3c251 Volume 1

124 Questions | Total Attempts: 479

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Volume Quizzes & Trivia

3C251 Volume 1. URE's only.


Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    What is an example of analog to digital and digital to analog techniques?
    • A. 

      Amplitude modulation (AM) and frequency modulation (FM)

    • B. 

      Pulse code modulation (PCM) and frequency shift key modulation (FSK)

    • C. 

      Phase modulation (PM) and quadrature phase shift key (QPSK)

    • D. 

      Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation

  • 2. 
    • A. 

      Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)

    • B. 

      Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)

    • C. 

      Pulse-width modulation (PWM)

    • D. 

      Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

  • 3. 
    Amplitude modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is
    • A. 

      Twice that of the modulating signal

    • B. 

      Half that of the modulation signal

    • C. 

      Twice that of the carrier signal

    • D. 

      Half that of the carrier signal

  • 4. 
    We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the signal-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as
    • A. 

      2 decibels (dB) of improvement

    • B. 

      4 dB of improvement

    • C. 

      6 dB of improvement

    • D. 

      8 dB of improvement

  • 5. 
    A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of
    • A. 

      A phase modulation (PM)

    • B. 

      A pulse modulation

    • C. 

      A frequency modulation (FM)

    • D. 

      An amplitude modulation (AM)

  • 6. 
    If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated.  We identify these sideband as
    • A. 

      Transmitted intelligence

    • B. 

      Intensity of speech

    • C. 

      Composite waves

    • D. 

      Splatter

  • 7. 
    To prevent frequency modulation (FM) radio stations from interfering with each other, the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) has set limits that allow each station to cause its oscillator frequency to deviate no more than
    • A. 

      20 kHz

    • B. 

      50 kHz

    • C. 

      75 kHz

    • D. 

      88 kHz

  • 8. 
    The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the
    • A. 

      Modulation index

    • B. 

      Rate of phase shift

    • C. 

      Frequency of the modulating signal

    • D. 

      Amplitude of the modulating signal

  • 9. 
    Quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) requires
    • A. 

      Half the bandwidth as does bi-phase shift keying (BPSK)

    • B. 

      The same bandwidth as does BPSK

    • C. 

      Twice the bandwidth as does BPSK

    • D. 

      Four times the bandwidth as does BPSK

  • 10. 
    • A. 

      Carrier presence is required to detect changes

    • B. 

      It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal

    • C. 

      It requires a more complex receiver than a basic PSK signal

    • D. 

      The demodulator needs to detect changes in absolute phase values

  • 11. 
    All of these are considered analog modulation techniques except
    • A. 

      Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)

    • B. 

      Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)

    • C. 

      Pulse-position modulation (PPM)

    • D. 

      Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

  • 12. 
    The form of pulse modulation that requires the pulse width to be varied to convoy intelligence is
    • A. 

      Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)

    • B. 

      Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)

    • C. 

      Pulse-position modulation (PPM)

    • D. 

      Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

  • 13. 
    Quantized analog modulation is actually
    • A. 

      Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)

    • B. 

      Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)

    • C. 

      Less tolerant of noise than frequency modulation (FM)

    • D. 

      Analog-to-digital conversion

  • 14. 
    • A. 

      Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)

    • B. 

      Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)

    • C. 

      Pulse-position modulation (PPM)

    • D. 

      Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

  • 15. 
    Pulse-code modulation (PCM) code words are assigned to each sample and correspond to its
    • A. 

      Phase

    • B. 

      Time slot

    • C. 

      Amplitude

    • D. 

      Frequency

  • 16. 
    • A. 

      3

    • B. 

      4

    • C. 

      5

    • D. 

      8

  • 17. 
    The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is
    • A. 

      Encoding

    • B. 

      Compounding

    • C. 

      Uniform quantizing

    • D. 

      Nonuniform quantizing

  • 18. 
    Noise  in delta modulation (DM) can be reduced by varying the approximation signal step size in accordance with the input signal's
    • A. 

      Speed

    • B. 

      Phase

    • C. 

      Amplitude

    • D. 

      Frequency

  • 19. 
    • A. 

