3d151 Volume 2

100 Questions

Settings
Please wait...
Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    The process of condensation occurs when air particles are
    • A. 

      Pressurized causing them to move closer together

    • B. 

      Heated rapidly causing them to spread farther apart

    • C. 

      Pressurized causing them to be released to the atmosphere

    • D. 

      Heated rapidly causing them to move closer together

  • 2. 
    In hertz (Hz), what range of sound can the human ear detect?
    • A. 

      200 to 3,000

    • B. 

      20 to 20,000

    • C. 

      20 to 200,000

    • D. 

      Up to 2,600

  • 3. 
    The loudness of a sound is closely related to what part of the sine wave?
    • A. 

      Amplitude

    • B. 

      Frequency

    • C. 

      Tone

    • D. 

      Pitch

  • 4. 
    Noise may be introduced into speech signals by thermal agitation and
    • A. 

      Power variations

    • B. 

      Black body radiation

    • C. 

      Molecular breakdown

    • D. 

      Amplitude variations

  • 5. 
    In hertz (Hz), what is the actual voice frequency band?
    • A. 

      300 to 1600

    • B. 

      300 to 3400

    • C. 

      300 to 3800

    • D. 

      300 to 2600

  • 6. 
    Which models of end offices in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS) family are commonly used at Air Force bases to provide base telephone services?
    • A. 

      DMS–100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

    • B. 

      DMS–100/200 and MSL–100.

    • C. 

      DMS–100/200 and DMS–200.

    • D. 

      DMS–200 and MSL–100.

  • 7. 
    Which model of Digital Multiplex System (DMS)–100 family switches is installed in compact modular cabinets?
    • A. 

      Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100.

    • B. 

      DMS–200

    • C. 

      DMS–100

    • D. 

      System load (SL)–1.

  • 8. 
    What is the maximum number of ports that a Meridian System Logic (MSL)–100 will support?
    • A. 

      30,000

    • B. 

      300,000

    • C. 

      100,000

    • D. 

      10,000

  • 9. 
    Which type link is normally used to interconnect two peripheral modules (PM) in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?
    • A. 

      DS–30A

    • B. 

      Digital signal (DS)–1

    • C. 

      DS–32

    • D. 

      T1A

  • 10. 
    What major area is connected to the central side (C-side) of a network module (NM) in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?What major area is connected to the central side (C-side) of a network module (NM) in the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?
    • A. 

      Peripheral module (PM)

    • B. 

      Control node (CN)

    • C. 

      Central control

    • D. 

      Message controller (MC)

  • 11. 
    What is the mounting bracket called on which transmission or switching equipment is mounted in a Digital Multiplex System (DMS)?
    • A. 

      Bay

    • B. 

      Card

    • C. 

      Frame

    • D. 

      Shelf

  • 12. 
    What contains bays of the same functional equipment?
    • A. 

      Shelf

    • B. 

      Card

    • C. 

      Bay

    • D. 

      Frame

  • 13. 
    Which Digital Multiplex System (DMS) component uses 16–bit Motorola 68000 or 8bit Intel microprocessors?
    • A. 

      A peripheral module’s (PM) peripheral processor (PP)

    • B. 

      The computing module’s (CM) central processing unit (CPU)

    • C. 

      A device controller

    • D. 

      The network message controller

  • 14. 
    How many channels of data does each digital signal (DS) 30 speech link carry?
    • A. 

      32

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      36

    • D. 

      34

  • 15. 
    Up to how many duplicated digital signals (DS)–30 links are used to connect a line group controller (LGC) to the network module (NM)?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      8

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      6

  • 16. 
    What type of digital signal (DS) links are used to connect the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Core and the DMS-Bus?
    • A. 

      512

    • B. 

      30A

    • C. 

      1

    • D. 

      30

  • 17. 
    How many inter message switch links (IMSL) can be configured in a SuperNode?
    • A. 

      2

    • B. 

      16

    • C. 

      8

    • D. 

      4

  • 18. 
    • A. 

      Network module (NM)

    • B. 

      Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Bus

    • C. 

      Peripheral module (PM)

    • D. 

      DMS-Core

  • 19. 
    What type of digital signal (DS) protocol is used as a message carrier between the Digital Multiplex System (DMS)-Bus and the network modules (NM) and input/output controller (IOC)?
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      3

    • C. 

