3D152 Volume 3
- 1.
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
- A.
Line noise
- B.
Weather effects
- C.
Frequency distortion
- D.
Electromagnetic interference
Correct Answer
B. Weather effects -
- 2.
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
- A.
Atmospheric pressure
- B.
Propagation medium
- C.
Temperature
- D.
Moisture
Correct Answer
B. Propagation medium -
- 3.
The determining factor in calculating the correct siez of a waveguide is
- A.
Frequency
- B.
Power output
- C.
Bandwidth of the transmission medium
- D.
Distance between equipment and transmitter
Correct Answer
A. Frequency -
- 4.
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
- A.
2,230
- B.
2,320
- C.
22,300
- D.
23,200
Correct Answer
C. 22,300 -
- 5.
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
- A.
Milstar Communication System
- B.
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)
- C.
Air Force Satellite Communications (AFSATCOM)
- D.
Ground Mobile Forces Satellite Communications (GMFSC)
Correct Answer
B. Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS) -
- 6.
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
- A.
Phase shifted
- B.
Transmitted
- C.
Modulated
- D.
Encoded
Correct Answer
C. Modulated -
- 7.
What is the one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
- A.
Lightwave
- B.
Microwave
- C.
Soundwave
- D.
Groundwave
Correct Answer
D. Groundwave -
- 8.
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
- A.
No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver
- B.
Cannot penetrate even very thin curtains or paper
- C.
Sensitive to atmospheric interferance
- D.
Strictly line-of-sight (LOS) transmission
Correct Answer
A. No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver -
- 9.
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
- A.
A relatively wide range of frequencies
- B.
Only high frequency information
- C.
A relatively wide range of amplitudes
- D.
Only high amplitude information
Correct Answer
A. A relatively wide range of frequencies -
- 10.
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
- A.
Telephone lines
- B.
Television cable lines
- C.
Satellite systems
- D.
Laser light
Correct Answer
D. Laser light -
- 11.
The Intergrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect switches together is the
- A.
Basic rate interface (BRI)
- B.
Primary rate interface (PRI)
- C.
Trunk rate interface (TRI)
- D.
Switch rate interface (SRI)
Correct Answer
B. Primary rate interface (PRI) -
- 12.
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
- A.
2, 1
- B.
30, 2
- C.
1, 24
- D.
23, 1
Correct Answer
D. 23, 1 -
- 13.
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange?
- A.
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues
- B.
The invention of the multi-line telephone
- C.
Military communication requirements
- D.
Radio communication requirements
Correct Answer
A. Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues -
- 14.
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
- A.
Is broadcast over multiple paths between switches
- B.
Is packetized and transmitted in circuitous bursts
- C.
Has a dedicated circuit created by the sqitch
- D.
Requires a dedicated switch to make the connection
Correct Answer
C. Has a dedicated circuit created by the sqitch -
- 15.
The three conerstones of voice network system security are availability,
- A.
Circumvention and confidentiality
- B.
Circumvention and disclosure
- C.
Confidentiality and integrity
- D.
Disclosure and integrity
Correct Answer
C. Confidentiality and integrity -
- 16.
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
- A.
Subversion
- B.
Unauthorized monitoring
- C.
Inexperienced switch technicians
- D.
Inadequate maintenance practices
Correct Answer
A. Subversion -
- 17.
What role does the Private Branch Exchanged (PBX) play in the telphony industry?
- A.
A medium scale switch that handles traffic for a small city
- B.
A very small scale switch that is also known as a key system
- C.
A large scale switch that handles the traffic for a metropolitan area
- D.
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization
Correct Answer
D. A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization -
- 18.
How many serial data ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System Controller have?
- A.
32
- B.
12
- C.
3
- D.
1
Correct Answer
C. 3 -
- 19.
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
- A.
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100
- B.
DMS-100/200 and MSL-100
- C.
DMS-100/200 and DMS-200
- D.
DMS-200 and MSL-100
Correct Answer
A. DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100 -
- 20.
What is the maximum number of ports that a digital multiplex system-100 (DMS-100) supports?
- A.
10,000
- B.
30,000
- C.
100,000
- D.
300,000
Correct Answer
C. 100,000 -
- 21.
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
- A.
Computing mode (CM) and message switches (MS)
- B.
CM and system load module (SLM)
- C.
Central processing unit (CPU) and control monitor unit (CMU)
- D.
CPU, digital signal (DS) and peripheral module (PM)
Correct Answer
B. CM and system load module (SLM) -
- 22.
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
- A.
DS-1
- B.
DS-30
- C.
DS-30A
- D.
DS-512
Correct Answer
D. DS-512 -
- 23.
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interface line and trunk subscribers?
- A.
Central control
- B.
Input/output (I/O)
- C.
Peripheral module
- D.
Peripheral subsystem (PS)
Correct Answer
C. Peripheral module -
- 24.
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
- A.
Printers, visual display unit (VDU) and tape drives
- B.
A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers
- C.
A maintenance and administration position (MAP)
- D.
The central processing unit (CPU) and keyboad
Correct Answer
B. A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers -
- 25.
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
- A.
Cable manhole
- B.
Telecommunications cable closet
- C.
Building cable raceway
- D.
Cable vault
Correct Answer
D. Cable vault -
- 26.