      Delta modulation (DM)

    • B. 

      Frequency modulation (FM)

    • C. 

      Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

    • D. 

      Continuous variable slope delta modulation (CVSD)

  • 20. 
    Continuous variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation circuitry includes a pulse-amplitude modulator and a
    • A. 

      Low-pass filter

    • B. 

      High-pass filter

    • C. 

      Bandpass filter

    • D. 

      Band-reject filter

  • 21. 
    • A. 

      Delta modulation (DM)

    • B. 

      Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

    • C. 

      Conditioned diphase interface modulation (CDI)

    • D. 

      Adaptive differential pulse-code modulation (ADPCM)

  • 22. 
    Up to what percentage of speech is redundant?
    • A. 

      35

    • B. 

      45

    • C. 

      65

    • D. 

      75

  • 23. 
    The accepted standard for the voice frequency band is
    • A. 

      300 to 1,600 hertz (Hz)

    • B. 

      300 to 2,600 Hz

    • C. 

      300 to 3,400 Hz

    • D. 

      300 to 3,800 Hz

  • 24. 
    Noise may be introduced into speech signals by thermal agitation and
    • A. 

      Power variations

    • B. 

      Amplitude variations

    • C. 

      Black body radiation

    • D. 

      Molecular breakdown of electronic components

  • 25. 
    Bits are taken from an input channel data stream at a rate at twice the highest frequency appearing in the intelligence signal we call
    • A. 

      The sampling rate

    • B. 

      Pulse-bit stuffing

    • C. 

      Pulse-code modulation (PCM)

    • D. 

      Elastic storage implementation

  • 26. 
    • A. 

      4 kHz

    • B. 

      8 kHz

    • C. 

      12 kHz

    • D. 

      16 kHz

  • 27. 
    Having marker pulses at the beginning of each frame of a time-division multiplexing (TDM) signal is one method of
    • A. 

      Encryption

    • B. 

      Synchronization

    • C. 

      Sampling the signal

    • D. 

      Decreasing bandwidth required

  • 28. 
    What modulation format is usually used with time slot interchange (TSI)?
    • A. 

      Phase modulation (PM)

    • B. 

      Pulse code modulation (PCM)

    • C. 

      Pulse-duration modulation (PDM)

    • D. 

      Pulse-amplitude modulation (PAM)

  • 29. 
    • A. 

      By physical channel

    • B. 

      By a switch matrix

    • C. 

      By circuit identifier

    • D. 

      By time

  • 30. 
    • A. 

      By virtual channel

    • B. 

      By a switch matrix

    • C. 

      By circuit identifier

    • D. 

      By time

  • 31. 
    • A. 

      Asynchronous time division multiplexing (TDM)

    • B. 

      Frequency data multiplexing (FDM)

    • C. 

      Synchronous TDM

    • D. 

      Isochronous TDM

  • 32. 
    In pulse-code modulation (PCM) systems, synchronizing bits may be inserted
    • A. 

      Only at the beginning of a frame

    • B. 

      Only at the end of a frame

    • C. 

      Throughout a frame

    • D. 

      Between frames

  • 33. 
    • A. 

      Asynchronous

    • B. 

      Isochronous

    • C. 

      Synchronous

    • D. 

      Pulse stuffing

  • 34. 
    In a synchronous system, performance of all operations is controlled by a
    • A. 

      Step pulse

    • B. 

      Master clock

    • C. 

      Start-stop pulse

    • D. 

      Synchronization pulse

  • 35. 
    A synchronizing technique used to overcome propagation delay in time-division multiplexing(TDM) systems is
    • A. 

      Isochronous

    • B. 

      Master clock

    • C. 

      Pulse stuffing

    • D. 

      Synchronization pulse

  • 36. 
    • A. 

      Processor module

    • B. 

      Aggregate module

    • C. 

      Port carrier module

    • D. 

      Interface module

  • 37. 
    Which module transfers data between the local AN/FCC-100(V) 9 internal high-speed data bus and the transmission path to the remote AN/FCC-100(V) 9 unit?
    • A. 