      512

    • D. 

      30

  • 20. 
    Where are the DMS-Core and DMS-Bus housed?
    • A. 

      Line trunk controller (LTC)

    • B. 

      Multipoint control unit (MCU)

    • C. 

      Multipoint controller (MC)

    • D. 

      Dual plane combined core (DPCC)

  • 21. 
    What is the first step in the pulse code modulation (PCM) process?
    • A. 

      The analog signal is band-limited

    • B. 

      The quantizer limits the amplitude of the pulses

    • C. 

      A binary code number is assigned to the sample

    • D. 

      Discrete amplitudes are assigned to the sampling pulses

  • 22. 
    In the pulse code modulation (PCM) process, changing the quantized samples into a binary word is called
    • A. 

      Band limiting

    • B. 

      Encoding

    • C. 

      Sampling

    • D. 

      Quantization

  • 23. 
    What is a method of putting many users on a single cable pair?
    • A. 

      Pulse code modulation

    • B. 

      Pulse amplitude modulation.

    • C. 

      Time code multiplexing

    • D. 

      Time division multiplexing

  • 24. 
    In the time division multiplexing (TDM) process, the rate of sampling must be equal to
    • A. 

      The lowest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

    • B. 

      Twice the lowest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

    • C. 

      The highest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

    • D. 

      Twice the highest frequency sampled multiplied by the sampling rate per cycle

  • 25. 
    Each 125μs time period in the digital signal (DS) 30 signaling format (used within the voice network system) is called a
    • A. 

      Snapshot

    • B. 

      Frame

    • C. 

      Channel

    • D. 

      Span

  • 26. 
    Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) can combine voice and data services over the same wires because it uses
    • A. 

      Digital subscriber lines

    • B. 

      Internet data lines.

    • C. 

      Direct connection lines

    • D. 

      Standard telephone lines

  • 27. 
    What type of information is transmitted on a Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) B channel?
    • A. 

      Signaling

    • B. 

      Call control

    • C. 

      Supervisory

    • D. 

      User

  • 28. 
    What are the two major established Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) transmission rates?
    • A. 

      Bearer rate interface and data rate interface

    • B. 

      Primary rate interface and secondary rate interface

    • C. 

      Basic rate interface and secondary rate interface

    • D. 

      Basic rate interface and primary rate interface

  • 29. 
    What is the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) R interface?
    • A. 

      Connection point between a non-ISDN compatible device and a terminal adapter (TA)

    • B. 

      Incoming connection point of a network termination 2 device

    • C. 

      Connection point between a network termination 1 device and the ISDN

    • D. 

      Outgoing connection point of a network termination 2 device

  • 30. 
    The Network Layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model provides the
    • A. 

      Logical links between customer equipment and the circuit switch

    • B. 

      Physical characteristics between the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) interface and the network

    • C. 

      Actual routing of the signal

    • D. 

      Final preparation of the signal before it is routed

  • 31. 
    What circuit board in the REDCOM switch provides two signaling channels and is only necessary when interfacing with an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)-capable switch?
    • A. 

      T1 legacy to internet

    • B. 

      T1 direct digital interface

    • C. 

      Basic rate U

    • D. 

      Message transceiver interface

  • 32. 
    One of the main purposes of the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) handset telephone test set is to
    • A. 

      Insert tones

    • B. 

      Detect noise

    • C. 

      Insert a signal delay

    • D. 

      Verify a dial tone

  • 33. 
    What is the frame rate in feet per second (FPS) for transmitting video teleconferencing data on the Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)?
    • A. 

      24

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      32

  • 34. 
    What component in the video teleconferencing (VTC) system converts analog signals to digital signals?
    • A. 

      Camera

    • B. 

      Central processing unit (CPU)

    • C. 

      Coder/decoder (CODEC)

    • D. 

      Network termination 1

  • 35. 
    How many channels are used when a voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) session is established between a private branch exchange (PBX) and another IP host?
    • A. 

      One, they share the same channel

    • B. 

      Two, one for each direction

    • C. 

      Three, two to transmit/receive and one to signal

    • D. 

      Four, two to transmit and two to receive

  • 36. 
    What component of voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is an endpoint on the network that provides real time, bi-directional communications between H.323 terminals and other switch circuit networks (SCN)?
    • A. 