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
- A.
Verify the circuit is not in use
- B.
Prevent interruptions to critical circuits
- C.
Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line
- D.
Avoind activating alarm circuits
Correct Answer
C. Ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line -
- 27.
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
- A.
Vertical bus
- B.
Horizontal bus
- C.
Clock/message card
- D.
Enhanced network (ENET) processor
Correct Answer
A. Vertical bus -
- 28.
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available
- A.
Computing mode channel
- B.
Peripheral channel
- C.
H-bus channel
- D.
Output channel
Correct Answer
D. Output channel -
- 29.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
- A.
Journal file
- B.
Table control
- C.
Dump/restore
- D.
Pending order file
Correct Answer
B. Table control -
- 30.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility povides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specific time for execution?
- A.
Journal file
- B.
Table Control
- C.
Dump/restore
- D.
Pending order file
Correct Answer
D. Pending order file -
- 31.
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tabe or disk so that data tables cab be restored if the system should fail?
- A.
Jounal file
- B.
Table control
- C.
Dump/restore
- D.
Pending order file
Correct Answer
A. Jounal file -
- 32.
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
- A.
Adminitration and maintenance interface
- B.
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum
- C.
Meridian mail user interface
- D.
Message service interface
Correct Answer
C. Meridian mail user interface -
- 33.
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
- A.
Adminitration and maintenance interface
- B.
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum
- C.
Meridian mail user interface
- D.
Message service interface
Correct Answer
B. Voice Messaging User Interface Forum -
- 34.
Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33 degrees counterclockwise?
- A.
To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective primary colors
- B.
To align R-Y and B-Y with their respective complementary colors
- C.
R-Y was shifted to minimum and B-Y was shifted to maximum color acuity,respectively for human vision
- D.
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision
Correct Answer
D. R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for human vision -
- 35.
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
- A.
Encoder
- B.
Decoder
- C.
Multiplexer
- D.
Demultiplexer
Correct Answer
A. Encoder -
- 36.
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) system?
- A.
4-quadraplex sideband (4-QSB)
- B.
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB)
- C.
4-vestigial modulation (4-VM)
- D.
8-quadrature modulation (8-QM)
Correct Answer
B. 8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB) -
- 37.
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
- A.
Motion Pictures Experts Group (MPEG)-1
- B.
MPEG-2
- C.
MPEG-3
- D.
MPEG-4
Correct Answer
B. MPEG-2 -
- 38.
How many lines of video are discarded in high definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
- A.
2
- B.
4
- C.
6
- D.
8
Correct Answer
D. 8 -
- 39.
How is information recorded or stored on the video tape?
- A.
Series of magnetic patterns
- B.
Series of edited electrical patterns
- C.
Transferred current indents
- D.
Transferred voltage indents
Correct Answer
A. Series of magnetic patterns -
- 40.
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
- A.
Magnet
- B.
Conductor
- C.
Electromagnet
- D.
Charged capacitor
Correct Answer
C. Electromagnet -
- 41.
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape across the head gat at the same speed at which it was recorded?
- A.
Fast Forward
- B.
Playback
- C.
Erasure
- D.
Rewind
Correct Answer
B. Playback -
- 42.
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
- A.
Minimizing video loss
- B.
Carrying a video waveform
- C.
Minimized signal dropout
- D.
Transmitting an analog waveform
Correct Answer
B. Carrying a video waveform -
- 43.
What is a major advantage of digital recording overf analog recording?
- A.
MAterial can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality
- B.
Material can be regenerated when the signal is converted to a different digital domain
- C.
The material recorded can be clones with noticeable gain loss of quality
- D.
The recorded material can be converted to a different digital domain
Correct Answer
A. MAterial can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality -
- 44.
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19 mm wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
- A.
D1
- B.
D2
- C.
D3
- D.
D4
Correct Answer
A. D1 -
- 45.
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a video tape recorder (VTR)?
- A.
Tape meter
- B.
Tracker
- C.
Counter
- D.
Display clock
Correct Answer
C. Counter -
- 46.
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
- A.
Effects keyer
- B.
Effects preview multiplier
- C.
Effects program multiplier
- D.
Transition pattern generator
Correct Answer
A. Effects keyer -
- 47.
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
- A.
Linear and chroma signal from the effects keyer
- B.
Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal
- C.
Key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal
- D.
Luminance signal and chroma key signal from the effects keyer
Correct Answer
C. Key bus keying signal or an internally-generated color matte signal -
- 48.
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
- A.
Remote control of switcher transitions
- B.
Remote programming of all switcher functions
- C.
Parallel interface with the switcher effects memory
- D.
Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory
Correct Answer
A. Remote control of switcher transitions -
- 49.
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
- A.
Remote control of switcher transitions
- B.
Remote programming of all switcher functions
- C.
Serial interface programming with the switcher effects memory
- D.
Emote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator
Correct Answer
D. Emote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator -
- 50.
What are the frequencies at which two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
- A.
60 Hz and 15,750 Hz
- B.
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz
- C.
15,750 Hz and 4.5 MHz
- D.
15,750 Hz and 5.5 MHz
Correct Answer
B. 60 Hz and 5.5 MHz -
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Apr 29, 2013Quiz Edited by
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