      Multiplexer/demultiplexer (mux/demux) module

    • B. 

      Aggregate module

    • C. 

      Port carrier module

    • D. 

      Interface module

  • 38. 
    • A. 

      Processor module

    • B. 

      Aggregate module

    • C. 

      Port carrier module

    • D. 

      Interface module

  • 39. 
    • A. 

      Processor module

    • B. 

      Aggregate module

    • C. 

      Port carrier module

    • D. 

      Interface module

  • 40. 
    Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmissions by using different
    • A. 

      Wavelengths or lambdas

    • B. 

      Wavelengths or gammas

    • C. 

      Frequencies or lambdas

    • D. 

      Frequencies or gammas

  • 41. 
    • A. 

      WDM

    • B. 

      Coarse wave division multiplexing (CWDM)

    • C. 

      Dense wave division multiplexing (DWDM)

    • D. 

      Long wave division multiplexing (LDWDM)

  • 42. 
    • A. 

      Baud

    • B. 

      Baudot

    • C. 

      Sense interface

    • D. 

      Bits per second

  • 43. 
    Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by
    • A. 

      Impedance mismatch

    • B. 

      System timing faults

    • C. 

      Improper equipment settings

    • D. 

      Changes in atmospheric conditions

  • 44. 
    Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are
    • A. 

      Synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous

    • B. 

      Synchronous, asynchronous, and bi-synchronous

    • C. 

      Nonsychronous, bi-synchronous, and synchronous

    • D. 

      Asynchronous, bi-synchronous, and nonsynchronous

  • 45. 
    In synchronous data operation
    • A. 

      Timing pulses are transmitted within the signal stream

    • B. 

      Start and stop pulses control data transmission

    • C. 

      System timing is not of critical importance

    • D. 

      All data bits are the same length in time

  • 46. 
    A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
    • A. 

      Synchronous operation

    • B. 

      Asynchronous operation

    • C. 

      Synchronous and/or isochronous operation

    • D. 

      Asynchronous and/or synchronous operation

  • 47. 
    In communications, what is essential for continuous error-free performance?
    • A. 

      Strong signal

    • B. 

      Good timing

    • C. 

      Standardized signal format

    • D. 

      Error correction software

  • 48. 
    While timing ensures the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization ensures that the
    • A. 

      Receive equipment timing is set properly

    • B. 

      Transmit equipment timing is set properly

    • C. 

      Receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream properly

    • D. 

      Transmit equipment can find its place in the bit stream properly

  • 49. 
    • A. 

      1

    • B. 

      2

    • C. 

      3

    • D. 

      4

  • 50. 
    In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition, and there is a transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent?
    • A. 

      Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level

    • B. 

      Non-return-to-zero mark

    • C. 

      Non-return-to-zero space

    • D. 

      Return-to-zero level

  • 51. 
    In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
    • A. 

      Non-return-to-zero (NRZ) level

    • B. 

      Non-return-to-zero mark

    • C. 

      Non-return-to-zero space

    • D. 

      Return-to-zero space

  • 52. 
    • A. 

      The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels

    • B. 

      A logic one is transmitted as a positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative

    • C. 

      The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition

    • D. 

      Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zero

  • 53. 
    Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to
    • A. 

      Provide error-free signaling

    • B. 

      Operate at higher data rates

    • C. 

      Eliminate bipolar violations

    • D. 

      Maintain ones density standards

  • 54. 
    • A. 

      The information is transmitted in three different voltage levels

    • B. 

      A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative

    • C. 

      The level always returns to zero for 50 percent of the bit cycle after every transition

    • D. 

      Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long string of zeros

  • 55. 
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 56. 
    • A. 

      8

    • B. 

      12

    • C. 

      24

    • D. 

      48

  • 57. 
    The signaling equipment has three types of communications signals that act as functions to
    • A. 

      Process switch addressing

    • B. 

      Control digital translation

    • C. 

      Control and process calls

    • D. 

      Provide a clear signal

  • 58. 
    • A. 

      Pulse dialing

    • B. 

      Tone dialing

    • C. 

