2e153 Ground Radio Communications Journeyman Practice Test

84 Questions | Total Attempts: 271

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2e153 Ground Radio Communications Journeyman Practice Test

This is a practice test for the 2E153 Ground Radio Communications Journeyman Career Development Course. Questions are pulled from various portions of each of the volumes.


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Questions and Answers
  • 1. 
    Volume 1, Section 001.For Successful communications to take place, the carrier output must be:
    • A. 

      Relatively rich in harmonics.

    • B. 

      Transmitted in a specific direction.

    • C. 

      Relatively stable in frequency and modulation.

    • D. 

      Attenuated to prevent overdriving the frequency input.

  • 2. 
    Volume 1, Section 002.With overmodulation, the bandwidth of an Amplitude Modulated Signal will be:
    • A. 

      Decreased considerably due to the severe distortion produced.

    • B. 

      Increased considerably due to the severe distortion produced.

    • C. 

      Decreased considerably due to superheterodyning in the Local Oscillator.

    • D. 

      Increased considerably due to superheterodyning the the Local Oscillator.

  • 3. 
    Volume 1, Section 003.With an operating frequency of 150 MHz and an IF of 10.7 MHz, which option is a possible image frequency?
    • A. 

      21.4 MHz.

    • B. 

      140.7 MHz.

    • C. 

      160.14 MHz

    • D. 

      171.4 MHz.

  • 4. 
    Volume 1, Section 004.What statement concerning diode detectors is true?
    • A. 

      They are relatively complex devices.

    • B. 

      They can only handle relatively small signals.

    • C. 

      They give high fidelity detection for signals of sufficient amplitude.

    • D. 

      They are relatively simple devices and provide a tremendous amount of gain.

  • 5. 
    Volume 1, Section 005.In the AN/ GRC-171B(V)4, what blanks Pulse-type noise (often radar) from the audio output during AM receive?
    • A. 

      Noise Channel Blanking Circuit.

    • B. 

      AM/FM NB Amplifier.

    • C. 

      Phase Locked loop frequency synthesizer.

    • D. 

      Voltage regulator Circuit.

  • 6. 
    Volume 1, Section 006.During transmit operation, what is the purpose of the compressor circuit in the RT-1446 HF Transceiver?
    • A. 

      Amplify the microphone audio level to ensure it is of adequate amplitude.

    • B. 

      Provides a tune-select signal to the antenna coupler.

    • C. 

      Provides heterodyning of the audio and RF carrier.

    • D. 

      Equalize varying voice levels to the audio signal is more uniform in amplitude.

  • 7. 
    Volume 1, Section 007.Which statement concerning wavelength is true?
    • A. 

      Wavelength is inversely related to frequency.

    • B. 

      Wavelength is directly related to frequency.

    • C. 

      Wavelength is determined by length of the line.

    • D. 

      Wavelength is expressed in lambdas.

  • 8. 
    Volume 1, Section 008.If a transmission line is terminated in a short,
    • A. 

      There would be a nominal amount of signal gain.

    • B. 

      The line would be resonant.

    • C. 

      Current is at a maximum and voltage at minimum at the termination.

    • D. 

      Current is at a minimum and voltage at maximum at the termination.

  • 9. 
    Volume 1, Section 009.In Transverse Magnetic (TM) mode of propagation,
    • A. 

      RG-213 Cable is best for transmission means.

    • B. 

      RG-58 Cable is best for transmission means.

    • C. 

      The electric field is transverse to the direction of propagation.

    • D. 

      The magnetic field is transverse to the direction of propagation.

  • 10. 
    Volume 1, Section 010.When two or more signals of the same frequency arrive at the receiver simultaneously, the resultant interference is termed
    • A. 

      Skip interference.

    • B. 

      Multi-path interference.

    • C. 

      Phase interference.

    • D. 

      Harmonic interference.

  • 11. 
    Volume 1, Section 011.Using the AN/ GRA-4 Antenna Group, which antenna is best used for operating frequencies not less than 4.5 MHz due to excessive antenna length at lower frequencies, is highly directional, and cannot be used very successfully for communication with multiple stations?
    • A. 

      L-Type antenna

    • B. 

      Off-center-fed Hertz antenna

    • C. 

      Slanting Wire antenna

    • D. 

