3c251 Volume 3

76 Questions | Total Attempts: 318

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

3C251 Volume 3. URE's only.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What device is a combination transmitter/receiver in a single package?
    • A. 

      A transceiver

    • B. 

      A repeater

    • C. 

      A router

    • D. 

      A hub

  • 2. 
    What device operates at the Physical layer of the open system interconnection (OSI) model and is used in Ethernet networks to connect which device to a fiber or copper cable?
    • A. 

      Transceiver

    • B. 

      Gateway

    • C. 

      Router

    • D. 

      Switch

  • 3. 
    What device provides physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media?
    • A. 

      Bridge

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Gateway

    • D. 

      Network interface card (NIC)

  • 4. 
    What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
    • A. 

      Data Link and Network layer

    • B. 

      Physical layer and Network layer

    • C. 

      Physical layer and Data Link layer

    • D. 

      Physical, Data Link, and Network layer

  • 5. 
    The device that receives a digital signal and regenerates the signal along the next leg of the medium is a
    • A. 

      Bridge

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Gateway

    • D. 

      Repeater

  • 6. 
    A repeater with more than one output port is a
    • A. 

      Hub

    • B. 

      Bridge

    • C. 

      Router

    • D. 

      Gateway

  • 7. 
    What can be used to extend the size of a network?
    • A. 

      Router

    • B. 

      Gateway

    • C. 

      Active hubs

    • D. 

      Passive hubs

  • 8. 
    What is a device that subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
    • A. 

      Switch

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Gateway

    • D. 

      Repeater

  • 9. 
    What is the time a switch takes to figure out where to forward a data unit is called?
    • A. 

      Lag

    • B. 

      Hop

    • C. 

      Latency

    • D. 

      Time zone

  • 10. 
    What network device is a combination of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks?
    • A. 

      Switch

    • B. 

      Router

    • C. 

      Gateway

    • D. 

      Repeater

  • 11. 
    What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice verse?
    • A. 

      A voice/data gateway

    • B. 

      An internet gateway

    • C. 

      A LAN gateway

    • D. 

      A firewall

  • 12. 
    What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)?
    • A. 

      A voice/data gateway

    • B. 

      An internet gateway

    • C. 

      A LAN gateway

    • D. 

      A firewall

  • 13. 
    What is a router's strength?
    • A. 

      Its intelligence

    • B. 

      Its quality of service

    • C. 

      Its different interface cards

    • D. 

      Its different types of network connections

  • 14. 
    What is the oldest routing protocol?
    • A. 

      Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

    • B. 

      Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

    • C. 

      Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

    • D. 

      Enhanced Information Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

  • 15. 
    What is the routing protocol of internet backbones?
    • A. 

      Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

    • B. 

      Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

    • C. 

      Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

    • D. 

      Enhanced Information Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)

  • 16. 
    Based on a specific input address, which level local area network (LAN) switch has the lowest delay and should be considered for supporting real-time application?
    • A. 

      Hybrid switch

    • B. 

      Cut-through switch

    • C. 

      Fragment-free switch

    • D. 

      Store and forward switch

  • 17. 
    What synchronous optical network (SONET) device aggregates or splits SONET traffic at various speeds so as to provide access to SONET without demultiplexing the SONET signal stream?
    • A. 

      Add/drop multiplexer (ADM)

    • B. 

      Drop-and-repeat node (D+R)

    • C. 

      Digital cross connect (DCS)

    • D. 

      Digital line carrier (DLC)

  • 18. 
    What synchronous optical network (SONET) devices configured to split SONET traffic and copy individual channels on two or more output links?
    • A. 

      Add/drop multiplexer (ADM)

    • B. 

      Drop-and-repeat node (D+R)

    • C. 

      Terminal multiplexer (TM)

    • D. 

      Digital line carrier (DLC)

  • 19. 
    When tributary units are grouped together they form
    • A. 

      A tributary unit group (TUG)

    • B. 

      A virtual container

    • C. 

      Synchronous transport signal level N (STS-N) frames

    • D. 