      Digital dialing

    • D. 

      Address dialing

  • 59. 
    • A. 

      Dial tone

    • B. 

      Busy signal

    • C. 

      Off-hook alert

    • D. 

      Call waiting

  • 60. 
    • A. 

      Dial tone

    • B. 

      Busy signal

    • C. 

      Off-hook alert

    • D. 

      Call waiting

  • 61. 
    • A. 

      Dial tone

    • B. 

      Fast busy signal

    • C. 

      Off-hook alert

    • D. 

      Call waiting

  • 62. 
    • A. 

      Record warning

    • B. 

      Fast busy signal

    • C. 

      Loop-start

    • D. 

      E and M

  • 63. 
    When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
    • A. 

      When dial tone is present

    • B. 

      On-hook condition

    • C. 

      Off-hook condition

    • D. 

      During the ringback signal

  • 64. 
    In common associated signaling (CAS) signaling, the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 in are used to convey signaling information.  This is known as
    • A. 

      Bit robbing

    • B. 

      Bit stuffing

    • C. 

      Frame correction

    • D. 

      Frame enhancement

  • 65. 
    How is supervisory signaling information transferred in common channel signaling (CCS)?
    • A. 

      Bit robbing

    • B. 

      Bit stuffing

    • C. 

      Frame correction

    • D. 

      Separate network channel

  • 66. 
    • A. 

      Associated mode

    • B. 

      Nonassociated mode

    • C. 

      Quasi-associated mode

    • D. 

      Multi-associated mode

  • 67. 
    • A. 

      To induce an equal amount of current flows in the other conductor

    • B. 

      To cancel out induced signals that can interfere with the communication signals

    • C. 

      To prevent electrostatic fields from emitting outside its shield

    • D. 

      To add strength to the cable

  • 68. 
    In telephone terminology, the resistance of a line is stated in terms of ohms per
    • A. 

      Metric foot

    • B. 

      Metric mile

    • C. 

      Loop mile

    • D. 

      Cubic foot

  • 69. 
    The flow of current through insulation to other wires or ground is called
    • A. 

      Shunt conductance

    • B. 

      Shunt capacitance

    • C. 

      Loading

    • D. 

      Reflections

  • 70. 
    What do loading coils equalize to reduce the amount of line loss in a voice-frequency-cable transmission line?
    • A. 

      Resistance and inductive reactance

    • B. 

      Capacitive and inductive reactance

    • C. 

      Resistance and shunt conductance

    • D. 

      Capacitive and shunt conductance

  • 71. 
    A signal reflection on a wire line may be caused by
    • A. 

      A mismatch of impedance when equipment is inserted into the line

    • B. 

      The increase in inductance of a line by wire coils

    • C. 

      A line leakage during wet weather

    • D. 

      The distribution resistance of the wire

  • 72. 
    • A. 

      Frequency inversion takes place at a repeater

    • B. 

      Some frequencies are transmitted at a slower rate than others

    • C. 

      Additive amplitude noise is introduced

    • D. 

      Coupling occurs between parallel wire pairs

  • 73. 
    • A. 

      The use of light-emitting diodes

    • B. 

      The broad bandwidth of the cable

    • C. 

      The low signal to noise ratio of the cable

    • D. 

      The multiplexing technique used in fiber optics

  • 74. 
    • A. 

      20 MHz

    • B. 

      35 MHz

    • C. 

      50 MHz

    • D. 

      140 MHz

  • 75. 
    • A. 

      Fiber optic cable emits a little less radiation than twisted pair wire cable

    • B. 

      Fiber optic cable is virtually untappable without detection

    • C. 

      Fiber optic cable has a very low error rate

    • D. 

      Fiber optic cable is immune to crosstalk

  • 76. 
    • A. 

      .01 to .05 decibels (dB)

    • B. 

      0.5 to 1.5 dB

    • C. 

      1.0 to 2.5 dB

    • D. 

      3.0 to 4.0 dB

  • 77. 
    • A. 

      An electron pair is generated for every photon of light absorbed

    • B. 

