1.
What is the minimum number of computers needed for a computer network?
Correct Answer
A. 2
2.
What is a privately-owned network whose access is restricted to authorized personnel?
Correct Answer
C. Intranetwork
3.
What type of network environments consist of computer systems from different vendors that run different operating systems and communication protocols?
Correct Answer
D. Heterogeneous network
4.
What is a communications network that serves users within a confined geographical area?
Correct Answer
B. Local area network
5.
What type of communications network links a broad geographical region?
Correct Answer
D. Wide area network
6.
What type of communications network links different interconnected networks over an unlimited geographical region?
Correct Answer
B. Global
7.
How many users are normally in a peer-to-peer network?
Correct Answer
A. 2-10
8.
How many users are in a single-server network?
Correct Answer
A. 10-50
9.
How many users are in a multi-server network?
Correct Answer
C. 50-250
10.
What type of communications network links geographically dispersed offices in other cities
or around the globe?
Correct Answer
B. Wide area network
11.
What is used to identify network nodes on a physically connected network?
Correct Answer
A. Mac adress
12.
How many octets is the standard internet protocol broken down into?
Correct Answer
D. 4
13.
What is the binary equivalent to the dotted decimal number 96?
Correct Answer
A. 01100000
14.
What is the network id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
Correct Answer
B. 131.10.0.0
15.
What is the host id of internet protocol (IP) address 131.10.230.120/24?
Correct Answer
A. 0.0.0.10
16.
How many bits are typically covered in an internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) subnet mask?
Correct Answer
C. 128
17.
What series of Air Force instruction series covers communications and information?
Correct Answer
C. AFI 33–104
18.
According to the Air Force network structure, what tier is the Air Force network operations
center (AFNOSC)?
Correct Answer
A. 1
19.
What network entity provides reliable, secure networks and network services for base level
customers?
Correct Answer
A. Network control center (NCC)
20.
What is defined as a bundle of application software designed to significantly improve
network efficiency and productivity?
Correct Answer
C. Network management server
21.
Which of the following are the three most common network management architectures?
Correct Answer
C. Centralized, hierarchical, and distributed
22.
What network architecture has a network management platform on one computer system at
a location that is responsible for all network management duties?
Correct Answer
A. Centralized
23.
What network architecture uses multiple systems for network management, with one system
acting as a central server and the others working as clients?
Correct Answer
C. Hierarchical
24.
What level of network management activity are you working at when you as the network
manager are monitoring and troubleshooting components to eliminate the side-effect alarms and isolate problems to a root cause?
Correct Answer
B. Interactive
25.
What level of network management activity are you working at when the automated
monitoring of components provides problem analysis, giving a root cause alarm for the problem
at-hand,and automatic restorative processes are in-place wherever possible to
minimize downtime.
Correct Answer
D. Proactive
26.
Performance management can be broke into what two separate functional categories?
Correct Answer
C. Monitoring and tuning
27.
Which function of performance management tracks historical data by tracking activities on
the network?
Correct Answer
D. Monitoring
28.
What is established to distinguish between errors that fall within a normal range and
excessive errors because of a fault?
Correct Answer
B. Tolerance parameters
29.
Network management protocols are designed (in most cases) to reside above what layer of
the operational system interface (OSI) model?
Correct Answer
A. Session
30.
What is a hierarchical structured format that defines the network management information
available from network devices?
Correct Answer
D. Management information base
31.
What area of the simple network management protocol (SNMP) tree structure is reserved
for vendors related label and leaf objects associated with specific manufactured equipment?
Correct Answer
B. Private
32.
What simple network management protocol (SNMP) node is responsible for monitoring,
collecting and reporting management data to the management system?
Correct Answer
D. Agent
33.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message asks for a
specific instance of management information?
Correct Answer
A. Get
34.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to retrieve
multiple pieces of information with minimal overhead?
Correct Answer
D. GetNext
35.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is used to modify
the value of one or more instances of management information?
Correct Answer
B. Set
36.
What operational simple network management protocol (SNMP) message is an unsolicited
message from an agent to the manager?
Correct Answer
C. Trap
37.
What is the type of probe that collects inter-device connectivity information using
proprietary topology management information bases (MIB)?
Correct Answer
B. Neighbor probe
38.
What is the centerpiece of a systems management automated report tracking system
(SMARTS) application?
Correct Answer
D. Domain manager
39.
What component of the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)
application contains knowledge of available domain managers?
Correct Answer
A. Broker
40.
What are the three types of systems management automated report tracking system
(SMARTS) notifications?
Correct Answer
D. Compound events, problems, and symptomatic events
41.
What color on the systems management automated report tracking system (SMARTS)
alarm log indicates one or more events?
Correct Answer
C. Purple
42.
How many different categories of information does the performance monitor provide you
about your network?
Correct Answer
D. 21
43.
What device provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing
communications software?
Correct Answer
B. Protocol analyzer
44.
What provides information concerning the network utilization and frame errors that are
related to a specific protocol?
Correct Answer
C. Protocol statistics
45.
What reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence
(FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
Correct Answer
A. Media access control (MAC) node statistics
46.
What automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is
activated?
Correct Answer
D. Node discovery
47.
What is a measure used to verify the eligibility of a subject and the ability of the subject to access certain information?
Correct Answer
A. Authentication.
48.
What are three primary ways to authenticate one-self?
Correct Answer
D. Something you know, something you have, or something are.
49.
Knowledge-based identification and authentication methods require the user to provide
something you
Correct Answer
A. Know
50.
The Air Force requires a network password to be at least how many characters long?
Correct Answer
D. 9