3D152 Volume 3

100 Questions | Total Attempts: 768

SettingsSettingsSettings
Please wait...
3D152 Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    One disadvantage  of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
    • A. 

      Line noise

    • B. 

      Weather effects

    • C. 

      Frequency distortion

    • D. 

      Electromagnetic interference

  • 2. 
    What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
    • A. 

      Atmospheric pressure

    • B. 

      Propagation medium

    • C. 

      Temperature

    • D. 

      Moisture

  • 3. 
    The determining factor in calculating the correct siez of a waveguide is
    • A. 

      Frequency

    • B. 

      Power output

    • C. 

      Bandwidth of the transmission medium

    • D. 

      Distance between equipment and transmitter

  • 4. 
    How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
    • A. 

      2,230

    • B. 

      2,320

    • C. 

      22,300

    • D. 

      23,200

  • 5. 
    Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
    • A. 

      Milstar Communication System

    • B. 

      Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)

    • C. 

      Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM)

    • D. 

      Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC)

  • 6. 
    To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency  (RF), it first has to be
    • A. 

      Phase shifted

    • B. 

      Transmitted

    • C. 

      Modulated

    • D. 

      Encoded

  • 7. 
    What is the one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
    • A. 

      Lightwave

    • B. 

      Microwave

    • C. 

      Soundwave

    • D. 

      Groundwave

  • 8. 
    Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
    • A. 

      No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver

    • B. 

      Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper

    • C. 

      Sensitive to atmospheric interferance

    • D. 

      Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission

  • 9. 
    Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
    • A. 

      A relatively wide range of frequencies

    • B. 

      Only high frequency information

    • C. 

      A relatively wide range of amplitudes

    • D. 

      Only high amplitude information

  • 10. 
    Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
    • A. 

      Telephone lines

    • B. 

      Television cable lines

    • C. 

      Satellite systems

    • D. 

      Laser light

  • 11. 
    The Intergrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
    • A. 

      Basic rate interface (BRI)

    • B. 

      Primary rate interface (PRI)

    • C. 

      Trunk rate interface (TRI)

    • D. 

      Switch rate interface (SRI)

  • 12. 
    How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
    • A. 

      2, 1

    • B. 

      30, 2

    • C. 

      1, 24

    • D. 

      23, 1

  • 13. 
    What was the primary  driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange?
    • A. 

      Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues

    • B. 

      The invention of the multi-line telephone

    • C. 

      Military communication requirements

    • D. 

      Radio communication requirements

  • 14. 
    When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
    • A. 

      Is broadcast over multiple paths between switches

    • B. 

      Is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts

    • C. 

      Has a dedicated circuit created by the sqitch

    • D. 

      Requires a dedicated switch to make the connection

  • 15. 
    The three conerstones of voice network system security are availability,
    • A. 

      Circumvention and confidentiality

    • B. 

      Circumvention and disclosure

    • C. 

      Confidentiality and integrity

    • D. 

      Disclosure and integrity

  • 16. 
    What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
    • A. 

      Subversion

    • B. 

      Unauthorized monitoring

    • C. 

      Inexperienced switch technicians

    • D. 

      Inadequate maintenance practices

  • 17. 
    What role does the Private Branch Exchanged (PBX) play in the telphony industry?
    • A. 

      A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city

    • B. 

      A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system

    • C. 

      A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area

    • D. 

      A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization

  • 18. 
    How many serial data ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      1

  • 19. 
    Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
    • A. 

      DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100

    • B. 

      DMS-100/200 and MSL-100

    • C. 

      DMS-100/200 and DMS-200

    • D. 

      DMS-200 and MSL-100

  • 20. 
    What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
    • A. 

      10,000

    • B. 

      30,000

    • C. 

      100,000

    • D. 

      300,000

  • 21. 
    Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
    • A. 

      Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS)

    • B. 

      CM and system load module (SLM)

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU)

    • D. 

      CPU, digital signal (DS) and peripheral module (PM)

  • 22. 
    What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
    • A. 

      DS-1

    • B. 

      DS-30

    • C. 

      DS-30A

    • D. 

      DS-512

  • 23. 
    Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interface line and trunk subscribers?
    • A. 

      Central control

    • B. 

      Input/output (I/O)

    • C. 

      Peripheral module

    • D. 

      Peripheral subsystem (PS)

  • 24. 
    What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
    • A. 

      Printers, visual display unit (VDU) and tape drives

    • B. 

      A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers

    • C. 

      A maintenance and administration position (MAP)

    • D. 

      The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboad

  • 25. 
    Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
    • A. 

      Cable manhole

    • B. 

      Telecommunications cable closet

    • C. 

      Building cable raceway

    • D. 

      Cable vault

  • 26. 
    The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
    • A. 

      Verify the circuit is not in use

    • B. 