      This type has a lower power requirement than a Positive-intrinsic-negative (PIN) diode

    • C. 

      It is the simplest, most inexpensive type of photo diode

    • D. 

      It generates a current gain many times that of a PIN diode

  • 78. 
    • A. 

      Core, cladding, and shield

    • B. 

      Core, cladding, and jacket

    • C. 

      Core, conductor, and shield

    • D. 

      Core, conductor, and jacket

  • 79. 
    • A. 

      10 MHz to 100 MHz/km

    • B. 

      100 MHz to 200 MHz/km

    • C. 

      200 MHz to 1000 MHz/km

    • D. 

      Up to 50 GHz/km

  • 80. 
    • A. 

      Impurities in the fiber

    • B. 

      The angle at which a ray from a light source enters the fiber

    • C. 

      Differences in the refractive indexes of the core and cladding

    • D. 

      Imperfections in the region where the core interfaces the cladding

  • 81. 
    Combined distribution frames encompass the functions of a main distribution frame and
    • A. 

      An intermediate distribution frame

    • B. 

      A combined distribution frame

    • C. 

      A black distribution frame

    • D. 

      A red distribution frame

  • 82. 
    Patch panels containing clear text classified data circuits are connected with local equipment using
    • A. 

      An intermediate distribution frame

    • B. 

      A combined distribution frame

    • C. 

      A black distribution frame

    • D. 

      A red distribution frame

  • 83. 
    • A. 

      Combined

    • B. 

      Black

    • C. 

      Main

    • D. 

      Red

  • 84. 
    Within distribution frames, permanent wiring is connected to the
    • A. 

      Right side of the vertical terminal boards and the bottom of horizontal terminal boards

    • B. 

      Left side of the vertical terminal boards and the bottom of horizontal terminal boards

    • C. 

      Right side of the vertical terminal boards and the top of horizontal terminal boards

    • D. 

      Left side of the vertical terminal boards and the top of horizontal terminal boards

  • 85. 
    Within distribution frames, temporary wiring is connected to the
    • A. 

      Right side of the vertical terminal boards and the bottom of horizontal terminal boards

    • B. 

      Left side of the vertical terminal boards and the bottom of horizontal terminal boards

    • C. 

      Right side of the vertical terminal boards and the top of horizontal terminal boards

    • D. 

      Left side of the vertical terminal boards and the top of horizontal terminal boards

  • 86. 
    • A. 

      1 inch

    • B. 

      1 1/4 to 1 1/2 inch

    • C. 

      2 inches

    • D. 

      3 inches

  • 87. 
    When creating a wire wrapped terminal connection, what is done with the wire lead after it is stripped of insulation?
    • A. 

      It is thinned and inserted into a wire wrap bit

    • B. 

      The shiner portion is inserted into the slot of the wire wrap bit

    • C. 

      The shiner portion is inserted into the axial hole of the wire wrap bit

    • D. 

      It is placed around the terminal end and wound with the wire wrap tool

  • 88. 
    For a wire-wrapped termination to be considered an efficient connection, you must wrap the wire lead at least
    • A. 

      Once around the terminal connector

    • B. 

      Three times around the terminal connector

    • C. 

      Five times around the terminal connector

    • D. 

      Seven times around the terminal connector

  • 89. 
    • A. 

      The termination process is easy

    • B. 

      The connector blocks are easy to get to

    • C. 

      They require less wiring than other types

    • D. 

      The design allows for more equipment in a small area

  • 90. 
    • A. 

      714B quick-connect tool only

    • B. 

      Soldering iron and wire strippers

    • C. 

      714B quick-connect tool and wire strippers

    • D. 

      714B quick-connect tool and soldering iron

  • 91. 
    • A. 

      Place the conductor wire in the hook of the connector block terminal

    • B. 

      Place the seating end of the quick-connect tool over the terminal

    • C. 

      Press the tool toward the connector block until the wire is seated

    • D. 

      Remove the scrap end of the wire

  • 92. 
    • A. 

      White/blue

    • B. 

      White/green

    • C. 

      White/brown

    • D. 

      White/orange

  • 93. 
    • A. 

