3d054 Vol. 2
Lifecycle Management and Development Concepts
- 1.
Regarding software management, which phrase best defines software life cycle methodology?
- A.
Focus of design, build, and disposal procedures of software systems.
- B.
Focus of design, build, and implementation standards of software systems.
- C.
Procedures affecting the design, build, and implementation of software systems.
- D.
Standards and procedures affecting the design, implementation and disposal of software systems.
Correct Answer
D. Standards and procedures affecting the design, implementation and disposal of software systems. -
- 2.
What function in the software lifecycle development is recognized by more advanced software producing organizations?
- A.
Lifecycle methodologies.
- B.
Software quality assurance.
- C.
Software quality attributes.
- D.
Software quality verification and validation.
Correct Answer
B. Software quality assurance. -
- 3.
The ability to learn, operate, prepare input, and interpret output is the definition of which software quality attribute?
- A.
Usability.
- B.
Portability.
- C.
Reusability.
- D.
Interoperability.
Correct Answer
A. Usability. -
- 4.
The effort required to transfer a program from one hardware configuration to another is the definition of which software quality attribute?
- A.
Usability.
- B.
Portability.
- C.
Reusability.
- D.
Interoperability.
Correct Answer
B. Portability. -
- 5.
Which statement is correct of applying quality assurance to the software life cycle?
- A.
The coding phase is checked to see if what was specified during the design phase is accomplished.
- B.
The testing phase is exempt from quality assurance procedures.
- C.
The design phase is not involved in quality assurance.
- D.
Specifications are checked during the design phase.
Correct Answer
A. The coding phase is checked to see if what was specified during the design phase is accomplished. -
- 6.
When applying software quality assurance practices, in which phase do you verify that the implemented system achieves the goals specified during the design phase?
- A.
Design.
- B.
Coding.
- C.
Testing.
- D.
Standards.
Correct Answer
C. Testing. -
- 7.
Which quality assurance software engineering principle requires the developer to understand the scope of the development effort?
- A.
Analyze requirements, including constraints.
- B.
Use capable software processes.
- C.
Follow a disciplined process.
- D.
Explore alternative concepts.
Correct Answer
B. Use capable software processes. -
- 8.
Which quality assurance software engineering principle recommends modeling or prototyping?
- A.
Analyze requirements, including constraints.
- B.
Use capable software processes.
- C.
Follow a disciplined process.
- D.
Explore alternative concepts.
Correct Answer
D. Explore alternative concepts. -
- 9.
Which procedure involves looking at an existing software process and breaking it down into steps or areas?
- A.
Software qualities.
- B.
Procedural modules.
- C.
Functions and procedures.
- D.
Software process improvements.
Correct Answer
D. Software process improvements. -
- 10.
Which Capability Maturity Model level is defined as repeatable?
- A.
Level 1.
- B.
Level 2.
- C.
Level 3.
- D.
Level 4.
Correct Answer
B. Level 2. -
- 11.
In which Capability Maturity Model level are processes and products quantitatively measured, understood, and controlled?
- A.
Level 1.
- B.
Level 2.
- C.
Level 3.
- D.
Level 4.
Correct Answer
D. Level 4. -
- 12.
Which function best provides early indications of potential software development problems?
- A.
Software metrics.
- B.
Software acquisition.
- C.
Software quality assurance.
- D.
Configuration management.
Correct Answer
A. Software metrics. -
- 13.
Having only one way to interpret the metric describes which attribute?
- A.
Timely.
- B.
Unambiguously defined.
- C.
Drives appropriate action.
- D.
Data is economical to collect.
Correct Answer
B. Unambiguously defined. -
- 14.
Which metric attribute specifies that data needs to be collected on a schedule?
- A.
Timely.
- B.
Unambiguously defined.
- C.
Drives appropriate action.
- D.
Data is economical to collect.
Correct Answer
A. Timely. -
- 15.
What question would a quality metric ask?
- A.
How accurate is the navigation algorithm?
- B.
How much did the first modules cost?
- C.
How long did it take to fix the errors?
- D.
How good is this product?
Correct Answer
D. How good is this product? -
- 16.
Which quality metric is enhanced with simplified design, simpler data structures, and comments?
- A.
Portability.
- B.
Reliability.
- C.
Verifiability.
- D.
Maintainability.
Correct Answer
D. Maintainability. -
- 17.
Which quality metric includes measuring the likelihood of unexpected behavior?
- A.
Portability.
- B.
Reliability.
- C.
Verifiability.
- D.
Maintainability.
Correct Answer
B. Reliability. -
- 18.
Regarding designing automated data systems, in which phase do we analyze the current system in order to understand its deficiencies?
- A.
Evaluate user requirements.
- B.
Document flow analysis.
- C.
Conduct feasibility studies.