      Center-fed Hertz antenna

  • 12. 
    Volume 1, Section 012.A polar orbit has an inclination of:
    • A. 

      0 Degrees

    • B. 

      45 Degrees

    • C. 

      60 Degrees

    • D. 

      90 Degrees

  • 13. 
    Volume 1, Section 013.What are the two types of communications satellites?
    • A. 

      Active and Passive.

    • B. 

      Active and Real Time.

    • C. 

      Delay and Passive.

    • D. 

      Delay and Real Time.

  • 14. 
    Volume 1, Section 014.In DAMA Communictions, the Network control System (NCS):
    • A. 

      Realigns the satellite orbit to accomidate for new users.

    • B. 

      Establishes the channel betwen the originating site and the distant end.

    • C. 

      Can only be accessed by JSTARS systems.

    • D. 

      Is routed through the DoD switch in Hawaii

  • 15. 
    Volume 1, Section 015.In the AN/ PSC-5 Spitfire, which module provides the primary operator interface for RT Status Control?
    • A. 

      RF/IF Module.

    • B. 

      Controller Module.

    • C. 

      Comsec Module.

    • D. 

      Transmitter Module.

  • 16. 
    Volume 1, Section 016.The AN/ PRC-117F provides a power output of:
    • A. 

      10 Watts average is FM operations

    • B. 

      10 Watts average in AM operations

    • C. 

      30 Watts average in FM operations

    • D. 

      30 Watts average in AM operations

  • 17. 
    Volume 1, Section 017.What are the primary missions of the Global Positioning System (GPS)?
    • A. 

      Navigation and timing transfer.

    • B. 

      Navigation and nuclear detection.

    • C. 

      Position and nuclear detection.

    • D. 

      Postion and timing transfer.

  • 18. 
    Volume 1, Section 018.How many routes can the AN/ PSN-11 Store?
    • A. 

      15 routes with 25 legs per route.

    • B. 

      15 routes with 20 legs per route.

    • C. 

      20 routes with 25 legs per route.

    • D. 

      20 routes with 20 legs per route.

  • 19. 
    Volume 1, Section 019.What satellite system was originally developed in 1979 for ship management, distress and safety applications?
    • A. 

      Iridium

    • B. 

      AFSATCOM

    • C. 

      DSCS

    • D. 

      INMARSAT

  • 20. 
    Volume 1, Section 020.Due to overlapping frequency ranges, how many wireless LANs can exist in any one area?
    • A. 

      1 Network

    • B. 

      2 Networks

    • C. 

      3 Networks

    • D. 

      4 Networks

  • 21. 
    Volume 1, Section 021.What is the net throughput of 802.11g Standard?
    • A. 

      2 Mbit/s

    • B. 

      11 Mbit/s

    • C. 

      24.7 Mbit/s

    • D. 

      54 Mbit/s

  • 22. 
    Volume 1, Section 022.Which Bluetooth power class is the most common?
    • A. 

      Class 1

    • B. 

      Class 2

    • C. 

      Class 3

    • D. 

      Class 4

  • 23. 
    Volume 1, Section 023.In conventional LMR Systems, this serves as a hub of a net
    • A. 

      Portable

    • B. 

      Mobile

    • C. 

      Repeater

    • D. 

      Base Station

  • 24. 
    Volume 1, Section 024.Which radio system is one that automatically and dynamically allocates a small number of radio channels to support a large number of users?
    • A. 

      Trunked

    • B. 

      Conventional

    • C. 

      Repeater

    • D. 

      Base Station

  • 25. 
    Volume 1, Section 025.Which cellular telephone technology uses "Spread Spectrum?"
    • A. 

      AMPS

    • B. 

      CDMA

    • C. 

      GSM

    • D. 

      TDMA

  • 26. 
    Volume 1, Section 026.In Cryptography, this is the detection of unauthorized alteration of data.
    • A. 

      Confidentiality

    • B. 

      Data integrity

    • C. 

      Non-repudiation

    • D. 

      Authentication

  • 27. 
    Volume 1, Section 027.Which secure communications device can be used to accomplish OTAR?
    • A. 

      CYZ-10

    • B. 

      KYK-13

    • C. 

      KY-57

    • D. 

      KY-99A

  • 28. 
    Volume 1, Question 028.Centralized control of encryption keys reduces what?
    • A. 