      Gatekeeper

    • B. 

      Gateway

    • C. 

      Multipoint control unit (MCU)

    • D. 

      Terminal adapter

  • 37. 
    What component of voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) provides call management functions in a defined local area called a zone?
    • A. 

      Gatekeeper

    • B. 

      Multipoint control unit (MCU)

    • C. 

      Gateway

    • D. 

      Terminal adapter

  • 38. 
    How many milliseconds should the one-way delay be from endpoint to endpoint in order to implement voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP)?
    • A. 

      Less than 150

    • B. 

      Greater than 150

    • C. 

      Less than 50

    • D. 

      Greater than 50

  • 39. 
    What is the control system that generates a signal with a fixed relation to the phase of a reference signal and responds to both the frequency and the phase of the input signals?
    • A. 

      Quality of service (QoS)

    • B. 

      Remote control protocol (RCP)

    • C. 

      Phase-locked loop (PLL)

    • D. 

      Forward error correction (FEC)

  • 40. 
    What are frequencies from 30 to 300 megahertz (MHz) internationally designated as?
    • A. 

      High

    • B. 

      Very high

    • C. 

      Ultra high

    • D. 

      Medium

  • 41. 
    The ultra high frequency designation applies to frequencies from
    • A. 

      3 to 30 gigahertz (GHz)

    • B. 

      300 to 3,000 MHz

    • C. 

      30 to 300 GHz

    • D. 

      3 to 30 megahertz (MHz)

  • 42. 
    Which of the following frequencies has the shortest wavelength?
    • A. 

      1.4 megahertz (MHz)

    • B. 

      14 kilohertz (kHz)

    • C. 

      14 MHz

    • D. 

      140 MHz

  • 43. 
    A mode of operation in which communication is possible between two or more stations, in both directions, using the same frequency, is called
    • A. 

      Duplex

    • B. 

      Simplex

    • C. 

      Hybrid

    • D. 

      Half-duplex

  • 44. 
    What communication mode(s) of operation allows two or more stations to send intelligence in both directions but not simultaneously?
    • A. 

      Simplex and half duplex

    • B. 

      Duplex and half duplex

    • C. 

      Half duplex only

    • D. 

      Duplex only

  • 45. 
    Producing radio frequency (RF) energy and radiating useful signals into space is the purpose of the
    • A. 

      Transmitter

    • B. 

      Receiver

    • C. 

      Antenna couple

    • D. 

      Transmission lines

  • 46. 
    What type modulation produces a constant amplitude transmission?
    • A. 

      Amplitude

    • B. 

      Pulse

    • C. 

      Phased

    • D. 

      Frequency

  • 47. 
    The ability to maintain a constant output carrier frequency refers to a transmitter’s frequency
    • A. 

      Sensitivity

    • B. 

      Accuracy

    • C. 

      Distortion

    • D. 

      Signal-to-noise ratio

  • 48. 
    The process of mixing or combining two frequencies in a nonlinear device in an amplitude modulated (AM) receiver is called
    • A. 

      Amplifying

    • B. 

      Limiting

    • C. 

      Heterodyning

    • D. 

      Discriminating

  • 49. 
    What component of a frequency modulated (FM) receiver removes the original signal from the sidebands and recreates the audio intelligence?
    • A. 

      Discriminator

    • B. 

      Limiter

    • C. 

      Detector

    • D. 

      Amplifier

  • 50. 
    What characteristic enables a receiver to reproduce a desired signal from several closely spaced stations or from interfering frequencies?
    • A. 

      Fade margin

    • B. 

      Sensitivity

    • C. 

      Thermal noise

    • D. 

      Selectivity

  • 51. 
    The total resistive properties of a circuit when resistance, capacitive reactance, and inductive reactance are formulated together is called
    • A. 

      Resistance

    • B. 

      Impedance

    • C. 

      Attenuation

    • D. 

      Distortion

  • 52. 
    What transmission line is very common in both fixed and tactical application?
    • A. 

      Waveguide

    • B. 

      Twisted pair

    • C. 

      Flexible coax

    • D. 

      Shielded pair

  • 53. 
    What field provides the basis of radio frequency (RF) communications by detaching from the conductor and traveling through space?
    • A. 