- D.
Conduct system studies.
Correct Answer
D. Conduct system studies. -
- 19.
When conducting a system study, which statement best describes something you look for?
- A.
Where and how current system fails to meet the present objective.
- B.
The amount of time it takes to manually perform the process.
- C.
The amount of redundant processes that are performed.
- D.
The total amount of processes to perform.
Correct Answer
A. Where and how current system fails to meet the present objective. -
- 20.
During document flow analysis, what can you use to show particular items in a system that personal interviews cannot achieve?
- A.
Evaluating user requirements.
- B.
Graphical representation.
- C.
System studies.
- D.
Flow charts.
Correct Answer
B. Graphical representation. -
- 21.
When designing automated data systems, at what point do you evaluate the user requirements?
- A.
Before the document flow analysis.
- B.
After the document flow analysis.
- C.
After the feasibility studies.
- D.
After the system studies.
Correct Answer
B. After the document flow analysis. -
- 22.
When evaluating user requirements separately, which statement do you consider when determining how each requirement will fit into the overall system?
- A.
How independent each module is.
- B.
The interdependency of each requirement.
- C.
The length of time it will take to code the module.
- D.
How well each requirement interacts with each other.
Correct Answer
D. How well each requirement interacts with each other. -
- 23.
When planning and designing automated data systems, what is the next step after evaluating user requirements?
- A.
Conduct system studies.
- B.
Document flow analysis.
- C.
System studies brief.
- D.
Feasibility studies.
Correct Answer
C. System studies brief. -
- 24.
What phase of the planning and designing process can expose areas of the development process that might present problems during the design and implementation phase?
- A.
Evaluating user requirements.
- B.
Document flow analysis.
- C.
System studies brief.
- D.
Feasibility studies.
Correct Answer
D. Feasibility studies. -
- 25.
A composite of subsystems, assemblies, skills, and techniques capable of performing or supporting an operational role best defines a
- A.
System.
- B.
Segment.
- C.
Computer software component.
- D.
Computer software configuration item.
Correct Answer
A. System. -
- 26.
Which component is a distinct part of a Computer Software Configuration Item (CSCI) and may be further broken down?
- A.
Computer software unit (CSU).
- B.
Hardware configuration item (HWCI).
- C.
Computer software component (CSC).
- D.
CSCI.
Correct Answer
C. Computer software component (CSC). -
- 27.
Which purpose is not a function of software configuration management?
- A.
To identify the functional and physical characteristics of selected system components.
- B.
To record/report change processing and implementation status.
- C.
To solicit bids for contracts under configuration control.
- D.
To control changes to those characteristics.
Correct Answer
C. To solicit bids for contracts under configuration control. -
- 28.
What is the purpose of configuration management during acquisition?
- A.
Assist program managers in achieving the required system performance.
- B.
Document the alternative designs that meet operational requirements.
- C.
Control and account for the functional and physical characteristics.
- D.
Audit the established baselines.
Correct Answer
A. Assist program managers in achieving the required system performance. -
- 29.
What is the purpose of configuration management during deployment and operation?
- A.
Assist program managers in achieving the required system performance.
- B.
Document the alternative designs that meet operational requirements.
- C.
Control and account for the functional and physical characteristics.
- D.
Audit the established baselines.
Correct Answer
C. Control and account for the functional and physical characteristics. -
- 30.
Which configuration management goal is based on “time is money”?
- A.
Apply configuration management to the software life cycle.
- B.
Perform functional and physical configuration audits.
- C.
Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes.
- D.
Avoid multiple copies.
Correct Answer
C. Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes. -
- 31.
What can programmers do to prevent wasting time looking for the right version of a program?
- A.
Apply configuration management to the software life cycle.
- B.
Perform functional and physical configuration audits.
- C.
Maximize productivity by minimizing mistakes.
- D.
Avoid multiple copies.
Correct Answer
D. Avoid multiple copies. -
- 32.
Which configuration management function is defined as both the selection of the documents which identify and define the configuration baseline characteristics of an item, and as the documents themselves?
- A.
Configuration status accounting.
- B.
Configuration identification.
- C.
Configuration control.
- D.
Configuration audits.
Correct Answer
B. Configuration identification. -
- 33.
In which configuration management function will you find Engineering Change Proposals (ECP)?
- A.
Configuration status accounting.
- B.
Configuration identification.
- C.
Configuration control.
- D.
Configuration audits.
Correct Answer
C. Configuration control. -
- 34.
Which baseline is the initially approved allocated configuration identification, describing functional characteristics allocated to a configuration item?
- A.
Product.
- B.
Allocated.
- C.
Document.
- D.
Functional.
Correct Answer
B. Allocated. -
- 35.
An open system architecture means the software is
- A.
Designed to port to different memory configurations.