      Prevent interruptions to critical circuits

    • C. 

      Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line

    • D. 

      Avoind activating alarm circuits

  • 27. 
    Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
    • A. 

      Vertical bus

    • B. 

      Horizontal bus

    • C. 

      Clock/message card

    • D. 

      Enhanced network (ENET) processor

  • 28. 
    Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available
    • A. 

      Computing mode channel

    • B. 

      Peripheral channel

    • C. 

      H-bus channel

    • D. 

      Output channel

  • 29. 
    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
    • A. 

      Journal file

    • B. 

      Table control

    • C. 

      Dump/restore

    • D. 

      Pending order file

  • 30. 
    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility povides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specific time for execution?
    • A. 

      Journal file

    • B. 

      Table Control

    • C. 

      Dump/restore

    • D. 

      Pending order file

  • 31. 
    Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tabe or disk so that data tables cab be restored if the system should fail?
    • A. 

      Jounal file

    • B. 

      Table control

    • C. 

      Dump/restore

    • D. 

      Pending order file

  • 32. 
    What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
    • A. 

      Adminitration and maintenance interface

    • B. 

      Voice Messaging User Interface Forum

    • C. 

      Meridian mail user interface

    • D. 

      Message service interface

  • 33. 
    What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
    • A. 

      Adminitration and maintenance interface

    • B. 

      Voice Messaging User Interface Forum

    • C. 

      Meridian mail user interface

    • D. 

      Message service interface

  • 34. 
    Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33 degrees counterclockwise?
    • A. 

      To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors

    • B. 

      To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors

    • C. 

      R-Y was shifted to minimum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity,respectively for human vision

    • D. 

      R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision

  • 35. 
    The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
    • A. 

      Encoder

    • B. 

      Decoder

    • C. 

      Multiplexer

    • D. 

      Demultiplexer

  • 36. 
    What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
    • A. 

      4-quadraplex sideband (4-QSB)

    • B. 

      8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB)

    • C. 

      4-vestigial modulation (4-VM)

    • D. 

      8-quadrature modulation (8-QM)

  • 37. 
    What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
    • A. 

      Motion Pictures Experts Group (MPEG)-1

    • B. 

      MPEG-2

    • C. 

      MPEG-3

    • D. 

      MPEG-4

  • 38. 
    How many lines of video are discarded in high definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      6

    • D. 

      8

  • 39. 
    How is information recorded or stored on the video tape?
    • A. 

      Series of magnetic patterns

    • B. 

      Series of edited electrical patterns

    • C. 

      Transferred current indents

    • D. 

      Transferred voltage indents

  • 40. 
    You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
    • A. 

      Magnet

    • B. 

      Conductor

    • C. 

      Electromagnet

    • D. 

      Charged capacitor

  • 41. 
    What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gat at the same speed at which it was recorded?
    • A. 

      Fast Forward

    • B. 

      Playback

    • C. 

      Erasure

    • D. 

      Rewind

  • 42. 
    An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
    • A. 

      Minimizing video loss

    • B. 

      Carrying a video waveform

    • C. 

      Minimized signal dropout

    • D. 

      Transmitting an analog waveform

  • 43. 
    What is a major advantage of digital recording overf analog recording?
    • A. 

      MAterial can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality

    • B. 

      Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain

    • C. 

      The material recorded can be clones with noticeable gain loss of quality

    • D. 

      The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain

  • 44. 
    Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19 mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
    • A. 

      D1

    • B. 

      D2

    • C. 

      D3

    • D. 

      D4

  • 45. 
    What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
    • A. 

      Tape meter

    • B. 

      Tracker

    • C. 

      Counter

    • D. 

      Display clock

  • 46. 
    What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
    • A. 

      Effects keyer

    • B. 

      Effects preview multiplier

    • C. 

      Effects program multiplier

    • D. 

      Transition pattern generator

  • 47. 
    The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with 
    • A. 

      Linear and chroma signal from the effects keyer

    • B. 

      Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal

    • C. 

      Key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal

    • D. 

      Luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer

  • 48. 
    The purpose of the GVG-110 general purose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
    • A. 

      Remote control of switcher transitions

    • B. 

      Remote programming of all switcher functions

    • C. 

      Parallel interface with the switcher effects memory

    • D. 

      Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory

  • 49. 
    The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
    • A. 

      Remote control of switcher transitions

    • B. 

      Remote programming of all switcher functions

    • C. 

      Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory

    • D. 

      Emote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator

  • 50. 
    What are the frequencies at which two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
    • A. 

      60 Hz and 15,750 Hz

    • B. 

      60 Hz and 5.5 MHz

    • C. 

      15,750 Hz and 4.5 MHz

    • D. 

