3c251 Volume 2

89 Questions | Total Attempts: 351

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

3C251 Volume 2. Only URE's.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What device is used to input and display data?
    • A. 

      A terminal

    • B. 

      A printer

    • C. 

      A client

    • D. 

      A host

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      A printer

    • B. 

      A server

    • C. 

      A client

    • D. 

      A host

  • 3. 
    • A. 

      Channel Service Unit (CSU)

    • B. 

      Digital Service Unit (DSU)

    • C. 

      CSU/DSU

    • D. 

      Modem

  • 4. 
    • A. 

      The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD)

    • B. 

      The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)

    • C. 

      Secure DTD 2000 Systems (SDS)

    • D. 

      The TSEC/KIV-19

  • 5. 
    • A. 

      The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD)

    • B. 

      The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)

    • C. 

      The TSEC/KIV-7HS

    • D. 

      The TSEC/KIV-19

  • 6. 
    • A. 

      12-ohm

    • B. 

      14-ohm

    • C. 

      22-ohm

    • D. 

      24-ohm

  • 7. 
    • A. 

      Digital

    • B. 

      DS-X

    • C. 

      Digital and audio

    • D. 

      DS-X and audio

  • 8. 
    • A. 

      Digital

    • B. 

      DS-X

    • C. 

      Digital and audio

    • D. 

      DS-X and audio

  • 9. 
    As related to the Red/Black concept, which type of separator is the isolating of batteried circuits from each other?
    • A. 

      Link

    • B. 

      Circuit

    • C. 

      Electrical

    • D. 

      Physical

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      7

    • C. 

      10

    • D. 

      12

  • 11. 
    Who does the system control facility (SCF) contact for assistance when on-call service cannot be established within the means available to the SCF?
    • A. 

      User

    • B. 

      Circuit control office

    • C. 

      Other systems control facilities

    • D. 

      Regional network operations and security center

  • 12. 
    What does power distribution within the system control facilities?
    • A. 

      Main power panel

    • B. 

      Power supply

    • C. 

      Transformer

    • D. 

      Subpanel

  • 13. 
    Which uninterrupted power supply (UPS) component takes the direct current (DC) voltage input and changes it to alternating current (AC) voltage?
    • A. 

      Inverter

    • B. 

      Static switch

    • C. 

      Battery banks

    • D. 

      Rectifier/charger

  • 14. 
    Which auxiliary generator component connects the generator to the load by changing the facility's power feed from the commercial source to the generator?
    • A. 

      Switchgear

    • B. 

      Starting system

    • C. 

      Distribution panel

    • D. 

      Engine control panel

  • 15. 
    The difference between a promina trunk and link is that a trunk is a
    • A. 

      Multiple physical connection between two nodes and a link is a single logical connection

    • B. 

      Single logical connection between two nodes and a link is a multiple physical link

    • C. 

      Logical connection that can consist of one or more links and a link is a single physical connection between nodes

    • D. 

      Physical connection between two nodes and a link is a logical connection that can consist of one or more trunks

  • 16. 
    What important feature of dynamic bandwidth allocation is the Promina?
    • A. 

      If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is automatically rerouted over other trunks

    • B. 

      If a path to a connected node is down, traffic can be manually rerouted over the other trunks

    • C. 

      Bandwidth is assigned to a pool and is allocated to a 9.6 Kbps circuit

    • D. 

      Bandwidth is assigned to a 64 Kbps channel and is allocated to a 9.6 Kbps circuit

  • 17. 
    What is an important feature of dynamic routing in the Promina?
    • A. 

      If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is automatically rerouted over other trunks

    • B. 

      If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is manually rerouted over other trunks

    • C. 

      Bandwidth for a 9.6 Kbps circuit is assigned to a pool and is allocated as needed

    • D. 

      Bandwidth for a 9.6 Kbps circuit is assigned to a 64 Kbps channel

  • 18. 
    How does the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) ensure there are some standards of operation throughout the Promina network?
    • A. 

      Dynamic bandwidth allocation

    • B. 

      Centralized management

    • C. 

      Transparency to users

    • D. 

      Dynamic routing

  • 19. 
    What feature of the Promina allows users to be unconcerned with the exact circuit path?
    • A. 

      Dynamic bandwidth allocation

    • B. 

