of a downconverter failure in the AN/GSC–52 earth terminal, the downconverter
    • A. 

      Switch assembly (under TS-A control) automatically places a spare online.

    • B. 

      Alarm monitor (under TS-A control) automatically places a spare online.

    • C. 

      Controller (under TS-A control) automatically places a spare online.

    • D. 

      Spare must be configured and placed online manually.

  • 262. 
    (418) In the AN/GSC–52, the upconverter or downconverter normally dedicated to automatic switchover is in rack position number
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      7

    • D. 

      8

  • 263. 
    (418) The AN/GSC–52 earth terminal’s frequency and timing subsystem provides precise 1pps timing signals and precise frequency outputs of
    • A. 

      1 kHz and 5 MHz.

    • B. 

      1 MHz and 5 kHz.

    • C. 

      1 MHz and 5 MHz.

    • D. 

      5 MHz and 10 MHz.

  • 264. 
    (418) In the AN/GSC–52 earth terminal’s control, monitor, and alarm group (CMA), what equipment interfaces to separate individual subsystems and is responsible for control and status of specific groups of terminal equipment?
    • A. 

      Station console.

    • B. 

      Terminal servers.

    • C. 

      Terminal processor (TP).

    • D. 

      External control element (ECE).

  • 265. 
    (419) Which Defense Meteorological Satellite Program elements receive only real-time satellite imagery when the satellite is in view?
    • A. 

      Strategic.

    • B. 

      Tactical.

    • C. 

      Air Force Weather Agency.

    • D. 

      Automated Remote Tracking Stations.

  • 266. 
    (419) What are the Air Force Satellite Control Network (AFSCN) command and control nodes?
    • A. 

      Environmental Satellite Operations Center at Schriever AFB, CO, and National Oceanographic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) Satellite Operations Control Center at Suitland, MD.

    • B. 

      Environmental Satellite Operations Center at Schriever AFB, CO, and Multi Purpose Satellite Operations Center, Offutt AFB, NB.

    • C. 

      Air Force Weather Agency, Offutt AFB, NB, and NOAA Satellite Operations Control Center at Suitland, MD.

    • D. 

      Air Force Weather Agency, Offutt AFB, NB, and Multi Purpose Satellite Operations Center,Offutt AFB, NB.

  • 267. 
    (419) The MARK IVB antennas can be located up to how many feet away from the processing area?
    • A. 

      1,000.

    • B. 

      1,500.

    • C. 

      2,500.

    • D. 

      3,000.

  • 268. 
    (419) The primary interface between the operator/maintainer and the MARK IVB system is the
    • A. 

      Storage disk array.

    • B. 

      Maintainer workstation.

    • C. 

      Network interface switch.

    • D. 

      Meteorological data server.

  • 269. 
    (420) Which agency is responsible for Defense Support Program operational control?
    • A. 

      HQ AFSPC.

    • B. 

      HQ AFPC (10 AF).

    • C. 

      SPACEAF (14 AF).

    • D. 

      USSTRATCOM/CC.

  • 270. 
    (420) Which components are major sets of satellite readout station equipment ?
    • A. 

      Radio frequency set and modulation system controller.

    • B. 

      Modulation interface equipment and transmit/receive set.

    • C. 

      Modulation interface equipment and modulation system controller.

    • D. 

      Radio frequency set, transmit/receiver set, and digital equipment set.

  • 271. 
    (420) In the satellite readout station, the transmit/receive set
    • A. 

      Transmits weather imagery to the satellite and receives telemetry data from the satellite on a 2.2 to 2.3 gigahertz bandwidth.

    • B. 

      Receives and processes downlink satellite signals, and generates and transmits uplink satellite commanding and ranging signals.

    • C. 

      Monitors precise range measurements from the satellite vehicle and recovers almanac data from transmitted signals to measure signal quality.

    • D. 

      Receives and processes the transmit signal for the satellite, and generates and receives downlink satellite commanding and ranging signals.

  • 272. 
    (421) What is the number of global positioning system orbital planes?
    • A. 

      Four (4).

    • B. 

      Five (5).

    • C. 

      Six (6).

    • D. 

      Seven (7).

  • 273. 
    (421) The purpose of the global positioning system ground antenna is to
    • A. 

      Interface between the master control station and user sets.

    • B. 

      Interface between the master control station and the satellites.

    • C. 

      Provide all commanding and resources to process the satellite telemetry.

    • D. 

      Provide all tracking and resources to process the monitor station downlinked telemetry.

  • 274. 
    (421) Which global positioning system operation control segment component is remotely operated and transmits and receives telemetry to and from the satellites?
    • A. 