      15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz

  • 51. 
    What is the beginning of a cabling system called?
    • A. 

      Head-end

    • B. 

      Trunk line

    • C. 

      Reciever

    • D. 

      Decoder

  • 52. 
    What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
    • A. 

      Multiplexer

    • B. 

      Demodulator

    • C. 

      Modulator

    • D. 

      Decoder

  • 53. 
    What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
    • A. 

      Head-end

    • B. 

      Trunk line

    • C. 

      Reciever

    • D. 

      Coax RJ-6

  • 54. 
    What must the line of detection detect?
    • A. 

      Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection

    • B. 

      Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping outside the line of detection

    • C. 

      Potential for intruder to bypass the system

    • D. 

      Possibility of equipment failures

  • 55. 
    What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
    • A. 

      Provide security forces (SF) personnel a safe place to work

    • B. 

      Keep wildlife out of the perimeter detection zone

    • C. 

      Facilitate the detection of intruders

    • D. 

      To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry

  • 56. 
    The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to 
    • A. 

      Provide security forces personnel a safe working environment during the night hours

    • B. 

      Identify wildlife inside the perimeter detection zone

    • C. 

      Facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders

    • D. 

      Present a means of deterring unauthorized entry

  • 57. 
    The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a 
    • A. 

      Gatehouse, vehicle parking, and personnel entry gate

    • B. 

      Gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area

    • C. 

      Personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, backup generator and gatehouse

    • D. 

      Location for security personnel to perform shift change and receive their weapon

  • 58. 
    What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
    • A. 

      AN/GSS-42

    • B. 

      AN/GSS-41

    • C. 

      AN/GSS-29

    • D. 

      AN/GSS-39

  • 59. 
    What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
    • A. 

      Small annunciator system (SMAS)

    • B. 

      Standard annunciator system (STAS)

    • C. 

      Samll permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS)

    • D. 

      Security monitoring and reporting terminal (SMART)

  • 60. 
    What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the control panel?
    • A. 

      End of line (EOL) resistor

    • B. 

      Line termination unit

    • C. 

      EOL module

    • D. 

      Tamper interface unit

  • 61. 
    Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
    • A. 

      Ultrasonic

    • B. 

      Microwave

    • C. 

      Passive infrared

    • D. 

      Dual-phenomenology

  • 62. 
    What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?
    • A. 

      1.5 to 10 seconds

    • B. 

      1.5 to 15 seconds

    • C. 

      3 to 10 seconds

    • D. 

      5 to 15 seconds

  • 63. 
    Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
    • A. 

      15-50 feet

    • B. 

      15-75 feet

    • C. 

      25-75 feet

    • D. 

      30-90 feet

  • 64. 
    What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an alarm is detected?
    • A. 

      Alternate current (AC)

    • B. 

      Direct current (DC)

    • C. 

      Digital

    • D. 

      Analog

  • 65. 
    A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
    • A. 

      100

    • B. 

      150

    • C. 

      200

    • D. 

      300

  • 66. 
    Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
    • A. 

      Alarm duration

    • B. 

      Number of cuts

    • C. 

      Cable sensitivity

    • D. 

      Sector reporting priority

  • 67. 
    What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
    • A. 

      150 feet

    • B. 

      200 feet

    • C. 

      328 feet

    • D. 

      425 feet

  • 68. 
    What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
    • A. 

      150 feet

    • B. 

      200 feet

    • C. 

      328 feet

    • D. 

      425 feet

  • 69. 
    What type of alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire (VTWS) is removed?
    • A. 

      None

    • B. 

      Tamper

    • C. 

      Intruder

    • D. 

      Equipment fault

  • 70. 
    In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      10

  • 71. 
    How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection sensor?
    • A. 

      0.5

    • B. 

      1

    • C. 

      2

    • D. 

      4

  • 72. 
    At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor (IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
    • A. 

      100 feet; signal transmitted to one reciever

    • B. 

      150 feet; signal transmitted to one reciever

    • C. 

      100 feet; signal transmitted to two recievers

    • D. 

      150 feet; signal transmitted to two recievers

  • 73. 
    What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
    • A. 

      100 Hz

    • B. 

      800 Hz

    • C. 

      1000 Hz

    • D. 

      1200 Hz

  • 74. 
    What is the primary mode of detection of the microwave fence sensor?
    • A. 

      Beam break

    • B. 

      Signal fade margin

    • C. 

      Multipath deflection

    • D. 

      Dual-phenomena reflection

  • 75. 
    When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control(AGC) using a multimeter?
    • A. 

      Lowest possible

    • B. 

      Highest possible

    • C. 

      Equal to the phase lock loop (PLL)

    • D. 

      Midpoint

  • 76. 
    How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
    • A. 

      The processor communicates with the other cards in the module via the T-Bus

    • B. 

