3c251 Volume 2
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3C251 Volume 2. Only URE's.
- 1.What device is used to input and display data?
- A.
A terminal
- B.
A printer
- C.
A client
- D.
A host
- 2.
- A.
A printer
- B.
A server
- C.
A client
- D.
A host
- 3.
- A.
Channel Service Unit (CSU)
- B.
Digital Service Unit (DSU)
- C.
CSU/DSU
- D.
Modem
- 4.
- A.
The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD)
- B.
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
- C.
Secure DTD 2000 Systems (SDS)
- D.
The TSEC/KIV-19
- 5.
- A.
The AN/CYZ-10 Data Transfer Device (DTD)
- B.
The Secure Terminal Equipment (STE)
- C.
The TSEC/KIV-7HS
- D.
The TSEC/KIV-19
- 6.
- A.
12-ohm
- B.
14-ohm
- C.
22-ohm
- D.
24-ohm
- 7.
- A.
Digital
- B.
DS-X
- C.
Digital and audio
- D.
DS-X and audio
- 8.
- A.
Digital
- B.
DS-X
- C.
Digital and audio
- D.
DS-X and audio
- 9.As related to the Red/Black concept, which type of separator is the isolating of batteried circuits from each other?
- A.
Link
- B.
Circuit
- C.
Electrical
- D.
Physical
- 10.
- A.
3
- B.
7
- C.
10
- D.
12
- 11.Who does the system control facility (SCF) contact for assistance when on-call service cannot be established within the means available to the SCF?
- A.
User
- B.
Circuit control office
- C.
Other systems control facilities
- D.
Regional network operations and security center
- 12.What does power distribution within the system control facilities?
- A.
Main power panel
- B.
Power supply
- C.
Transformer
- D.
Subpanel
- 13.Which uninterrupted power supply (UPS) component takes the direct current (DC) voltage input and changes it to alternating current (AC) voltage?
- A.
Inverter
- B.
Static switch
- C.
Battery banks
- D.
Rectifier/charger
- 14.Which auxiliary generator component connects the generator to the load by changing the facility's power feed from the commercial source to the generator?
- A.
Switchgear
- B.
Starting system
- C.
Distribution panel
- D.
Engine control panel
- 15.The difference between a promina trunk and link is that a trunk is a
- A.
Multiple physical connection between two nodes and a link is a single logical connection
- B.
Single logical connection between two nodes and a link is a multiple physical link
- C.
Logical connection that can consist of one or more links and a link is a single physical connection between nodes
- D.
Physical connection between two nodes and a link is a logical connection that can consist of one or more trunks
- 16.What important feature of dynamic bandwidth allocation is the Promina?
- A.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is automatically rerouted over other trunks
- B.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic can be manually rerouted over the other trunks
- C.
Bandwidth is assigned to a pool and is allocated to a 9.6 Kbps circuit
- D.
Bandwidth is assigned to a 64 Kbps channel and is allocated to a 9.6 Kbps circuit
- 17.What is an important feature of dynamic routing in the Promina?
- A.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is automatically rerouted over other trunks
- B.
If a path to a connected node is down, traffic is manually rerouted over other trunks
- C.
Bandwidth for a 9.6 Kbps circuit is assigned to a pool and is allocated as needed
- D.
Bandwidth for a 9.6 Kbps circuit is assigned to a 64 Kbps channel
- 18.How does the Defense Information Systems Agency (DISA) ensure there are some standards of operation throughout the Promina network?
- A.
Dynamic bandwidth allocation
- B.
Centralized management
- C.
Transparency to users
- D.
Dynamic routing
- 19.What feature of the Promina allows users to be unconcerned with the exact circuit path?
- A.
Dynamic bandwidth allocation
- B.
Centralized management
- C.
Transparency to users
- D.
Dynamic routing
- 20.Which module is common equipment for the Promina?
- A.
Trunk
- B.
Processor
- C.
Data
- D.
Voice
- 21.How many Promina Processor Modules can be installed in a Promina 800 node?
- A.
One only
- B.
Two only
- C.
One to four
- D.
Two to six
- 22.Which device provides clocking functions to the Promina 800 nodes?
- A.
Switching Exchange
- B.
Processor
- C.
Memory
- D.
T-Bus
- 23.Which module is the central point of data storage for Promina nodes?
- A.
Server
- B.
Memory
- C.
Processor
- D.
Switching
- 24.A Promina node can have how many links?
- A.
16
- B.
32
- C.
64
- D.