      Centralized management

    • C. 

      Transparency to users

    • D. 

      Dynamic routing

  • 20. 
    Which module is common equipment for the Promina?
    • A. 

      Trunk

    • B. 

      Processor

    • C. 

      Data

    • D. 

      Voice

  • 21. 
    How many Promina Processor Modules can be installed in a Promina 800 node?
    • A. 

      One only

    • B. 

      Two only

    • C. 

      One to four

    • D. 

      Two to six

  • 22. 
    Which device provides clocking functions to the Promina 800 nodes?
    • A. 

      Switching Exchange

    • B. 

      Processor

    • C. 

      Memory

    • D. 

      T-Bus

  • 23. 
    Which module is the central point of data storage for Promina nodes?
    • A. 

      Server

    • B. 

      Memory

    • C. 

      Processor

    • D. 

      Switching

  • 24. 
    A Promina node can have how many links?
    • A. 

      16

    • B. 

      32

    • C. 

      64

    • D. 

      128

  • 25. 
    Which Promina module only supports one T-1 trunk, DS-1 rate (1.544 Mbps) transmission facilities?
    • A. 

      CellXpress

    • B. 

      TRK-2A

    • C. 

      TRK-3

    • D. 

      T-3

  • 26. 
    Which trunk module is designed specifically for the high-speed shelf (HSS-2) on the Promina 800?
    • A. 

      CellXpress

    • B. 

      TRK-2

    • C. 

      TRK-3

    • D. 

      T-3

  • 27. 
    Which trunk module interconnects Promina nodes across an asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) network?
    • A. 

      CellXpress

    • B. 

      TRK-2

    • C. 

      TRK-3

    • D. 

      T-3

  • 28. 
    Which protocol provides the path that carries node management data between the nodes?
    • A. 

      Simple Network Management

    • B. 

      Signal Channel List

    • C. 

      Transmission Control

    • D. 

      Internet Control

  • 29. 
    Which trunk module does not provide proprietary non-subrated interface signals that can only be interpreted by a Promina 800 Series node?
    • A. 

      CellXpress

    • B. 

      TRK-2

    • C. 

      TRK-3

    • D. 

      T-3

  • 30. 
    Which Promina module accepts two DS-1 signals in the D3/D4 frame format, separates them into 48 separate 64-kbps channels, and operates at the 2.048 Mbps rate?
    • A. 

      Primary rate card

    • B. 

      Two-megabit channelized port

    • C. 

      Quad Analog Voice Port

    • D. 

      Voice Server

  • 31. 
    What type of Promina module supports two independent synchronous circuits at data rates from 9.6 Kbps to 2.048 Mbps?
    • A. 

      Quad synchronous data

    • B. 

      Universal synchronous data

    • C. 

      High-speed synchronous data

    • D. 

      Quad asynchronous/synchronous data

  • 32. 
    What type of Promina module supports subrate data multiplexing?
    • A. 

      INT-422

    • B. 

      TRK-3

    • C. 

      HSD-2

    • D. 

      X.50

  • 33. 
    At status level 2 of the Promina Operator Interface, the operator has access to query all nodes
    • A. 

      And modify the local node within the local domain

    • B. 

      And modify all nodes within the local domain

    • C. 

      And preform network system administration

    • D. 

      Within the local domain

  • 34. 
    Which Promina menu contains commands for managing operators and the operator console?
    • A. 

      Prolog Procedure

    • B. 

      Functional Area

    • C. 

      Action

    • D. 

      Object

  • 35. 
    Which Promina menu contains commands for configuring the network?
    • A. 

      Prolog Procedure

    • B. 

      Functional Area

    • C. 

      Action

    • D. 

      Object

  • 36. 
    Which Promina menu is used only with an operator status of level 3 or higher?
    • A. 

      Prolog Procedure

    • B. 

      Functional Area

    • C. 

      Action

    • D. 

      Object

  • 37. 
    What can you do to prevent Promina alarms from being overwritten and discarded?
    • A. 

      Reset all alarms

    • B. 

      Clear all alarms

    • C. 

      Cancel all alarms that have been resolved

    • D. 

      Save all alarms that are not associated with a clearing event

  • 38. 
    Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays the voice compression available, software version installed, hardware type, and link status?
    • A. 