      Slate

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      Brown

    • D. 

      Orange

  • 94. 
    • A. 

      Straight-through

    • B. 

      Crossover

    • C. 

      Rollover

    • D. 

      Coaxial

  • 95. 
    Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Associations (EIA/TIA) 568A connector is what color?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Green

    • C. 

      White/blue

    • D. 

      White/green

  • 96. 
    Pin 1 on a typical Electronics Industry Association/Telecommunications Industry Associations (EIA/TIA) 568B connector is what color?
    • A. 

      Blue

    • B. 

      Orange

    • C. 

      White/blue

    • D. 

      White/orange

  • 97. 
    When building a modular cable, you need to arrange the wires in a flat row
    • A. 

      In any order so they are the same on each end

    • B. 

      In any order so that Pin 1 is the same as Pin 8 on the other end

    • C. 

      In the order that matches the pinout pattern for the cable standard

    • D. 

      In the order that matches the pinout pattern for the cable purpose

  • 98. 
    Screw-on connectors are generally unreliable because they
    • A. 

      Are hard to install properly

    • B. 

      Can be pulled off with relative ease

    • C. 

      Can create poor network connections

    • D. 

      Can easily break the center conductor during install

  • 99. 
    While using a cable stripper how much of the jacket on the cable is removed to access the inner core?
    • A. 

      1/4 inch

    • B. 

      1/2 inch

    • C. 

      5/8 inch

    • D. 

      3/4 inch

  • 100. 
    • A. 

      The core

    • B. 

      The mode

    • C. 

      The optics

    • D. 

      The diameter

  • 101. 
    The majority of fiber-optic connectors use what method to connect onto fiber because of the ease of installation without loss of quality?
    • A. 

      Epoxy connectors

    • B. 

      Snap-on connectors

    • C. 

      Crimp-on connectors

    • D. 

      Screw-on connectors

  • 102. 
    When using a polishing cloth, remove a little bit of the protruding fiber at a time, until the fiber is perfectly
    • A. 

      Round

    • B. 

      Elliptical

    • C. 

      Flat and level

    • D. 

      Flat with a 45-degree angle

  • 103. 
    The considerations for selecting electrical connectors are
    • A. 

      Electrical, mechanical, and cost

    • B. 

      Electrical, environmental, and cost

    • C. 

      Mechanical, environmental, and cost

    • D. 

      Electrical, mechanical, and environmental

  • 104. 
    Two characteristics of rectangular connectors are that they are
    • A. 

      Used in cable applications and use bayonet lock coupling

    • B. 

      Used in rack panel applications and use latchlock coupling

    • C. 

      Easier to produce and less expensive than circular connectors

    • D. 

      Used in rack panel applications and have no coupling mechanism

  • 105. 
    • A. 

      As temperature increases, resistance of conductors increases and resistance of insulators increases

    • B. 

      As temperature increases, resistance of conductors increases and resistance of insulators decreases

    • C. 

      As temperature increases, resistance of conductors decreases and resistance of insulators increases

    • D. 

      As temperature increases, resistance of conductors decreases and resistance of insulators decreases

  • 106. 
    The three basic components of electrical connectors are the
    • A. 

      Shell, insulator, and contacts

    • B. 

      Shell, contacts, and hermetic seal

    • C. 

      Shell, insulator, and hermetic seal

    • D. 

      Insulator, contacts, and hermetic seal

  • 107. 
    Insulators used in connectors are rated for their
    • A. 

      Physical resistance and power dissipating capability

    • B. 

      Electrical inductance and current controlling ability

    • C. 

      Electrical resistance and ability to withstand breakdown

    • D. 

      Electrical conductance and ability to withstand breakdown

  • 108. 
    Guide pin plates are used in connectors to
    • A. 

      Provide polarization of circular connectors

    • B. 

      Provide float-mount action for circular connectors

    • C. 

      Combine with polarization pins to polarize rectangular connectors

    • D. 

      Provide polarization and float-mount action for rectangular connectors

  • 109. 
    A purpose of moisture proofing connectors is to provide a moisture seal between
    • A. 