      Procedural problems

    • B. 

      Operational problems.

    • C. 

      Securty problems.

    • D. 

      All of the above.

  • 29. 
    Volume 1, Section 029.Which Spread Spectrum system varies the period and duty cycle of a pulsed RF carrier under the control of a coded sequence?
    • A. 

      Time Hopping

    • B. 

      Direct Sequence

    • C. 

      Frequency Hopping

    • D. 

      Pulsed Frequency Hopping

  • 30. 
    Volume 1, Section 030.Which form of antijamming allows for the use of a single Word of Day (WOD)?
    • A. 

      HQ1

    • B. 

      HQII

    • C. 

      AJII

    • D. 

      MWOD

  • 31. 
    Volume 1, Section 031.In the RT-1523 SINCGARS, the control section performs all but:
    • A. 

      Provide feedback to the operator through the keyboard display.

    • B. 

      Audio / Data Signal Level Control.

    • C. 

      Control signal routing between modules.

    • D. 

      Control frequency selection during frequency hopping operation.

  • 32. 
    Volume 1, Section 032.The time required for all TADIL A stations to have a transmit opportunity depends on :
    • A. 

      Net time established by the DNCS.

    • B. 

      Number of members and the compression rate.

    • C. 

      Number of message headers and number of net members.

    • D. 

      Number of net members and amount of data transferred.

  • 33. 
    Volume 1, Section 033.Which data link application provides digital information to support tactical operations on the battlefield?
    • A. 

      JTIDS

    • B. 

      EPLRS

    • C. 

      SADL

    • D. 

      TADIL-A

  • 34. 
    Volume 2, Section 201.Who exercises operational control of his or her forces through the service components?
    • A. 

      Joint Forces Air Component Commander

    • B. 

      Theater Air Control System

    • C. 

      Air Operations Center

    • D. 

      Joint Forces Commander

  • 35. 
    Volume 2, Section 202.The main objective of conducting air operations is to contribute to the successful completion of the theater commander's campaign plan by engaging and defeating:
    • A. 

      Friendly air, land, and sea forces

    • B. 

      Unknown air, land, and sea forces

    • C. 

      Hostile air, land, and sea forces

    • D. 

      Simulated air, land, and sea forces

  • 36. 
    Volume 2, Section 203.In the AWACS System, which of the following radar combinations is not possible?
    • A. 

      Pulse Doppler and beyond-the horizon radars.

    • B. 

      Maritime and beyond-the-horizon radars.

    • C. 

      Pulse Doppler and maritime radars.

    • D. 

      Pulse Doppler and Greenwich.

  • 37. 
    Volume 2, Section 204.What is used by the JSTARS to broadcast data to Army common ground stations?
    • A. 

      Surveillance and control data link.

    • B. 

      Tactical Digital information link.

    • C. 

      Immediate air request net.

    • D. 

      Joint Tactical Information Distribution System.

  • 38. 
    Volume 2, Section 205.Which element is not part of the ground theater air control system battle management?
    • A. 

      Air Operations Center.

    • B. 

      Air Support Operations Center.

    • C. 

      Airborne Warning and Control System

    • D. 

      Tactical Air Control Party

  • 39. 
    Volume 2, Section 206.Which is not a requirement of Flexibility of Airpower?
    • A. 

      Cooperation of Joint Forces

    • B. 

      Integration of Diverse Weapons Systems

    • C. 

      Centralized Command

    • D. 

      COMAFFOR Support

  • 40. 
    Volume 2, Section 207.In the CRC, how many radios is each MCE OM configured for?
    • A. 

      9: 3 HF, 3 VHF, 3 UHF

    • B. 

      9: 2 HF, 3 VHF, 4 UHF

    • C. 

      10: 3 HF, 3 VHF, 4 UHF

    • D. 

      10: 3 HF, 3 VHF, 4 UHF

  • 41. 
    Volume 2, Section 208.Which TACS unit is responsible for advising the US Army ground commanders on the capabilities and limitations of aerospace power?
    • A. 

      Tactical Air Control Party

    • B. 

      Airlift Control Center

    • C. 

      Forward Air Controller (Airborne)

    • D. 