      Node

    • B. 

      Links

    • C. 

      Alarms

    • D. 

      Network

  • 39. 
    Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays a matrix depicting the network topology of the nodes connected within the local domain?
    • A. 

      Node

    • B. 

      Links

    • C. 

      Alarms

    • D. 

      Network

  • 40. 
    After you have adjusted the oscilloscope intensity control to increase the readability of the display, what other control may you need to adjust?
    • A. 

      Gain

    • B. 

      Focus

    • C. 

      Frequency

    • D. 

      Position

  • 41. 
    What oscilloscope control do you need to adjust when a "halo" appears on the display?
    • A. 

      Intensity

    • B. 

      Marker

    • C. 

      Sweep

    • D. 

      Focus

  • 42. 
    When the spot is elliptical on the oscilloscope screen, what control should you adjust?
    • A. 

      Gain

    • B. 

      Position

    • C. 

      Frequency

    • D. 

      Focus

  • 43. 
    What oscilloscope height-to-width ratio provides optimum display proportions for general-purpose waveform examinations?
    • A. 

      1:1

    • B. 

      2:3

    • C. 

      3:4

    • D. 

      4:6

  • 44. 
    To center the trace on the cathode-ray tube (CRT) of an oscilloscope, what controls do you use?
    • A. 

      Frequency and sweep calibrator

    • B. 

      Expand sweep and sweep calibrator

    • C. 

      Horizontal and vertical gain

    • D. 

      Horizontal and vertical position

  • 45. 
    What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
    • A. 

      Masking

    • B. 

      Distortion

    • C. 

      Deflection

    • D. 

      Overloading

  • 46. 
    What are two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set?
    • A. 

      Emitter and detector

    • B. 

      Emitter and receiver

    • C. 

      Transmitter and generator

    • D. 

      Transmitter and receiver

  • 47. 
    Which section of the bit error rate test (BERT) set generates a pseudo-random test pattern?
    • A. 

      Emitter

    • B. 

      Receiver

    • C. 

      Detector

    • D. 

      Transmitter

  • 48. 
    Which section of the bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
    • A. 

      Transmitter

    • B. 

      Emitter

    • C. 

      Detector

    • D. 

      Receiver

  • 49. 
    What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T-1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
    • A. 

      Extended superframe

    • B. 

      Alternate mark inversion

    • C. 

      Return-to-zero

    • D. 

      Superframe

  • 50. 
    What determines the size of a test pattern segment?
    • A. 

      The total number of bits in the test pattern

    • B. 

      The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern

    • C. 

      The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern

    • D. 

      The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern

  • 51. 
    What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternative mark inversion coding rules?
    • A. 

      Cyclic redundancy check

    • B. 

      Bipolar violation

    • C. 

      Bit slip

    • D. 

      Frame

  • 52. 
    The purpose of a breakout box is to
    • A. 

      Provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable

    • B. 

      Monitor and provide access to multiple conductors

    • C. 

      Measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance

    • D. 

      Locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs

  • 53. 
    The purpose of the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box is to
    • A. 

      Measure individual interface signals

    • B. 

      Interrupt individual interface conductors

    • C. 

      Cross-patch individual interface conductors

    • D. 

      Change the voltage of individual interface signals

  • 54. 
    At a receiving station, what can be the result of excessive timing jitter?
    • A. 

      Incorrect signal tracking

    • B. 

      Varying signal level

    • C. 

      Excessive noise

    • D. 

      Phase jitter

  • 55. 
    During the total peak-to-peak jitter test, the picture displayed on the oscilloscope screen is the
    • A. 

      Wave shape of a signal during any one sweep

    • B. 

      Wave shape of a signal during several sweeps

    • C. 

      Composite of the signals during any one sweep

    • D. 

      Composite of the signals during several sweeps

  • 56. 
    Before starting the timing jitter test, you must determine whether the circuit you are testing is
    • A. 

      Bias or unbias

    • B. 

      Digital or analog

    • C. 

      Loaded or unloaded

    • D. 

      Balanced or unbalanced

  • 57. 
    When you conduct the timing jitter test with an oscilloscope connected to a circuit carrying a signal, what triggers the sweep?
    • A. 

      The first positive-going transition

    • B. 

      The second positive-going transition

    • C. 