- B.
Easily changed to accommodate other hardware platforms.
- C.
Tied closely to the operating system to appear seamless to the user.
- D.
Transferable and not dependent on other hardware platforms or operating systems.
Correct Answer
D. Transferable and not dependent on other hardware platforms or operating systems. -
- 36.
What still needs to be the Air Force’s major goal to improve flexibility over the life of the system and comply with standards?
- A.
Engineering.
- B.
Open architecture.
- C.
Decrease flexibility.
- D.
Sacrifice a working system.
Correct Answer
B. Open architecture. -
- 37.
Which statement is not considered useful for a standards-based software architecture?
- A.
Must be controlled.
- B.
Includes provisions for change.
- C.
Must be maintained throughout the life cycle.
- D.
Must provide for enhancements at predetermined phases in the life cycle.
Correct Answer
D. Must provide for enhancements at predetermined phases in the life cycle. -
- 38.
The focus of the tri-service open systems architecture working group is to
- A.
Plot out the different standards each service would adopt.
- B.
Critique the warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model.
- C.
Instruct the different services on the various open systems standards presently in place.
- D.
Adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services.
Correct Answer
D. Adopt a paradigm for the development of all warfare and warfare support systems among the services. -
- 39.
What impact does open systems architecture have on a re-engineering effort, if any?
- A.
No impact.
- B.
It will be easier, but more expensive.
- C.
It will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support.
- D.
It will be cheaper, at the expense of hardware maintenance and support.
Correct Answer
C. It will be cheaper, as will hardware maintenance and support. -
- 40.
Which is not one of the advantages of implementing an open system?
- A.
Reduce system costs.
- B.
Reduce acquisition times.
- C.
Improve information sharing.
- D.
Reduce the need for standards.
Correct Answer
D. Reduce the need for standards. -
- 41.
The warfare and warfare support systems technical reference model (WWSS TRM) is
- A.
A baseline document that will not be updated to facilitate services reaching the standard.
- B.
An archived document that will be revived as needed.
- C.
A living document that will be periodically updated.
- D.
Being approved by each of the services in turn.
Correct Answer
C. A living document that will be periodically updated. -
- 42.
Which open system standard does the Air Force use for network protocol?
- A.
Portable Operating System Interface for Computer Environment (POSIX).
- B.
Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP).
- C.
Structured Query Language (SQL).
- D.
X-Windows.
Correct Answer
B. Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP). -
- 43.
What open system standard does the Air Force specify for user interfaces?
- A.
Portable Operating System Interface for Computer Environment (POSIX).
- B.
Government Open Systems Interconnect Profile (GOSIP).
- C.
Structured Query Language (SQL).
- D.
X-Windows.
Correct Answer
D. X-Windows. -
- 44.
Regarding acquisition processes and procedures, the definition “uses parts and design practice solid enough to withstand typical civilian duty, but probably would not stand up on the battlefield” is the best example of
- A.
Commercial off the shelf.
- B.
Best commercial practice.
- C.
Commercial type.
- D.
Olive drab.
Correct Answer
B. Best commercial practice. -
- 45.
In the acquisition process, what is the first step in conducting a market investigation?
- A.
Develop requirements to ensure suppliers are informed on specific equipment of function required.
- B.
Conduct a general survey of market place to determine availability of potential sources.
- C.
Submit a request for proposal (RFP) to current suppliers requesting bids.
- D.
Collect information by contacting the market based on your specific needs.
Correct Answer
B. Conduct a general survey of market place to determine availability of potential sources. -
- 46.
In the acquisition process, when is the market analysis started?
- A.
After the preliminary design review (PDR) is completed.
- B.
After the Concept Exploration phase is completed.
- C.
During the PDR.
- D.
During the Concept Exploration phase.
Correct Answer
D. During the Concept Exploration phase. -
- 47.
What is considered to be the heart of the Visual Basic language?
- A.
User Interface.
- B.
Graphical User Interface.
- C.
Integrated Drive Electronics.
- D.
Integrated Development Environment.
Correct Answer
D. Integrated Development Environment. -
- 48.
What consists of Visual Basic menu bars, toolbars, and form windows?
- A.
User Interface.
- B.
Graphical User Interface.
- C.
Integrated Drive Electronics.
- D.
Integrated Development Environment.
Correct Answer
B. Graphical User Interface. -
- 49.
What are Visual Basic forms and controls called?
- A.
Objects.
- B.
Projects.
- C.
Project window.
- D.
Properties window.
Correct Answer
A. Objects. -
- 50.
Which Visual Basic window is used to control an object’s characteristics?
- A.
Forms.
- B.
Controls.
- C.
Properties.
- D.
Project Explorer.
Correct Answer
C. Properties. -
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Mar 04, 2013Quiz Edited by
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