      Synchronous transport modules (STM) frames

  • 20. 
    An OC-12's electrical signal is the same as a synchronous transport signal level-12 (STS-12) frame and equal to what synchronous transport modules (STM) frame?
    • A. 

      STM-2

    • B. 

      STM-4

    • C. 

      STM-6

    • D. 

      STM-8

  • 21. 
    Because of its cost, Asynchronous Transfer Module (ATM) is rarely used on small local area networks (LAN).  What technology is better suited for LANs?
    • A. 

      Gigabit Ethernet

    • B. 

      Fast Ethernet

    • C. 

      Ethernet

    • D. 

      Synchronous optical network (SONET)

  • 22. 
    What topology defines the layout of a network's devices and media?
    • A. 

      Physical

    • B. 

      Logical

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 23. 
    What topology consists of devices connected to a common, shared cable?
    • A. 

      Bus

    • B. 

      Ring

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 24. 
    What topology consist of cable segments from each computer connected to a centralized component?
    • A. 

      Bus

    • B. 

      Ring

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 25. 
    What topology has the stations connected in the form of a circle?
    • A. 

      Bus

    • B. 

      Ring

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 26. 
    What topology combines two or more different physical topologies in a single network?
    • A. 

      Bus

    • B. 

      Ring

    • C. 

      Star

    • D. 

      Hybrid

  • 27. 
    What is not an advantage of a logical bus topology?
    • A. 

      There are no collisions

    • B. 

      If the node is down, it does not bring down the entire network

    • C. 

      It's the most widely implemented of the logical topologies

    • D. 

      Additions and changes can be made easily without affecting other workstations

  • 28. 
    What is an advantage of a logical ring topology?
    • A. 

      There are no collisions

    • B. 

      If the node is down, it does not bring down the entire network

    • C. 

      It's the most widely implemented of the logical topologies

    • D. 

      Additions and changes can be made easily without affecting other workstations

  • 29. 
    What data communication protocol use characters and symbols (character code set) to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
    • A. 

      Character-oriented

    • B. 

      Bit-oriented

    • C. 

      Routing

    • D. 

      Internet

  • 30. 
    What data communication protocol uses character control or "handshaking" to link and represent information?
    • A. 

      Asynchronous protocol

    • B. 

      Binary synchronous protocol

    • C. 

      Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • D. 

      High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)

  • 31. 
    What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of bits?
    • A. 

      Character-oriented

    • B. 

      Bit-oriented

    • C. 

      Routing

    • D. 

      Internet

  • 32. 
    What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
    • A. 

      Asynchronous protocol

    • B. 

      Binary synchronous protocol

    • C. 

      Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • D. 

      High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)

  • 33. 
    What network protocol had DOD chosen as its standard to govern the flow of information?
    • A. 

      Binary synchronous protocol (BSP)

    • B. 

      Synchronous Data Link Control (SDLC)

    • C. 

      High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)

    • D. 

      Transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)

  • 34. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Network layer protocol provides information about how and when data should be delivered, including the data's source and destination address?
    • A. 

      Internet Protocol (IP)

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

  • 35. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Network layer protocol provides the service of matching a known internet protocol (IP) address for a destination device to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
    • A. 

      IP

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

  • 36. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Network layer protocol provides messaging that can help with troubleshooting?
    • A. 

      IP

    • B. 

      Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

    • C. 

      Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)

    • D. 

      Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

  • 37. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Application layer protocol is used to send and receive files via TCP/IP?
    • A. 

      File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

    • D. 

      HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

  • 38. 
    Which protocol is a simpler way to transfer files between computers but is simpler and more trivial then File Transfer Protocol (FTP)?
    • A. 

      File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

    • D. 

      HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

  • 39. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation protocol used to log onto remote host?
    • A. 

      Telnet

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

    • D. 

      HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

  • 40. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Application layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique IP address to every device on a network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

    • B. 

      Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP)

    • C. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

    • D. 

      HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

  • 41. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Application layer protocol is a simple protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

    • B. 

      Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

    • C. 