      Magnetic

    • B. 

      Radiation

    • C. 

      Induction

    • D. 

      Electric

  • 54. 
    For best communications, the transmitting antenna
    • A. 

      Should be circular and the receiving antenna horizontal

    • B. 

      And receiving antenna should have the same polarization

    • C. 

      Should be vertical and receiving antenna horizontal

    • D. 

      Should be horizontal and receiving antenna vertical

  • 55. 
    What standard antenna is used for antenna gain comparison?
    • A. 

      Isotropic

    • B. 

      Parabolic

    • C. 

      Whip

    • D. 

      Dipole

  • 56. 
    When the gain of an anisotropic radiator is compared to the isotropic radiator, the stronger signal of the directional antenna is expressed as
    • A. 

      Decibels (dB) gain

    • B. 

      DB plus

    • C. 

      Over voltage

    • D. 

      Over watts

  • 57. 
    What is the shortest wavelength an antenna can be made resonant?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Half

    • C. 

      One

    • D. 

      Quarter

  • 58. 
    What tuning devices are adjusted when tuning the resonant transmission line-resonant antenna connection?
    • A. 

      Inductors and resistors

    • B. 

      Capacitors and resistors

    • C. 

      Inductors, capacitors, and resistors

    • D. 

      Inductors and capacitors

  • 59. 
    What limits a direct wave to normally less than 20 miles?
    • A. 

      Building in the area

    • B. 

      Curvature of the earth

    • C. 

      Physical limitation of the frequency in use

    • D. 

      Topographic features

  • 60. 
    Which type of precipitation attenuates radio frequency (RF) energy just like rain?
    • A. 

      Fog

    • B. 

      Ice

    • C. 

      Snow

    • D. 

      Hail

  • 61. 
    What ratio is used to measure the desired signal strength relative to the background noise?
    • A. 

      Signal-to-noise

    • B. 

      Percentage of modulation

    • C. 

      Selectivity

    • D. 

      Distortion

  • 62. 
    What combination of Air Force instructions (AFI) do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution for personal wireless communications systems (PWCS)?
    • A. 

      AFI 33–106 and AFI 33–201V1

    • B. 

      AFI 33–201V1 and AFI 33–219

    • C. 

      AFI 33–118 and AFI 33–219

    • D. 

      AFI 33–106 and AFI 33–118

  • 63. 
    Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device can be used for command and control?
    • A. 

      Pager

    • B. 

      Family radio service (FRS)

    • C. 

      Land mobile radio (LMR)

    • D. 

      Intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance (ISR)

  • 64. 
    Which personal wireless communications system (PWCS) device’s original intent was for use by family, friends, and associates to communicate among themselves within a small area?
    • A. 

      Personal digital assistant (PDA)

    • B. 

      Pager

    • C. 

      Land mobile radio (LMR)

    • D. 

      Family radio service (FRS)

  • 65. 
    What channel access method assigns each call a certain portion of time on a designated frequency?
    • A. 

      Personal communications services (PCS)

    • B. 

      Time division multiple access (TDMA)

    • C. 

      Global system for mobile communications (GSM)

    • D. 

      Frequency division multiple access (FDMA)

  • 66. 
    Who is usually responsible for their air time charges and must budget accordingly?
    • A. 

      Unit

    • B. 

      Installation spectrum manager (ISM)

    • C. 

      Communications and information systems (CSO)

    • D. 

      Base personal wireless communications systems (PWCS) manager

  • 67. 
    Cell sites are generally thought of as being a
    • A. 

      Octagon

    • B. 

      Square

    • C. 

      Pentagon

    • D. 

      Hexagon

  • 68. 
    Which conventional land mobile radio (LMR) device has a transmitting power of 5 or 6 watts?
    • A. 

      Mobile

    • B. 

      Portable

    • C. 

      Repeater

    • D. 

      Base station

  • 69. 
    What conventional land mobile radio (LMR) device serves as the hub of a net?
    • A. 

      Base station

    • B. 

      Repeater

    • C. 

      Mobile

    • D. 

      Portable

  • 70. 
    In trunked land mobile radio (LMR) systems, different user groups are known as
    • A. 

      Packets

    • B. 

      Nets

    • C. 