      Combat Control Team

  • 42. 
    Volume 2, Section 209.In the GRC-206 Radio System, which Radio Set operates on any of 8360 Channels?
    • A. 

      AN/URC-113

    • B. 

      AN/VRC-91

    • C. 

      AN/GRC-226

    • D. 

      AN/VRC-83

  • 43. 
    Volume 2, Section 210.What does the AN/VRC-83 guard receiver use to produce its Intermediate Frequency?
    • A. 

      It has no IF because it cannot be tuned.

    • B. 

      The output of the main receiver's Local Oscillator

    • C. 

      A sample of the modulator control signal as an injection signal.

    • D. 

      Internal Oscillators

  • 44. 
    Volume 2, Section 211.In the AN/GRC-206 HF SSB subsystem, what is the purpose of the power supply overload latch circuit?
    • A. 

      It produces an alarm in the event of a tune fault.

    • B. 

      It shuts down voltage output in the event of a tune fault.

    • C. 

      It shuts down the voltage output if an abnormally large load appears.

    • D. 

      It produces an alarm if an abnormally large load appears.

  • 45. 
    Volume 2, Section 212.NORTHCOM's area of responsibility encompasses all but:
    • A. 

      Continental US

    • B. 

      Alaska, Canada, Mexico, and Surrounding Water

    • C. 

      Hawaii and US territories, and possessions in the Pacific.

    • D. 

      The Gulf of Mexico, Puerto Rico, and the US Virgin Islands.

  • 46. 
    Volume 2, Section 213.Which Air Defense Sector is the largest?
    • A. 

      Western Air Defense Sector

    • B. 

      Southeast Air Defense Sector

    • C. 

      Northeast Air Defense Sector

    • D. 

      Canadian North American Aerospace Defense Command Region

  • 47. 
    Volume 2, Section 214.What organization is the primary DoD producer of foreign aerospace intelligence?
    • A. 

      480 Intelligence Wing

    • B. 

      67 Information Operations Wing

    • C. 

      Air Force Information Warfare Center

    • D. 

      National Air and Space Intelligence Center

  • 48. 
    Volume 2, Section 215.The Distributed Common Ground System is the vision of:
    • A. 

      Defense Airborne Reconnaissance Office

    • B. 

      Joint Task Force

    • C. 

      National Security Agency

    • D. 

      Ground Theater Air Control System

  • 49. 
    Volume 2, Section 216.The Contingency Airborne Reconnaissance System/ Deployable Ground Station derives its data from:
    • A. 

      Rivet Joint

    • B. 

      Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System

    • C. 

      Airborne Warning and Control System

    • D. 

      U-2

  • 50. 
    Volume 2, Section 217.What is the difference between the AN/ FLR-9 delay lines used by the Air Force and Army?
    • A. 

      The Army uses "Lump Constant" delay line design, the Air Force uses "Coaxial" delay line design

    • B. 

      The Army uses "Coaxial" delay line design, the Air Force uses "Lump Constant" delay design

    • C. 

      The Army uses "Beam Forming" delay line design, the Air Force uses "Coaxial" delay line design.

    • D. 

      There is no difference.

  • 51. 
    Volume 2, Section 218.For up to how many receivers does each AN/ FLR-9 RFSM OCU provides operators the capability of selecting the radio frequency beam?
    • A. 

      Two

    • B. 

      Four

    • C. 

      Eight

    • D. 

      Sixteen

  • 52. 
    Volume 2, Section 219.What is the purpose of the AN/ FLR-9 central building line tuners?
    • A. 

      Compensation for feed cable electrical length variations.

    • B. 

      Provide automatic tuning of individual element couplers.

    • C. 

      Compensation for feed cable physical length variations.

    • D. 

      Provide manual tuning of individual element couplers.

  • 53. 
    Volume 2, Section 220.Which AN/ FLR-9 RFSM assembly provides an interface between the operator control units and the control subsystem?
    • A. 

      IDMUX.

    • B. 

      Goniometer.

    • C. 

      Radio Frequency Switch Matrix.

    • D. 

      Built in test Equipment.

  • 54. 
    Volume 2, Section 221.What unit type code is designed to provide personal wireless communications systems support specifically?
    • A. 

      6KLC1

    • B. 

      6KNZN

    • C. 

      6KNZG

    • D. 