      The first negative-going transition

    • D. 

      The second negative-going transition

  • 58. 
    Besides amount of errors, what what is another critical consideration in measuring bit error rate (BER)?
    • A. 

      Types of errors

    • B. 

      Density of errors

    • C. 

      Amplitude of errors

    • D. 

      Distribution of errors

  • 59. 
    How many minutes should you conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a Z4, 50 Kbps circuit?
    • A. 

      5

    • B. 

      10

    • C. 

      15

    • D. 

      30

  • 60. 
    Which test determines whether the digital radio and multiplexer are operating in an optimum condition?
    • A. 

      Average bit error rate (BER) versus receive signal level (RSL)

    • B. 

      Amplitude versus frequency distortion

    • C. 

      Impulse noise

    • D. 

      Timing jitter

  • 61. 
    Which statement best describes the average bit error rate (BER) for a digital radio?
    • A. 

      It is related to the median received radio-frequency (RF) signal receive signal level (RSL)

    • B. 

      It can be determined by using an attenuator at the transmitter output terminals

    • C. 

      It can be determined by using an amplifier at the receiver input terminals

    • D. 

      It is related to a constant received RF RSL

  • 62. 
    When determining  the relationship of bit error rate (BER) versus receive signal level (RSL) for a digital radio, the attenuator may cause
    • A. 

      An abnormal block error rates

    • B. 

      An abnormal bit error rates

    • C. 

      A fluctuating radio frequency (RF) signal

    • D. 

      An unauthorized outage

  • 63. 
    A stress pattern is a
    • A. 

      Digital signal used primarily to find equipment malfunctions

    • B. 

      Random sequence of one and zeros used to fault isolate digital equipment

    • C. 

      Predetermined bipolar signal used to stress the limitations of digital devices

    • D. 

      Predetermined sequence of logical ones and zeros used for testing and fault isolation

  • 64. 
    Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits causes the pulse generator of the transmission equipment to consume the maximum amount of power?
    • A. 

      1-in-7

    • B. 

      2-in-8

    • C. 

      All ones

    • D. 

      All zeros

  • 65. 
    Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits test the ability of the transmission equipment to send bit sequences containing both minimum ones density and a maximum density of 15 consecutive zeros?
    • A. 

      1-in-7

    • B. 

      2-in-8

    • C. 

      3-in-24

    • D. 

      Quasi-random signal source (QRSS)

  • 66. 
    Stress patterns are used mainly to identify malfunctioning T-1 transmission equipment and
    • A. 

      Improper line voltages

    • B. 

      Inadequately simulated data

    • C. 

      Equipment speed limitations

    • D. 

      Misoptioned network equipment

  • 67. 
    For circuits that use binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding, which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits is useful for stressing the minimum ones density?
    • A. 

      1-in-7

    • B. 

      2-in-8

    • C. 

      3-in-24

    • D. 

      Quasi-random signal source (QRSS)

  • 68. 
    In most cases, the signal level for commercial data circuits is between
    • A. 

      0 and -10 dBm0

    • B. 

      -10 and -13 dBm0

    • C. 

      -18 and -22 dBm0

    • D. 

      -20 and -24 dBm0

  • 69. 
    Which digital test is categorized as either controlled or uncontrolled?
    • A. 

      All ones

    • B. 

      Frame loss

    • C. 

      Excess zeros

    • D. 

      Timing slips

  • 70. 
    During a 45-minute bit error rate test (BERT), the number of frame errors for a T-1 superframe circuit should be less than
    • A. 

      7

    • B. 

      15

    • C. 

      21

    • D. 

      30

  • 71. 
    When T-1 equipment receives no input signal, what is transmitted to keep the repeaters operating and to maintain timing?
    • A. 

      Nothing

    • B. 

      An all ones pattern

    • C. 

      An all zeros pattern

    • D. 

      A pseudo-random pattern

  • 72. 
    Of the four main causes of T-1 impairments, crosstalk is an example of
    • A. 

      Data specific

    • B. 

      Faulty equipment

    • C. 

      Improper connections

    • D. 

      Environmental factors

  • 73. 
    Which T-1 impairment is sometimes the hardest to isolate?
    • A. 

      Data specific

    • B. 

      A faulty equipment

    • C. 