      Channels

    • D. 

      Talkgroups

  • 71. 
    Which trunking user equipment has the capability to monitor more than one talkgroup at a time?
    • A. 

      Portables

    • B. 

      Mobiles

    • C. 

      Control stations

    • D. 

      Dispatch consoles

  • 72. 
    What enhanced features of the trunking land mobile radio (LMR) allows the system manager to completely disable radios in the field from the system terminal?
    • A. 

      Squelch circuit

    • B. 

      Scan funtion

    • C. 

      Talkgroup selector switch

    • D. 

      Selective radio inhibit

  • 73. 
    In response to disaster relief operations, the Department of Defense (DOD) Policy on Procurement of Mobile Satellite Services (MSS) was amended in 2006 to allow the DOD to use additional MSS providers for
    • A. 

      Unclassified purposes outside the continental United States (CONUS)

    • B. 

      Unclassified purposes within the CONUS

    • C. 

      Classified purposes outside the CONUS

    • D. 

      Classified purposes within the CONUS

  • 74. 
    What type areas is International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) coverage separated into?
    • A. 

      Ocean

    • B. 

      Regional

    • C. 

      Continental

    • D. 

      Geographical

  • 75. 
    Which International Mobile Satellite Organization (Inmarsat) system has a land mobile terminal, typically has a one meter flat array antenna, and weights 30 to 40 pounds?
    • A. 

      M

    • B. 

      B

    • C. 

      Aero I

    • D. 

      Mini-M

  • 76. 
    What are the two basic groups of channel banks?
    • A. 

      Multiplexers and channel units

    • B. 

      Multiplexers and demultiplexers

    • C. 

      Channel and common equipment units

    • D. 

      Common equipment units and demultiplexers

  • 77. 
    What is the transmission rate, in megabits per second (Mbps), of Mode 3 in channel bank operations?
    • A. 

      1.544

    • B. 

      2.176

    • C. 

      3.153

    • D. 

      6.312

  • 78. 
    What function does the line driver unit (LDU) perform for a channel bank unit?
    • A. 

      Multiplexing

    • B. 

      Clock generation

    • C. 

      Digital/analog conversion

    • D. 

      Transmit/receive signaling

  • 79. 
    What type of shelf contains the DC552A channel service unit (CSU)?
    • A. 

      Modem

    • B. 

      Interface

    • C. 

      Data store

    • D. 

      Processor

  • 80. 
    What is another name for a stuffing or S-bit in relationship to a channel service unit (CSU)?
    • A. 

      Parity

    • B. 

      Timing

    • C. 

      Framing

    • D. 

      Sequence

  • 81. 
    What component is installed to provide a dataset protection against accidental shorts to –52 volts direct current (VDC) analog lines?
    • A. 

      Digital service unit (DSU)

    • B. 

      Channel service unit (CSU)

    • C. 

      Line T-1 interface (LTI)

    • D. 

      Load line interface (LLI)

  • 82. 
    What Meridian application provides local area network (LAN) connectivity so you can share equipment, data files, and application software utilizing a modem?
    • A. 

      CompuCALL

    • B. 

      E-mail service

    • C. 

      Visual Screen List Editing

    • D. 

      Simplified message desk interface

  • 83. 
    Where is the optional supervisory lamp panel for the 291 Conference/Alerting System usually installed?
    • A. 

      Job control

    • B. 

      The base operator

    • C. 

      The master station

    • D. 

      Central security control

  • 84. 
    Where is the optional supervisory lamp panel for the 291 Conference/Alerting System usually installed?
    • A. 

      Central office

    • B. 

      Internal control

    • C. 

      External control

    • D. 

      Station interface

  • 85. 
    The power plant ground supply will not provide
    • A. 

      Personnel and equipment protection

    • B. 

      System operation return paths

    • C. 

      Audio and radio frequency noise sinks

    • D. 

      Digital signal grounds

  • 86. 
    Fuse block number 62F14 in a given power distribution center (PDC) identifies the
    • A. 

      15th fuse on the panel in mounting position 62

    • B. 

      14th fuse on the panel in mounting position 62

    • C. 

      62nd fuse on the panel in mounting position 15

    • D. 