      6KNZ7

  • 55. 
    Volume 2, Section 222.Which statement concerning public address system speaker ratings is true?
    • A. 

      All speakers are rated in volume, which is expressed in dBi

    • B. 

      All speakers are rated in volume, which is expressed in dBm

    • C. 

      Peak power denotes the wattage a speaker can handle on a continuous basis.

    • D. 

      Root means square power denotes the wattage a speaker can handle on a continuous basis.

  • 56. 
    Volume 2, Section 223.Which Public Address system connecter is the least likely to be affected by interference?
    • A. 

      Phono connector

    • B. 

      Phone connector

    • C. 

      XLR connector

    • D. 

      RCA connector

  • 57. 
    Volume 2, Section 224. What is a common problem with a mass alert system in a deployed environment?
    • A. 

      Low power out

    • B. 

      Cleanliness

    • C. 

      Efficiency

    • D. 

      Reliability

  • 58. 
    Volume 2, Section 225.In the Whelen System, what size driver does a speaker cell contain?
    • A. 

      40- Watt

    • B. 

      60- Watt

    • C. 

      100- Watt

    • D. 

      400- Watt

  • 59. 
    Volume 2, Section 226.What two publications do you use for guidance when determining a technical solution?
    • A. 

      AFI 33-103 and AFI 33-106

    • B. 

      AFI 33-103 and AFSSI-4100

    • C. 

      AFI 33-106 and AFI 33-118

    • D. 

      AFI 33-106 and AFSSI-4100

  • 60. 
    Volume 2, Section 227.Which PWCS device is a point- to- point, common carrier service?
    • A. 

      Pagers

    • B. 

      Cell Phones

    • C. 

      LMR

    • D. 

      FRS

  • 61. 
    Volume 2, Section 228.Which AFI governs frequency spectrum regulation?
    • A. 

      AFI33-106

    • B. 

      AFI33-112

    • C. 

      AFI33-118

    • D. 

      AFI36-2903

  • 62. 
    Volume 2, Section 229.What are the two types of efficiency that a spectrum manager takes into account when considering spectrum management?
    • A. 

      Operational and Tactical

    • B. 

      Technical and Operational

    • C. 

      Technical and Practical

    • D. 

      Practical and Required

  • 63. 
    Volume 3, Section 401.What is the frequency range of the AN/ PRC- 148?
    • A. 

      2- 30 MHz

    • B. 

      30- 300 MHz

    • C. 

      30- 512 MHz

    • D. 

      300- 512 MHz

  • 64. 
    Volume 3, Section 402.How many squadrons and detachments does JCSE have?
    • A. 

      Four squadrons and one detachment

    • B. 

      Four squadrons and two detachments

    • C. 

      Five squadrons and one detachment

    • D. 

      Five squadrons and two detachments

  • 65. 
    Volume 3, Section 403.Which communication system is a commercial telephone switch?
    • A. 

      AN/ PRC- 117F

    • B. 

      Redcom- IGX

    • C. 

      DNE TAC-900

    • D. 

      CSU/DSU

  • 66. 
    Volume 3, Section 404.Which Command does the Special Operations Communications Flights support?
    • A. 

      US Central Command

    • B. 

      US Joint Forces Command

    • C. 

      US Special Operations Command

    • D. 

      US Strategic Command

  • 67. 
    Volume 3, Section 405.Which of the following UTC are mobile C2 teams that deploy to support strategic and theater air mobility operations?
    • A. 

      MARC

    • B. 

      TACC

    • C. 

      TAES

    • D. 

      CRG/ CRE

  • 68. 
    Volume 3, Section 406.Which team consists of every function needed to recover and re-launch aircraft?
    • A. 

      SART

    • B. 

      DART

    • C. 

      TAES

    • D. 

      TALCE

  • 69. 
    Volume 3, Section 407.Which UTC is not part of the Theater Aeromedical Evacuation System?
    • A. 

      AECS

    • B. 

      AELT

    • C. 

      MASF

    • D. 

      CRG/ CRE

  • 70. 
    Volume 3, Section 408.In the Aeromedical Support Cell, this individual provides a broad scope of support to the deployed commander, to include personnel actions, patient movement status, as well as basic administrative support.
    • A. 

      2A672, Aerospace Ground Equipment Craftsman

    • B. 