128
- 25.Which Promina module only supports one T-1 trunk, DS-1 rate (1.544 Mbps) transmission facilities?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2A
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
- 26.Which trunk module is designed specifically for the high-speed shelf (HSS-2) on the Promina 800?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
- 27.Which trunk module interconnects Promina nodes across an asynchronous transfer mode (ATM) network?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
- 28.Which protocol provides the path that carries node management data between the nodes?
- A.
Simple Network Management
- B.
Signal Channel List
- C.
Transmission Control
- D.
Internet Control
- 29.Which trunk module does not provide proprietary non-subrated interface signals that can only be interpreted by a Promina 800 Series node?
- A.
CellXpress
- B.
TRK-2
- C.
TRK-3
- D.
T-3
- 30.Which Promina module accepts two DS-1 signals in the D3/D4 frame format, separates them into 48 separate 64-kbps channels, and operates at the 2.048 Mbps rate?
- A.
Primary rate card
- B.
Two-megabit channelized port
- C.
Quad Analog Voice Port
- D.
Voice Server
- 31.What type of Promina module supports two independent synchronous circuits at data rates from 9.6 Kbps to 2.048 Mbps?
- A.
Quad synchronous data
- B.
Universal synchronous data
- C.
High-speed synchronous data
- D.
Quad asynchronous/synchronous data
- 32.What type of Promina module supports subrate data multiplexing?
- A.
INT-422
- B.
TRK-3
- C.
HSD-2
- D.
X.50
- 33.At status level 2 of the Promina Operator Interface, the operator has access to query all nodes
- A.
And modify the local node within the local domain
- B.
And modify all nodes within the local domain
- C.
And preform network system administration
- D.
Within the local domain
- 34.Which Promina menu contains commands for managing operators and the operator console?
- A.
Prolog Procedure
- B.
Functional Area
- C.
Action
- D.
Object
- 35.Which Promina menu contains commands for configuring the network?
- A.
Prolog Procedure
- B.
Functional Area
- C.
Action
- D.
Object
- 36.Which Promina menu is used only with an operator status of level 3 or higher?
- A.
Prolog Procedure
- B.
Functional Area
- C.
Action
- D.
Object
- 37.What can you do to prevent Promina alarms from being overwritten and discarded?
- A.
Reset all alarms
- B.
Clear all alarms
- C.
Cancel all alarms that have been resolved
- D.
Save all alarms that are not associated with a clearing event
- 38.Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays the voice compression available, software version installed, hardware type, and link status?
- A.
Node
- B.
Links
- C.
Alarms
- D.
Network
- 39.Which Promina Operator Interface query command displays a matrix depicting the network topology of the nodes connected within the local domain?
- A.
Node
- B.
Links
- C.
Alarms
- D.
Network
- 40.After you have adjusted the oscilloscope intensity control to increase the readability of the display, what other control may you need to adjust?
- A.
Gain
- B.
Focus
- C.
Frequency
- D.
Position
- 41.What oscilloscope control do you need to adjust when a "halo" appears on the display?
- A.
Intensity
- B.
Marker
- C.
Sweep
- D.
Focus
- 42.When the spot is elliptical on the oscilloscope screen, what control should you adjust?
- A.
Gain
- B.
Position
- C.
Frequency
- D.
Focus
- 43.What oscilloscope height-to-width ratio provides optimum display proportions for general-purpose waveform examinations?
- A.
1:1
- B.
2:3
- C.
3:4
- D.
4:6
- 44.To center the trace on the cathode-ray tube (CRT) of an oscilloscope, what controls do you use?
- A.
Frequency and sweep calibrator
- B.
Expand sweep and sweep calibrator
- C.
Horizontal and vertical gain
- D.
Horizontal and vertical position
- 45.What happens to the observed signal if you advance the oscilloscope synchronizing control too far?
- A.
Masking
- B.
Distortion
- C.
Deflection
- D.
Overloading
- 46.What are two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set?
- A.
Emitter and detector
- B.
Emitter and receiver
- C.
Transmitter and generator
- D.
Transmitter and receiver
- 47.Which section of the bit error rate test (BERT) set generates a pseudo-random test pattern?
- A.
Emitter
- B.
Receiver
- C.
Detector
- D.
Transmitter
- 48.Which section of the bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
- A.
Transmitter
- B.
Emitter
- C.
Detector
- D.
Receiver
- 49.What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T-1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
- A.
Extended superframe
- B.
Alternate mark inversion
- C.
Return-to-zero
- D.