      An improper connections

    • D. 

      An environmental factor

  • 74. 
    On T-1 circuits, dribbling errors are often caused by
    • A. 

      Data specific

    • B. 

      Faulty equipment

    • C. 

      Improper connections

    • D. 

      Environmental factors

  • 75. 
    What can result from an impedance mismatch?
    • A. 

      Impulse noise

    • B. 

      High circuit noise

    • C. 

      Envelope delay distortion

    • D. 

      Excessive loss of signal power

  • 76. 
    Which alarms are used to monitor power and building conditions in the systems control element?
    • A. 

      Radio

    • B. 

      Station

    • C. 

      Multiplex

    • D. 

      Group pilot

  • 77. 
    Which condition activates a radio alarm at your station?
    • A. 

      High-receiver input

    • B. 

      Low-transmitter output

    • C. 

      Failure of the carrier supply

    • D. 

      Failure of the pilot generator

  • 78. 
    The main function of fault alarm and status reporting is to assist you
    • A. 

      In quality control testing

    • B. 

      Is isolating a failure to a specific location

    • C. 

      By providing system phase lock and synchronization

    • D. 

      By providing the system with parity error detection

  • 79. 
    A function of the transmission control (TRAMCON) system is
    • A. 

      Controlling transmission media at unmanned sites only

    • B. 

      Controlling major transmission media at manned sites only

    • C. 

      Monitoring the health of terrestrial digital transmission media and facilities

    • D. 

      Monitoring the health of satellite digital transmission media and facilities

  • 80. 
    Where is the master terminal of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system located?
    • A. 

      FCO

    • B. 

      CCO

    • C. 

      DOCC

    • D. 

      ACOC

  • 81. 
    In any given system configuration employing two or more transmission control terminals, how many terminals have full monitoring and control capability?
    • A. 

      One

    • B. 

      Two

    • C. 

      Three

    • D. 

      Four

  • 82. 
    The capabilities of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system are a key factor in
    • A. 

      Eliminating hazardous conditions

    • B. 

      Requiring only slave terminals to operate

    • C. 

      Being able to establish more unmanned sites

    • D. 

      Removing maintenance support at Defense Information Infrastructure (DII)sites

  • 83. 
    Which do you not rely on as a fault isolation aid?
    • A. 

      Operational adjustments

    • B. 

      Customer complaints

    • C. 

      Intercommunications

    • D. 

      Test facilities

  • 84. 
    Diagrams that are useful in circuit-rerouting and fault-isolation because they show transmission facilities, routing, composition, and capacity describe what type of fault isolation aid?
    • A. 

      Cabling records

    • B. 

      Written procedures

    • C. 

      System and network plans

    • D. 

      Ready reference charts and placards

  • 85. 
    Records that are maintained by telephone systems personnel and are useful for fault isolation describe what type of isolation aid?
    • A. 

      Written procedures

    • B. 

      System and network plans

    • C. 

      Plant cabling cross reference files

    • D. 

      Ready reference charts and placards

  • 86. 
    What is the first thing you do when you find that a single channel of a T-1 is unusable or deteriorated?
    • A. 

      Coordinate the repair or alignment

    • B. 

      Make the appropriate replacement of equipment

    • C. 

      Make the appropriate test to ensure proper operation of the circuit

    • D. 

      Coordinate to transfer service to a spare channel or preempt a lower priority user

  • 87. 
    Where does the transmit output signal of the modem to the distant end station first appear on the patch bay?
    • A. 

      The send equipment jack of the audio patch bay

    • B. 

      The equipment module of the digital patch bay

    • C. 

      The receive line jack of the audio patch bay

    • D. 

      The line module of the digital patch bay

  • 88. 
    Where does the output signal of the modem to the router first appear on the patch bay?
    • A. 

      The send equipment jack of the audio patch bay

    • B. 

      The equipment module of the digital patch bay

    • C. 

      The receive line jack of the audio patch bay

    • D. 

      The line module of the digital patch bay

  • 89. 
    Which career field installs and maintains fixed and transportable low-frequency and high-frequency transmitters, receivers, and transceivers?
    • A. 

      Communications cable and antenna systems

    • B. 

      Satellite, wideband and telemetry systems

    • C. 

      Ground radio communications

    • D. 

      Telephone systems