      The T-Bus connects to the Promina to the other modules in the TDC suite

    • C. 

      The front card communicates with the rear card through the T-Bus

    • D. 

      The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus

  • 77. 
    A symmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
    • A. 

      Using two trunk cards in on ePromina

    • B. 

      Configuring a bundle consisting of 24 DS0s

    • C. 

      Not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call

    • D. 

      Consuming bandwidth equally in both directions while preserving one-way communication

  • 78. 
    Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the TDC/ICAP network?
    • A. 

      Crypto interface

    • B. 

      Basic Access

    • C. 

      Red Data

    • D. 

      Crypto

  • 79. 
    If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) reference clocks, we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to 
    • A. 

      Synchronization

    • B. 

      Buffer overflow

    • C. 

      Timing slips

    • D. 

      Data speeds

  • 80. 
    What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data trffic that the FCC-100 can handle?
    • A. 

      12

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      32

  • 81. 
    How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user configuration?
    • A. 

      16, 8

    • B. 

      12, 10

    • C. 

      13, 8

    • D. 

      13, 10

  • 82. 
    For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC), the Crypto interface module's router normally act as the
    • A. 

      Management console

    • B. 

      Internal firewall

    • C. 

      External router

    • D. 

      Internal router

  • 83. 
    For a TDC network design that has the Crypto Interface Module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-Mux) in seperate locations, which piece of equipment is necessary?
    • A. 

      KIV-19

    • B. 

      KIV-7HS/B

    • C. 

      CV-2048/8448-D

    • D. 

      Cisco 3745 router

  • 84. 
    The Integrated Services Digital network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) which allows for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of
    • A. 

      4

    • B. 

      6

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      2

  • 85. 
    The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatability between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Commincations (TRI-TAC) equipment?
    • A. 

      Transmission control

    • B. 

      User datagram

    • C. 

      File Transfer

    • D. 

      Internet

  • 86. 
    What configuration does the ed Data Module normally operate in?
    • A. 

      Stand alone

    • B. 

      Client only

    • C. 

      Gateway only

    • D. 

      Gateway/client

  • 87. 
    The next generation recieve terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite broadbands?
    • A. 

      Ku, Ka

    • B. 

      C, X

    • C. 

      Ku, X

    • D. 

      Ka, C

  • 88. 
    What recieve broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified information?
    • A. 

      Military

    • B. 

      Type one

    • C. 

      Managed

    • D. 

      Classified

  • 89. 
    Which piece of the recieve broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television set-top converter box?
    • A. 

      Managed Ethernet switch (MES)

    • B. 

      Display and keyboard

    • C. 

      Video converter

    • D. 

      RBM server

  • 90. 
    A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from 
    • A. 

      Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA)

    • B. 

      Defense Information Technology Contracting Office (DITCO)

    • C. 

      The system control facility (SCF)

    • D. 

      The end user

  • 91. 
    Circuits that fail to meet allmparameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval of
    • A. 

      The user

    • B. 

      Circuit control office (CCO)

    • C. 

      DISA

    • D. 

      The Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority

  • 92. 
    Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
    • A. 

      72

    • B. 

      48

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      12

  • 93. 
    What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the TSO issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
    • A. 

      In-effect

    • B. 

      Exception

    • C. 

      Acceptance

    • D. 

      Delayed service

  • 94. 
    Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
    • A. 

      Outage times

    • B. 

      Reason for outage

    • C. 

      Number of outages

    • D. 

      Preempted outages

  • 95. 
    Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on what basis?
    • A. 

      Daily

    • B. 

      Weekly

    • C. 

      Monthly

    • D. 

      Annual

  • 96. 
    If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
    • A. 

      Quality Control (QC)

    • B. 

      Test and acceptance (T&A)

    • C. 

      Operations and Maintenance (O&M)

    • D. 

      Operational acceptance

  • 97. 
    The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the   
    • A. 

      Responsible operations and maintenance (O&M) agency

    • B. 

      "from" (sending) station

    • C. 

      "to" (recieving)station

    • D. 

      Type of trunk

  • 98. 
    Which DISA Circulars contains information needed to assign temporary command communications service desginator (CCSD)?
    • A. 

      310-55-1 only

    • B. 

      300-175-9 only

    • C. 

      30-70-1 and 310-55-1

    • D. 

      310-70-1 and 300-175-9

  • 99. 
    Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
    • A. 

      Circuit control office (CCO)

    • B. 

      National Communications System (NCS)

    • C. 

      Systems control facility (SCF)

    • D. 

      Defense Communications System (DCS)

  • 100. 
    What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
    • A. 

      Providing and restoration

    • B. 

      Provisioning and recovery

    • C. 

      Procurement and restoration

    • D. 

      Procurement and recovery priority