Superframe
- 50.What determines the size of a test pattern segment?
- A.
The total number of bits in the test pattern
- B.
The total number of bytes that represent the bits test pattern
- C.
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern
- D.
The number of bits in the number of bytes that are equally divided into the test pattern
- 51.What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternative mark inversion coding rules?
- A.
Cyclic redundancy check
- B.
Bipolar violation
- C.
Bit slip
- D.
Frame
- 52.The purpose of a breakout box is to
- A.
Provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable
- B.
Monitor and provide access to multiple conductors
- C.
Measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance
- D.
Locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs
- 53.The purpose of the jumper cables and side switch pins on a breakout box is to
- A.
Measure individual interface signals
- B.
Interrupt individual interface conductors
- C.
Cross-patch individual interface conductors
- D.
Change the voltage of individual interface signals
- 54.At a receiving station, what can be the result of excessive timing jitter?
- A.
Incorrect signal tracking
- B.
Varying signal level
- C.
Excessive noise
- D.
Phase jitter
- 55.During the total peak-to-peak jitter test, the picture displayed on the oscilloscope screen is the
- A.
Wave shape of a signal during any one sweep
- B.
Wave shape of a signal during several sweeps
- C.
Composite of the signals during any one sweep
- D.
Composite of the signals during several sweeps
- 56.Before starting the timing jitter test, you must determine whether the circuit you are testing is
- A.
Bias or unbias
- B.
Digital or analog
- C.
Loaded or unloaded
- D.
Balanced or unbalanced
- 57.When you conduct the timing jitter test with an oscilloscope connected to a circuit carrying a signal, what triggers the sweep?
- A.
The first positive-going transition
- B.
The second positive-going transition
- C.
The first negative-going transition
- D.
The second negative-going transition
- 58.Besides amount of errors, what what is another critical consideration in measuring bit error rate (BER)?
- A.
Types of errors
- B.
Density of errors
- C.
Amplitude of errors
- D.
Distribution of errors
- 59.How many minutes should you conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a Z4, 50 Kbps circuit?
- A.
5
- B.
10
- C.
15
- D.
30
- 60.Which test determines whether the digital radio and multiplexer are operating in an optimum condition?
- A.
Average bit error rate (BER) versus receive signal level (RSL)
- B.
Amplitude versus frequency distortion
- C.
Impulse noise
- D.
Timing jitter
- 61.Which statement best describes the average bit error rate (BER) for a digital radio?
- A.
It is related to the median received radio-frequency (RF) signal receive signal level (RSL)
- B.
It can be determined by using an attenuator at the transmitter output terminals
- C.
It can be determined by using an amplifier at the receiver input terminals
- D.
It is related to a constant received RF RSL
- 62.When determining the relationship of bit error rate (BER) versus receive signal level (RSL) for a digital radio, the attenuator may cause
- A.
An abnormal block error rates
- B.
An abnormal bit error rates
- C.
A fluctuating radio frequency (RF) signal
- D.
An unauthorized outage
- 63.A stress pattern is a
- A.
Digital signal used primarily to find equipment malfunctions
- B.
Random sequence of one and zeros used to fault isolate digital equipment
- C.
Predetermined bipolar signal used to stress the limitations of digital devices
- D.
Predetermined sequence of logical ones and zeros used for testing and fault isolation
- 64.Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits causes the pulse generator of the transmission equipment to consume the maximum amount of power?
- A.
1-in-7
- B.
2-in-8
- C.
All ones
- D.
All zeros
- 65.Which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits test the ability of the transmission equipment to send bit sequences containing both minimum ones density and a maximum density of 15 consecutive zeros?
- A.
1-in-7
- B.
2-in-8
- C.
3-in-24
- D.
Quasi-random signal source (QRSS)
- 66.Stress patterns are used mainly to identify malfunctioning T-1 transmission equipment and
- A.
Improper line voltages
- B.
Inadequately simulated data
- C.
Equipment speed limitations
- D.
Misoptioned network equipment
- 67.For circuits that use binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding, which stress pattern test for T-1 circuits is useful for stressing the minimum ones density?
- A.
1-in-7
- B.
2-in-8
- C.
3-in-24
- D.
Quasi-random signal source (QRSS)
- 68.In most cases, the signal level for commercial data circuits is between
- A.
0 and -10 dBm0
- B.
-10 and -13 dBm0
- C.
-18 and -22 dBm0
- D.
-20 and -24 dBm0
- 69.Which digital test is categorized as either controlled or uncontrolled?