      62nd fuse on the panel in mounting position 14

  • 87. 
    Alarm and control inputs detected by the alarm system hardware are interfaced with the alarm system software through
    • A. 

      The meridian trunk module

    • B. 

      The office alarm unit

    • C. 

      Scan points

    • D. 

      Signal points

  • 88. 
    What hardware entity contains the alarm system backup circuits which generate an alarm if the office alarm unit fails?
    • A. 

      The master control

    • B. 

      The central processing unit

    • C. 

      A meridian trunk module

    • D. 

      Meridian trunk module number 8

  • 89. 
    The primary reason you measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
    • A. 

      Make sure dangerous voltages are not present on the line

    • B. 

      Prevent interruptions to critical circuits

    • C. 

      Avoid activating alarm circuits

    • D. 

      Verify the circuit is not in use

  • 90. 
    In addition to fiber-optic and copper cables, what do we use to interconnect integrated communications access package access nodes on a deployed base within the same theater area?
    • A. 

      Microwave and laser

    • B. 

      Microwave only

    • C. 

      Satellite and laser

    • D. 

      Satellite only

  • 91. 
    What is the design architecture of theater deployable communications (TDC) metropolitan area network (MAN)?
    • A. 

      Point-point

    • B. 

      Hub-spoke

    • C. 

      Point-hub

    • D. 

      Spoke-point

  • 92. 
    What type of connectivity does a voice backbone in the theater deployable communications (TDC) architecture provide?
    • A. 

      64 kilobits per second (Kbps) Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) basic rate interface (BRI)

    • B. 

      64 Kbps ISDN primary rate interface (PRI)

    • C. 

      1.544 megabits per second (Mbps) ISDN BRI

    • D. 

      1.544 Mbps ISDN PRI

  • 93. 
    What equipment is included in a customer access node (CAN) to provide the inter-site connectivity?
    • A. 

      Troposcatter-Satellite Support Radio

    • B. 

      Voice switch and Promina multiplexer

    • C. 

      Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST)

    • D. 

      Secure telephone unit and AN/FCC–100 multiplexer

  • 94. 
    What major equipment in a theater deployable communications (TDC) package provides mobile units with flexible, lightweight, secure, modular, and integrate  deployable communications?
    • A. 

      Troposcatter-Satellite Support Radio (TSSR) and Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP)

    • B. 

      Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) and ICAP

    • C. 

      TSSR only

    • D. 

      LMST only

  • 95. 
    What is the long-haul transmission component of Theater Deployable Communications (TDC)?
    • A. 

      Ground mobile forces (GMF) terminal

    • B. 

      Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST)

    • C. 

      AN/TRC–170, Digital Troposcatter Radio Terminal Set

    • D. 

      AN/TSQ–111, Communications Nodal Control Element

  • 96. 
    What’s the difference between the basic access module (BAM) and the configurable access module (CAM)?
    • A. 

      CAM provides a secure data network to local subscribers

    • B. 

      BAM provides a secure data network to local subscribers

    • C. 

      CAM has a fixed capability

    • D. 

      BAM has a fixed capability

  • 97. 
    What Integrated Communications Access Package (ICAP) node module provides the radio frequency (RF) line-of-sight (LOS) link function for internodal connectivity?
    • A. 

      Microwave

    • B. 

      Multiplexer

    • C. 

      Crypto

    • D. 

      Laser

  • 98. 
    Upon arrival in a theater, what frequency band does the Lightweight Multiband Satellite Terminal (LMST) use for initial communications connectivity to the Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS)?
    • A. 

      C only

    • B. 

      X only

    • C. 

      C and Ku

    • D. 

      X and Ku

  • 99. 
    What theater deployable communications (TDC) system provides message handling services?
    • A. 

      Unit Level Message Switch

    • B. 

      Automatic Message Switching Set

    • C. 

      AN/TGC–27 Deployable Message Center

    • D. 

      Stand-Alone Message Processing System

  • 100. 
    What must customers do to connect telephones and computer workstations to the theater deployable communications (TDC) backbone network?
    • A. 

      Adhere to various open system standards and interfaces such as Ethernet

    • B. 

      Adhere to military encryption standards on all connections

    • C. 

      Provide an Integrated Digital Network Exchange (IDNX)/Promina multiplexer

    • D. 

      Provide fiber optic cables and connectors