      The shell and connector

    • B. 

      Wires and the connector

    • C. 

      Equipment and the insulator

    • D. 

      The connector and equipment

  • 110. 
    The characteristics of electrical connector contacts are contact
    • A. 

      Termination, engagement, and resistance

    • B. 

      Retention, engagement, and termination

    • C. 

      Retention, engagement, and resistance

    • D. 

      Retention, termination, and resistance

  • 111. 
    Which contact retention method for electrical connectors is used for full hermetic seal applications?
    • A. 

      Removable C-ring

    • B. 

      One-piece insulation

    • C. 

      Two-piece insulation

    • D. 

      Nonremovable contacts

  • 112. 
    The correct procedure for creating a crimped contact termination for an electrical connector with a hand-held crimping tool is to
    • A. 

      Insert a contact into the crimping tool locator, then insert the wire lead into the contact crimp pot and activate the crimping tool

    • B. 

      Insert a prestripped, pretinned wire lead into the contact solder pot, then insert both into the crimping tool locator and activate the crimping tool

    • C. 

      Insert a prestripped wire lead into the contact crimp pot, then insert the wire contact into the crimping tool locator and activate the crimping tool

    • D. 

      Insert a prestripped, pretinned wire lead into the crimp pot, then insert the wire and contact into the crimping tool locator and activate the crimping tool

  • 113. 
    A disadvantage of a crimped connection is it
    • A. 

      Has low contact resistance

    • B. 

      Has poor resistance stability

    • C. 

      Makes a poorer connection than soldering

    • D. 

      Requires extra space around the contact area to create

  • 114. 
    The purpose of a multimeter is to
    • A. 

      Provide wiring maps at both ends of the cable

    • B. 

      Monitor and provide access to multiple conductors

    • C. 

      Measure electrical voltage, current, frequency, and resistance

    • D. 

      Locate sheath faults, damaged conductors, splices, bridge taps, and split pairs

  • 115. 
    When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
    • A. 

      Voltage terminal

    • B. 

      Common terminal

    • C. 

      Voltage and current terminal

    • D. 

      Common and current terminal

  • 116. 
    When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
    • A. 

      Range

    • B. 

      Frequency

    • C. 

      Display hold

    • D. 

      Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX)

  • 117. 
    When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuates and a more accurate is desired?
    • A. 

      Minimum/maximum (MIN/MAX)

    • B. 

      Display hold

    • C. 

      Frequency

    • D. 

      Range

  • 118. 
    When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
    • A. 

      Properly seat the test lead into the current input jack

    • B. 

      Disconnect the power from the circuit being tested

    • C. 

      Place the meter in the frequency mode

    • D. 

      Set the range for maximum reading

  • 119. 
    When using a multimeter to take a voltage reading greater than 100 volts, what safety precaution should you take?
    • A. 

      Take the meter reading with out touching any part of the meter

    • B. 

      Properly seat the test lead into the current input terminal jack

    • C. 

      Connect the multimeter leads in series with the load

    • D. 

      Set the range for maximum reading

  • 120. 
    • A. 

      Open

    • B. 

      Shunt

    • C. 

      Short

    • D. 

      Loop resistance

  • 121. 
    When grounding a communications cable, use the poorer of two grounds if it
    • A. 

      Has a larger cable gauge

    • B. 

      Provides the shortest path to ground

    • C. 

      Gives you a lower overall system noise and signal distortion

    • D. 

      Has shielding that protects it from wind, rain, and other elements

  • 122. 
    • A. 

      Time-domain reflectometer

    • B. 

      Protocol analyzer

    • C. 

      Cable scanner

    • D. 

      Multimeter

  • 123. 
    Before checking for shorts on a base cable pair,
    • A. 

      Loop the other end of the cable pair

    • B. 

      Remove all patch cords from the cable pairs

    • C. 

      Disconnect the other end from the communications device

    • D. 

      Ensure that the protection modules are removed from the wire frame

  • 124. 
    • A. 

      Transient voltage

    • B. 

      Foreign battery

    • C. 

      Short

    • D. 

      Open