      Network Time Protocol (NTP)

    • D. 

      Packet Internet Grouper (PING)

  • 42. 
    What transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that TCP/IP is installed and communicating with the network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

    • B. 

      Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

    • C. 

      Network Time Protocol (NTP)

    • D. 

      Packet Internet Grouper (PING)

  • 43. 
    What is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic?
    • A. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

    • B. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • C. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

    • D. 

      Virtual Private Network (VPN)

  • 44. 
    The interconnection of several networks of computer resources in a city into a single larger network is a
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

    • C. 

      Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

  • 45. 
    What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
    • A. 

      Local area network (LAN)

    • B. 

      Wide area network (WAN)

    • C. 

      Virtual Private Network (VPN)

    • D. 

      Metropolitan area network (MAN)

  • 46. 
    What network model enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way?
    • A. 

      Intranet

    • B. 

      Extranet

    • C. 

      Peer-to-Peer

    • D. 

      Client-Server

  • 47. 
    What network model is a centralized model for data storage, security, running applications, and network administration?
    • A. 

      Intranet

    • B. 

      Extranet

    • C. 

      Peer-to-Peer

    • D. 

      Client-Server

  • 48. 
    What is the physical address of any device on the network?
    • A. 

      Internet protocol version 4 (IPv4) address

    • B. 

      Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address

    • C. 

      Static internet protocol (IP) address

    • D. 

      Media Access Control (MAC) address

  • 49. 
    What address is a 32-bit number?
    • A. 

      Internet protocol version 4 (IPv4)

    • B. 

      Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6)

    • C. 

      Static internet protocol (IP)

    • D. 

      Media Access Control (MAC)

  • 50. 
    What address uses a 128-bit addressing scheme?
    • A. 

      Internet protocol version 4 (IPv4)

    • B. 

      Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6)

    • C. 

      Static internet protocol (IP)

    • D. 

      Media Access Control (MAC)

  • 51. 
    How many subnet bits are required to support 85 subnets on a Class B network?
    • A. 

      Three

    • B. 

      Five

    • C. 

      Seven

    • D. 

      Nine

  • 52. 
    What is not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
    • A. 

      Start with the shortest mask

    • B. 

      Re-address the entire network

    • C. 

      Aim to use contiguous subnets where possible

    • D. 

      Choose one or more available subnets and subnet further

  • 53. 
    What cable impairments can be detected by a time-domain reflectometer (TDR)?
    • A. 

      Open, shorts, and bad grounds

    • B. 

      Pinholes, shorts, and bad grounds

    • C. 

      Shorts, kinks, and low cable pressure

    • D. 

      Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors

  • 54. 
    What type of cable property changes can be detected by a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) to identify problems?
    • A. 

      Conductance

    • B. 

      Inductance

    • C. 

      Capacitance

    • D. 

      Impedance

  • 55. 
    How is the optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR) used to measure signal loss?
    • A. 

      It should not be used

    • B. 

      Pulse width is increased

    • C. 

      Back scattered light is decreased

    • D. 

      Light pulse power is set for constant output

  • 56. 
    When using the cable scanner wire-map feature, what action is required to prevent false readings?
    • A. 

      Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested

    • B. 

      Connect an injector cable at the end of the cable being tested

    • C. 

      Set the range for maximum reading

    • D. 

      Use the frequency mode

  • 57. 
    How does a cable scanner identify crossover and straight-through cables?
    • A. 

      It locates splices, bridge taps, and split pairs

    • B. 

      It provides wiring maps at both ends of the cable

    • C. 

      It monitors and provides access to multiple conductors

    • D. 

      It measures electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance

  • 58. 
    What test equipment provides a capability for digital network diagnostics and developing communications software?
    • A. 

      A digital distortion analyzer

    • B. 

      A protocol analyzer

    • C. 

      A communications test set

    • D. 

      A data analysis center

  • 59. 
    What component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates a trigger based on the trigger definition?
    • A. 

      Counter

    • B. 

      Buffer

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU)

    • D. 