      Monitor station.

    • B. 

      Ground antenna.

    • C. 

      Master control station.

    • D. 

      Transmit ground station.

  • 275. 
    (421) What is the minimum number of global positioning system satellites that must be tracked for accurate three-dimensional navigation?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      4

    • D. 

      5

  • 276. 
    • A. 

      Can only be used as a handheld unit.

    • B. 

      Can process the GPS satellite triple frequency signals.

    • C. 

      Can use an external power source and external antenna.

    • D. 

      Can be installed in a host platform (ground facility, air, sea or land vehicle).

  • 277. 
    (422) What Milstar capability is very different from previous military satellite communications (MILSATCOM) and commercial satellite communications systems?
    • A. 

      Crossbanding.

    • B. 

      Crosslinking.

    • C. 

      Multi-service.

    • D. 

      Secure networking.

  • 278. 
    (422) Which element of the Milstar mission allocates communication resources?
    • A. 

      Development.

    • B. 

      Planning.

    • C. 

      Support.

    • D. 

      Control.

  • 279. 
    (422) The secure mobile anti-jam reliable tactical terminal (SMART-T) provides user data rates through
    • A. 

      T–1 (128 Kbps).

    • B. 

      T–1 (256 Kbps).

    • C. 

      T–1 (1.544 Mbps).

    • D. 

      T–1 (2.048 Mbps).

  • 280. 
    (422) How many active satellites does the completed Milstar phase II (Milstar II) constellation consist of?
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 281. 
    (422) The Milstar satellite sends downlink communications transmissions at
    • A. 

      Ultrahigh frequency (UHF) only.

    • B. 

      Extremely high frequency (EHF) only.

    • C. 

      UHF and super-high frequency (SHF).

    • D. 

      UHF and EHF.

  • 282. 
    (422) Which Milstar antenna provides high gain, selective coverage of any ground station visible on the earth’s surface within its own footprint?
    • A. 

      Agile beam.

    • B. 

      Spot beam.

    • C. 

      Gimbaled dish.

    • D. 

      Earth coverage.

  • 283. 
    (422) What is the maximum number of demand assigned multiple access (DAMA) networks can a single Milstar satellite support?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 284. 
    (422) Encoding/decoding of a digital signal
    • A. 

      Quadruples the data rate.

    • B. 

      Increases the signal-to-noise-ratio.

    • C. 

      Decreases the signal-to-noise-ratio.

    • D. 

      Enhances the link bit error rate.

  • 285. 
    (422) The Milstar Air Force terminal segment has terminals that are classified as either
    • A. 

      Ship or shore.

    • B. 

      Master or slave.

    • C. 

      Airborne or ground.

    • D. 

      Command post or force element.

  • 286. 
    (422) The Milstar extremely high frequency (EHF)/ultrahigh frequency (UHF) fixed ground command post terminal has a
    • A. 

      90-inch antenna and a radome.

    • B. 

      96-inch antenna and a radome.

    • C. 

      90-inch antenna and no radome.

    • D. 

      96-inch antenna and no radome.

  • 287. 
    (422) What type of extremely high frequency (EHF) antenna is used on the Milstar EHF/UHF airborne command post terminals?
    • A. 

      16-inch Cassegrain.

    • B. 

      26-inch Cassegrain.

    • C. 

      16-inch front-feed.

    • D. 

      26-inch front-feed.

  • 288. 
    (423) What agency plans and executes satellite tracking and ephemeris data generation?
    • A. 

      Commander of the United States Strategic Command.

    • B. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • C. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

    • D. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC).

  • 289. 
    (423) What agency provides personnel at the regional satellite communications (Regional SATCOM) support center with resource allocation parameters?
    • A. 

      Commander of the United States Strategic Command.

    • B. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • C. 

      Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS).

    • D. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC).

  • 290. 
    (423) The purpose of the Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC) is to
    • A. 

      Provide operational control of the Defense Communications System (DCS).

    • B. 

      Provide operational control of the Air Force satellite communications (AFSATCOM) system.

    • C. 

      Manage and provide the regional satellite communications support center (RSSC) with satellite engineering parameters.

    • D. 

      Manage and distribute bandwidths allocated from the Chairman Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS)for their respective theaters of responsibility.

  • 291. 
    (423) What agency ensures all satellite links perform according to baseline parameters?
    • A. 

      United States Army Space and Missile Defense Command/Army Forces Strategic Command.

    • B. 

      Defense Satellite Communications System operations centers (DSCSOC).

    • C. 

      Unified and specified combatant commanders (COCOM).

    • D. 