      4A071, Health Service Management Craftsman

    • C. 

      4A171, Medical Logistics Craftsman

    • D. 

      2E173, Ground Radio Maintenance Craftsman

  • 71. 
    Volume 3, Section 409.We define Link Quality Analysis as:
    • A. 

      Reviewing a network station listing and determining which is assigned a clear channel.

    • B. 

      Reviewing a network station listing and assigning a channel to each.

    • C. 

      The process of sounding and determining channel clarity.

    • D. 

      The process of calling and determining channel clarity.

  • 72. 
    Volume 3, Section 410.Which SCOPE Command mission provides HF Communications for the President, Vice President, and Cabinet Members.
    • A. 

      DCS HF Entry

    • B. 

      Mystic Star

    • C. 

      USAF Global

    • D. 

      SITFAA

  • 73. 
    Volume 3, Section 411.What are the three steps of the ALE Linking Sequence?
    • A. 

      Call, Response, Acknowledgement

    • B. 

      Call, Request, Acknowledgement

    • C. 

      Sound, Handshake, Response

    • D. 

      Sound, Call, Response

  • 74. 
    Volume 3, Section 412.What is the output power of the SCOPE Command Power Amplifier?
    • A. 

      500 Watts

    • B. 

      2000 Watts

    • C. 

      4000 Watts

    • D. 

      5000 Watts

  • 75. 
    Volume 3, Section 413.The RF loop-back test is ran how many times?
    • A. 

      4 Times

    • B. 

      3 Times

    • C. 

      2 Times

    • D. 

      1 Time

  • 76. 
    Volume 3, Section 414.Which of the following is the AFSPC not responsible for?
    • A. 

      Launching Satellites and other high value Playloads into space.

    • B. 

      Friendly use of space through the conduct of counterspace operations

    • C. 

      Weather, Communications, Intelligence, Missile Warning, and Navigation.

    • D. 

      Interception of Hostile Aircraft into US Airspace.

  • 77. 
    Volume 3, Section 415.Which missile site antenna is considered dual-mode and is used by both UHF Voice and the AFSATCOM sytem?
    • A. 

      ISST UHF transmit antenna.

    • B. 

      ISST UHF receive antenna.

    • C. 

      Hard UHF antenna.

    • D. 

      SLFCS antenna.

  • 78. 
    Volume 3, Section 416.What is the minimum output power of the AN/ GRC-208 UHF radio system?
    • A. 

      100 Watts.

    • B. 

      200 Watts

    • C. 

      300 Watts

    • D. 

      400 Watts

  • 79. 
    Volume 3, Section 417.What does the Minuteman MEECN Program use to prevent electromagnetic pulse damage?
    • A. 

      High current fuses

    • B. 

      Electrical Surge Arrestors

    • C. 

      Lead-cased enclosures

    • D. 

      Automatic circuit disconnect

  • 80. 
    Volume 3, Section 418.VLF/ LF receiver has a frequency range of:
    • A. 

      14 to 60 KHz

    • B. 

      14 to 60 MHz

    • C. 

      14 to 60 GHz

    • D. 

      14 to 600 GHz

  • 81. 
    Volume 3, Section 419.Hammer ACE Systems are securable up to what classification?
    • A. 

      Sensitive but Unclassified

    • B. 

      Confidential

    • C. 

      Secret

    • D. 

      Top Secret

  • 82. 
    Volume 3, Section 420.What was the White House Communications Agency originally known as?
    • A. 

      Defense Communications Agency

    • B. 

      White House Signal Detachment

    • C. 

      White House Communications Agency

    • D. 

      Office of Chief Signal Office, Army Signal Corps

  • 83. 
    Volume 3, Section 421.Where was the 3600 Air Demonstration Unit activated?
    • A. 

      Cannon AFB

    • B. 

      Nellis AFB

    • C. 

      Peterson AFB

    • D. 

      Luke AFB

  • 84. 
    Volume 3, Section 422.Which Agency provides the Secretary of Defense, Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff, Secretary of the Air Force, and Chief of Staff of the Air Force C4 Systems critical to national defense?
    • A. 

      Air Force Pentagon Communications Agency

    • B. 

      White House Communications Agency

    • C. 

      ACC Hammer ACE

    • D. 

      AFSATCOM