2AX7X 02 1110 Edit Code 5 7 Level CDC

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C0mbatChris
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Quizzes Created: 4 | Total Attempts: 2,593
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CDC Quizzes & Trivia

Questions and Answers
  • 1. 

    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM?

    • A. 

      Air Combat Command (ACC).

    • B. 

      Air Training Command (ATC).

    • C. 

      Air Reserve Command (AFRC).

    • D. 

      Air Education and Training Command (AETC).

    Correct Answer
    D. Air Education and Training Command (AETC).
    Explanation
    Training detachments (TDs) are administratively assigned to the Air Education and Training Command (AETC). This means that the TDs are under the authority and oversight of AETC for administrative purposes. AETC is responsible for the training and education of Air Force personnel, so it makes sense that TDs, which are involved in training, would be assigned to this command.

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  • 2. 

    The block training method is normally used to teach which Maintenance Training Flight (MTF) training course?

    • A. 

      Any 7-level course

    • B. 

      Weight and Balance

    • C. 

      Maintenance Orientation

    • D. 

      General Technical Order System

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Orientation
    Explanation
    The block training method is typically used to teach the Maintenance Orientation course. This course provides an overview of maintenance operations and procedures, including safety, documentation, and organizational structure. The block training method involves grouping related topics together and teaching them in a condensed and intensive format. This approach allows for efficient and focused learning, making it particularly suitable for the Maintenance Orientation course.

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  • 3. 

    How often must the Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent review and sign the special certification roster (SCR)?

    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semi-annually

    • C. 

      Quarterly

    • D. 

      Monthly

    Correct Answer
    B. Semi-annually
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent must review and sign the special certification roster (SCR) semi-annually. This means that they need to review and sign the roster twice a year. This ensures that the officer/superintendent stays updated on the certifications of the maintenance personnel and can address any issues or discrepancies in a timely manner. Reviewing and signing the SCR semi-annually also helps to maintain the overall efficiency and effectiveness of the maintenance operations.

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  • 4. 

    In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of

    • A. 

      TSgt.

    • B. 

      MSgt.

    • C. 

      SMSgt.

    • D. 

      CMSgt.

    Correct Answer
    B. MSgt.
    Explanation
    To be given authority to downgrade a "Red-X," an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MGX/CC) and hold the minimum grade of MSgt. This means that only individuals who have reached the rank of Master Sergeant or higher are eligible to have the authority to downgrade a "Red-X." This requirement ensures that only experienced and knowledgeable individuals are able to make decisions regarding the status of an aircraft or equipment.

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  • 5. 

    * Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time

    • A. 

      Access to Distance Learning courseware

    • B. 

      Access to special certification roster criteria listings

    • C. 

      Visibility of available formal training courses Air Force-wide

    • D. 

      Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel

    Correct Answer
    D. Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel
    Explanation
    The Training Business Area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses of personnel. This means that TBA allows individuals to see the technical qualifications and certifications that their colleagues have, as well as their training statuses. This information is important for tracking the skills and expertise of personnel within the Air Force.

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  • 6. 

    * In the Training Business Area (TBA), what type of notification does the “System Messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information?

    • A. 

      Open suspenses

    • B. 

      System upgrades

    • C. 

      Application problems

    • D. 

      Changes to your user roles

    Correct Answer
    C. Application problems
    Explanation
    The "System Messages" board in the Training Business Area (TBA) provides notifications about application problems in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information. This means that if there are any issues or glitches with the application, users will be notified through the "System Messages" board.

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  • 7. 

    What training phase has these four sub-phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training?

    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    The correct answer is II because the question mentions four sub-phases of training: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, freeflow, and maintenance qualification training. These sub-phases are commonly associated with phase II of training.

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  • 8. 

    * What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses?

    • A. 

      Maintenance qualification

    • B. 

      Maintenance refresher

    • C. 

      On-the-job

    • D. 

      Ancillary

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance qualification
    Explanation
    Continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC mission ready airman (MRA) and training detachment (TD) courses. This type of training is focused on maintaining and enhancing maintenance qualifications. Therefore, the correct answer is Maintenance qualification.

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  • 9. 

    How often does the maintenance training flight (MTF) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC)?

    • A. 

      Monthly.

    • B. 

      Quarterly.

    • C. 

      Semiannually.

    • D. 

      Annually.

    Correct Answer
    A. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The maintenance training flight (MTF) provides a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) on a monthly basis. This means that the briefing occurs once every month to update the MXG/CC on the training status of the maintenance flight.

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  • 10. 

    An individual comes due for a training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required?

    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    If an individual is unable to complete their training recertification due to being TDY (Temporary Duty), on leave, or incapacitated, they are allowed a grace period of 30 days after returning before decertification is required. This means that as long as they complete their recertification within 30 days of returning, they will not be considered decertified.

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  • 11. 

    Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC)?

    • A. 

      Operations officer

    • B. 

      Group commander

    • C. 

      Unit training manager

    • D. 

      Maintenance training flight commander (MTF/CC) or chief

    Correct Answer
    C. Unit training manager
    Explanation
    The Unit training manager is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC). This interview is important to gather information about the trainee's goals, expectations, and any specific requirements or accommodations needed for the course. The Unit training manager plays a crucial role in ensuring that the trainee is prepared for the CDC and that their training needs are met.