      Air Force Space Command (AFSPC).

  • 292. 
    (423) Modifications on the Defense Satellite Communications System phase III (DSCS III) satellite include
    • A. 

      Larger solar panels.

    • B. 

      Smaller solar panels.

    • C. 

      Multibeam array antenna.

    • D. 

      Single-channel transponder (SCT) downlink.

  • 293. 
    (423) The Defense Satellite Communications System phase III (DSCS III) S-band system is primarily used for
    • A. 

      Satellite telemetry, tracking, and control.

    • B. 

      Broadcasting emergency action messages (EAM).

    • C. 

      A super high frequency (SHF) communication link.

    • D. 

      An extremely high frequency (EHF) communication link.

  • 294. 
    (424) What constellation are the ultrahigh frequency (UHF) follow-on satellites designed to replace?
    • A. 

      Global positioning satellite and Inmarsat.

    • B. 

      MILSTAR and Defense Satellite Communication System.

    • C. 

      Defense Meteorological Program and Commercial satellites.

    • D. 

      Fleet satellite communications (FLTSATCOM) and leased satellites (LEASAT).

  • 295. 
    (424) Which satellite system provides Global Broadcast Services (GBS)?
    • A. 

      Commercial L-band.

    • B. 

      Defense Meteorological.

    • C. 

      Global positioning satellite.

    • D. 

      Ultra high frequency (UHF) Follow-on.

  • 296. 
    (425) When considering the factor of service area for commercial satellite services, which description is true about Ku-band service?
    • A. 

      Not worldwide, located primarily over land masses and highly populated areas.

    • B. 

      Not worldwide, located primarily over ocean areas and lowly populated areas.

    • C. 

      Worldwide between roughly 65 degrees North an 65 degrees South latitudes.

    • D. 

      Worldwide, located primarily over land masses and highly populated areas.

  • 297. 
    (425) Which service is not provided by the commercial satellite communications branch (CSB)?
    • A. 

      Help obtain host nation approvals.

    • B. 

      Recommend and/or obtain ground terminals.

    • C. 

      Act as the day-to-day mobile satellite services (MSS) system manager.

    • D. 

      Evaluate customer requests to see if commercial service is the best option.

  • 298. 
    (426) Which commercial satellite communication system can offer true pole-to-pole global coverage?
    • A. 

      European Telecommunications Satellite Organization (EUTELSAT).

    • B. 

      International Telecommunications Satellite Organization (INTELSAT).

    • C. 

      International Maritime Satellite Organization (Inmarsat).

    • D. 

      Iridium Satellite, LLC.

  • 299. 
    (426) The Iridium secure module provides secure voice communications up to and including what level of classification?
    • A. 

      Top Secret.

    • B. 

      Secret.

    • C. 

      Confidential.

    • D. 

      For Official Use Only.

  • 300. 
    (427) Which type of communications would not normally be provided through commercial wideband services?
    • A. 

      Very small aperture terminal networks.

    • B. 

      International high-speed internet connectivity.

    • C. 

      Handheld satellite phone communications.

    • D. 

      Deployable video teleconferencing.

  • 301. 
    (427) Which service provider is a new satellite communications company specifically dedicated to provide commercial X-band services exclusively to US and Allied governments?
    • A. 

      International Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • B. 

      European Telecommunications Satellite Organization.

    • C. 

      Pan-American Satellite Corporation.

    • D. 

      XTAR, LLC.

  • 302. 
    (428) The Predator ground control station (GCS) satellite communications (SATCOM) subsystem provides one full-duplex encrypted digital voice channel, command and control () capability of four remotely piloted aircraft, and operates over a
    • A. 

      Ku-band satellite.

    • B. 

      Ka-band satellite.

    • C. 

      C-band satellite.

    • D. 

      X-band satellite.

  • 303. 
    (429) Who submits a feeder telecommunications service request to start, stop, or change circuits, trunks, links, or systems?
    • A. 

      Department of Defense (DOD).

    • B. 

      The users’ technical control facility.

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      The distant end technical control facility.

  • 304. 
    (429) One of the functions of the telecommunication certification office is to
    • A. 

      Assign a circuit number to the telecommunications service request.

    • B. 

      Ensure the user agency is prepared to pay for the service.

    • C. 

      Review the circuit priority against mission needs.

    • D. 

      Maintain case files on all MAJCOM circuits.

  • 305. 
    (429) Command communications service designators (CCSD) are divided into two classes;
    • A. 

      Continental United States (CONUS) and overseas.

    • B. 

      Primary and secondary.

    • C. 

      Permanent and temporary.

    • D. 

      Terrestrial and extra-terrestrial.