- A.
All ones
- B.
Frame loss
- C.
Excess zeros
- D.
Timing slips
- 70.During a 45-minute bit error rate test (BERT), the number of frame errors for a T-1 superframe circuit should be less than
- A.
7
- B.
15
- C.
21
- D.
30
- 71.When T-1 equipment receives no input signal, what is transmitted to keep the repeaters operating and to maintain timing?
- A.
Nothing
- B.
An all ones pattern
- C.
An all zeros pattern
- D.
A pseudo-random pattern
- 72.Of the four main causes of T-1 impairments, crosstalk is an example of
- A.
Data specific
- B.
Faulty equipment
- C.
Improper connections
- D.
Environmental factors
- 73.Which T-1 impairment is sometimes the hardest to isolate?
- A.
Data specific
- B.
A faulty equipment
- C.
An improper connections
- D.
An environmental factor
- 74.On T-1 circuits, dribbling errors are often caused by
- A.
Data specific
- B.
Faulty equipment
- C.
Improper connections
- D.
Environmental factors
- 75.What can result from an impedance mismatch?
- A.
Impulse noise
- B.
High circuit noise
- C.
Envelope delay distortion
- D.
Excessive loss of signal power
- 76.Which alarms are used to monitor power and building conditions in the systems control element?
- A.
Radio
- B.
Station
- C.
Multiplex
- D.
Group pilot
- 77.Which condition activates a radio alarm at your station?
- A.
High-receiver input
- B.
Low-transmitter output
- C.
Failure of the carrier supply
- D.
Failure of the pilot generator
- 78.The main function of fault alarm and status reporting is to assist you
- A.
In quality control testing
- B.
Is isolating a failure to a specific location
- C.
By providing system phase lock and synchronization
- D.
By providing the system with parity error detection
- 79.A function of the transmission control (TRAMCON) system is
- A.
Controlling transmission media at unmanned sites only
- B.
Controlling major transmission media at manned sites only
- C.
Monitoring the health of terrestrial digital transmission media and facilities
- D.
Monitoring the health of satellite digital transmission media and facilities
- 80.Where is the master terminal of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system located?
- A.
FCO
- B.
CCO
- C.
DOCC
- D.
ACOC
- 81.In any given system configuration employing two or more transmission control terminals, how many terminals have full monitoring and control capability?
- A.
One
- B.
Two
- C.
Three
- D.
Four
- 82.The capabilities of a transmission control (TRAMCON) system are a key factor in
- A.
Eliminating hazardous conditions
- B.
Requiring only slave terminals to operate
- C.
Being able to establish more unmanned sites
- D.
Removing maintenance support at Defense Information Infrastructure (DII)sites
- 83.Which do you not rely on as a fault isolation aid?
- A.
Operational adjustments
- B.
Customer complaints
- C.
Intercommunications
- D.
Test facilities
- 84.Diagrams that are useful in circuit-rerouting and fault-isolation because they show transmission facilities, routing, composition, and capacity describe what type of fault isolation aid?
- A.
Cabling records
- B.
Written procedures
- C.
System and network plans
- D.
Ready reference charts and placards
- 85.Records that are maintained by telephone systems personnel and are useful for fault isolation describe what type of isolation aid?
- A.
Written procedures
- B.
System and network plans
- C.
Plant cabling cross reference files
- D.
Ready reference charts and placards
- 86.What is the first thing you do when you find that a single channel of a T-1 is unusable or deteriorated?
- A.
Coordinate the repair or alignment
- B.
Make the appropriate replacement of equipment
- C.
Make the appropriate test to ensure proper operation of the circuit
- D.
Coordinate to transfer service to a spare channel or preempt a lower priority user
- 87.Where does the transmit output signal of the modem to the distant end station first appear on the patch bay?
- A.
The send equipment jack of the audio patch bay
- B.
The equipment module of the digital patch bay
- C.
The receive line jack of the audio patch bay
- D.
The line module of the digital patch bay
- 88.Where does the output signal of the modem to the router first appear on the patch bay?
- A.
The send equipment jack of the audio patch bay
- B.
The equipment module of the digital patch bay
- C.
The receive line jack of the audio patch bay
- D.
The line module of the digital patch bay
- 89.Which career field installs and maintains fixed and transportable low-frequency and high-frequency transmitters, receivers, and transceivers?
- A.
Communications cable and antenna systems
- B.
Satellite, wideband and telemetry systems
- C.
Ground radio communications
- D.
Telephone systems
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