      Filter

  • 60. 
    What component of a protocol analyzer stores all frames based on the user configuration inputs?
    • A. 

      Counter

    • B. 

      Buffer

    • C. 

      Central processing unit (CPU)

    • D. 

      Filter

  • 61. 
    What protocol analyzer test window reports errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad frame check sequence (FCS), short frames, and jabbers?
    • A. 

      Media Control Access (MAC) node statistics

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 62. 
    What protocol analyzer test window provides information concerning the bandwidth utilization and the number of connections that are related to specific nodes?
    • A. 

      Media Control Access (MAC) node statistics

    • B. 

      Connection statistics

    • C. 

      Protocol statistics

    • D. 

      Node discovery

  • 63. 
    What is the first local area network (LAN) impairment error that occurs when bits are missing in one or more octets in a frame?
    • A. 

      Frame check sequence

    • B. 

      Alignment

    • C. 

      Collision

    • D. 

      Jabber

  • 64. 
    What local area network (LAN) impairment error that occurs when network nodes in the same domain transmit at the same time?
    • A. 

      Frame check sequence

    • B. 

      Alignment

    • C. 

      Collision

    • D. 

      Jabber

  • 65. 
    What local area network (LAN) impairment error occurs when an internet protocol (IP) data unit larger than 65,535 bytes is received? Languageses>en GoogleDicCE que, qué, cual de, lindo, pariente, bueno, qué, que
    • A. 

      Runt

    • B. 

      Giant

    • C. 

      Undersized Packet

    • D. 

      Oversized packet

  • 66. 
    What local area network (LAN) impairment error occurs when an internet protocol (IP) data unit is smaller than 28 bytes is received?
    • A. 

      Runt

    • B. 

      Giant

    • C. 

      Undersized packet

    • D. 

      Oversized packet

  • 67. 
    What local area network (LAN) error occurs when frames that are larger than the maximum size the network protocol requires are received?
    • A. 

      Runt

    • B. 

      Giant

    • C. 

      Undersized packet

    • D. 

      Oversized packet

  • 68. 
    What is a good indication of how well any two nodes can access the transmission media and transmit and receive data along the link or path in a reliable manner?
    • A. 

      Runts

    • B. 

      Fragmentation

    • C. 

      Round-trip delay

    • D. 

      Frame check sequence

  • 69. 
    Jabbers manifest themselves on a local area network (LAN) as
    • A. 

      Delay

    • B. 

      Collisions

    • C. 

      Oversized packets

    • D. 

      Undersized packets

  • 70. 
    When using the Trace Route utility, round-trip delay is displayed in
    • A. 

      Seconds

    • B. 

      Milliseconds

    • C. 

      Microseconds

    • D. 

      Nanoseconds

  • 71. 
    Which network management function provides the capability to initialize, operate and shut down managed devices?
    • A. 

      Fault management

    • B. 

      Accounting management

    • C. 

      Performance management

    • D. 

      Configuration management

  • 72. 
    Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
    • A. 

      Fault management

    • B. 

      Accounting management

    • C. 

      Performance management

    • D. 

      Configuration management

  • 73. 
    Which network management element is a type of node connected to the network such as a switch, router, computer, or printer?
    • A. 

      Network management information base

    • B. 

      Network management protocol

    • C. 

      Management agent

    • D. 

      Manged device

  • 74. 
    What protocol allows products from different vendors to be managed by a single network management application?
    • A. 

      File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

    • B. 

      Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

    • C. 

      Transmission control protocol (TCP)

    • D. 

      Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)

  • 75. 
    What is the purpose of the community name that is used with network management systems (NMS)?
    • A. 

      Authenticate Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) requests

    • B. 

      Authenticate transmission control protocol (TCP)

    • C. 

      Authenticate Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

    • D. 

      Authenticate File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

  • 76. 
    When the network management software is first installed, what type of alarm threshold value is loaded into the management information base?
    • A. 

      No values are loaded

    • B. 

      Default values are loaded

    • C. 

      A value of 0 is loaded for all devices

    • D. 

      A value of 100 is loaded for all devices