  • 306. 
    (429) Telecommunications circuit restoration is normally done
    • A. 

      By the user.

    • B. 

      By rerouting to spare channels.

    • C. 

      Within five minutes of circuit failure.

    • D. 

      By automatic fault location equipment.

  • 307. 
    (430) The regional satellite communications support center (RSSC) is a
    • A. 

      Network control center for links ending in the center’s area of responsibility.

    • B. 

      Network operations center for links ending in the center’s area of responsibility.

    • C. 

      Planning cell that supports the area communications operations center with ground mobile forces (GMF) access on the Defense Satellite Communication System (DSCS).

    • D. 

      Planning cell that supports unified and specified commands with ground mobile forces access on the DSCS.

  • 308. 
    (430) With what agency does the regional satellite communications support center (RSSC) coordinate for additional satellite resources if the planned deployment configuration cannot be supported by the satellite payload configuration?
    • A. 

      Ground mobile forces (GMF) network controller.

    • B. 

      Consolidated space operations center.

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA).

    • D. 

      Defense Information system Agency Network Operations Center (DISANOC).

  • 309. 
    (430) What office resolves conflicts regarding Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) ground mobile forces (GMF) satellite resources that cannot be settled by the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) and the regional satellite communications support center (RSSC)?
    • A. 

      Joint Staff.

    • B. 

      Combatant commander (COCOM).

    • C. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency Operations Control Complex (DOCC).

    • D. 

      Consolidated space operations center.

  • 310. 
    • A. 

      It indicates the quality of the operating signal while interrupting the signal.

    • B. 

      It verifies the quality of prescribed specifications from terminal to terminal.

    • C. 

      It indicates the quality of the operating signal without interrupting the signal.

    • D. 

      It is used to make necessary end-to-end adjustments to interface and transmission equipment.

  • 311. 
    (431) Which term is defined as measures taken to ensure the continued use of the frequency spectrum by Department of Defense and friendly forces?
    • A. 

      Electronic attack (EA).

    • B. 

      Electronic warfare (EW).

    • C. 

      Electronic support (ES).

    • D. 

      Counter-counter measures (CCM).

  • 312. 
    (432) What is the name of the companding scale used in US telephone networks and standardized for analog-to-digital conversion?
    • A. 

      Metric.

    • B. 

      A-Law.

    • C. 

      Mμ-Law.

    • D. 

      Old English.

  • 313. 
    (432) Because they use differing conversion scales, what process must take place in order to transmit voice/data between telephone networks in the US and European countries?
    • A. 

      Encoding.

    • B. 

      Decoding.

    • C. 

      Quantizing.

    • D. 

      Transcoding.

  • 314. 
    (432) We refer to the physical interface between the Promina and the customer’s voice devices as a
    • A. 

      Port.

    • B. 

      Trunk.

    • C. 

      Digroup.

    • D. 

      Backplane.

  • 315. 
    (433) The amount of bandwidth required for the operation of a specific card or module in the Promina is known as a
    • A. 

      Logical slot.

    • B. 

      Logical shelf.

    • C. 

      Physical slot.

    • D. 

      Physical shelf.

  • 316. 
    (433) Which module provides the processor platform, clock, and switching matrix for the Promina 200 and 400?
    • A. 

      Promina logic module.

    • B. 

      Promina server module.

    • C. 

      Promina processor module.

    • D. 

      Switching exchange module type II.

  • 317. 
    (433) Larger nodes, like the Promina 800, require which type of module to store important system code, network configurations, event logs, and network management data?
    • A. 

      Promina logic module.

    • B. 

      Promina server module.

    • C. 

      Promina processor module (PPM).

    • D. 

      Switching exchange module type II (SX–2).

  • 318. 
    (434) The Promina signaling channel link protocol trunk module
    • A. 

      Provides asymmetric trunking capability.

    • B. 

      Is the sole means by which nodes communicate with each other.

    • C. 

      Operates in two modes, the “span mode” and the “tandem mode.”

    • D. 

      Performs real time multiplexing and synchronization of the bundles, and contains the logic to control the processing of up to six proprietary trunk bundles.

  • 319. 
    (435) During a communications unit deployment, at least one person deployed with a Promina system must have what minimum access level assigned in order to bring up the mission?
    • A. 

      Level 1.

    • B. 

      Level 2.

    • C. 

      Level 3.

    • D. 

      Level 4.

  • 320. 
    (435) Which Promina menu contains commands for managing operators and the operator console?
    • A. 

      Prolog.

    • B. 

      Action.

    • C. 

      Object.

    • D. 

      Functional area.