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  • 12. 

    Manpower authorizations are

    • A. 

      Funded.

    • B. 

      Unfunded.

    • C. 

      Unvalidated.

    • D. 

      Both funded and unfunded

    Correct Answer
    A. Funded.
    Explanation
    Manpower authorizations are funded means that there is an allocation of financial resources to support the authorized number of personnel. This implies that there is a budget in place to cover the costs associated with hiring and maintaining the required workforce. It also suggests that the organization has the necessary funds to pay the salaries, benefits, and other expenses related to the authorized manpower.

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  • 13. 

    A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is normally held

    • A. 

      Weekly.

    • B. 

      Monthly.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Semiannually.

    Correct Answer
    B. Monthly.
    Explanation
    The correct answer is monthly because the sentence states that the meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group (MXG) is "normally" held at a certain frequency. The word "normally" implies that this is the regular schedule for the meeting, and out of the given options, monthly is the most frequent interval.

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  • 14. 

    * The maximum continuous duty time you can schedule your workers for without getting maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) approval is

    • A. 

      12 hours

    • B. 

      13 hours

    • C. 

      14 hours

    • D. 

      15 hours

    Correct Answer
    A. 12 hours
    Explanation
    The correct answer is 12 hours. This means that you can schedule your workers for a maximum continuous duty time of 12 hours without needing approval from the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC). This limit is in place to ensure that workers do not become fatigued or overworked, which could potentially lead to safety hazards or a decrease in productivity. By adhering to this limit, it helps to maintain a healthy and efficient work environment.

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  • 15. 

    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to

    • A. 

      14 hours

    • B. 

      15 hours

    • C. 

      16 hours

    • D. 

      18 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 16 hours
    Explanation
    Maintenance group commanders are the final approval authority for exceeding a 12-hour shift up to 16 hours. This means that if there is a need for maintenance work to continue beyond the standard 12-hour shift, the maintenance group commander has the authority to grant approval for the shift to be extended up to 16 hours. This allows for flexibility in scheduling and ensures that necessary maintenance tasks can be completed within a reasonable timeframe.

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  • 16. 

    Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems?

    • A. 

      Maintenance supply liaison

    • B. 

      Maintenance supply support

    • C. 

      Maintenance operations center

    • D. 

      Maintenance data system analysis

    Correct Answer
    A. Maintenance supply liaison
    Explanation
    The maintenance supply liaison is typically responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problems. They act as a bridge between maintenance and supply operations, ensuring that the necessary supplies and resources are available for maintenance activities. They also work to address any issues or problems that may arise in the supply chain, ensuring smooth and efficient maintenance operations.

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  • 17. 

    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the

    • A. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS).

    • B. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).

    • C. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Squadron (AMXS).

    • D. 

      Maintenance Operations Squadron (MOS).

    Correct Answer
    B. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS).
    Explanation
    Maintenance supply liaison personnel report directly to the commander of the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS). The LRS is responsible for managing the logistics operations of the organization, including supply chain management, transportation, and maintenance support. The maintenance supply liaison personnel work closely with the LRS commander to coordinate and ensure the availability of necessary supplies and equipment for maintenance activities. This direct reporting relationship ensures effective communication and coordination between maintenance and logistics functions.

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  • 18. 

    Which of the following is not normally a Maintenance Supply Liaison duty?

    • A. 

      Monitoring status of back-ordered requisitions

    • B. 

      Advising supervisors on supply management documents

    • C. 

      Soliciting and consolidating inputs to initiate a quick reference list

    • D. 

      Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets

    Correct Answer
    D. Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets
    Explanation
    The correct answer is "Collecting and turning in expendable, excess, and surplus precious metal bearing assets." This duty is not typically a responsibility of a Maintenance Supply Liaison. The other options, such as monitoring back-ordered requisitions, advising supervisors on supply management documents, and soliciting and consolidating inputs for a quick reference list, are more commonly associated with the role of a Maintenance Supply Liaison.

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  • 19. 

    The assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base’s Standard Base Supply System account after how many days?

    • A. 

      15

    • B. 

      30

    • C. 

      45

    • D. 

      60

    Correct Answer
    B. 30
    Explanation
    After 30 days, the assets in a high priority mission support kit (HPMSK) should be transferred into the host base's Standard Base Supply System account.

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  • 20. 

    Which expendability, recoverability, and reparability codes (ERRC) must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed in bench stock?

    • A. 

      XF3.

    • B. 

      XD2.

    • C. 

      XD1.

    • D. 

      XB3.

    Correct Answer
    D. XB3.
    Explanation
    Before an asset can be placed in bench stock, it must have the XB3 ERRC code assigned to it. This code indicates that the asset is expendable, meaning it is expected to be used up or consumed during normal operation. The XB3 code also indicates that the asset is not recoverable, meaning it is not expected to be returned or reused once it is used up. Additionally, the XB3 code indicates that the asset is not reparable, meaning it cannot be repaired if it becomes damaged or broken.

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  • 21. 

    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels to provide how many days of supply?

    • A. 

      30

    • B. 

      60

    • C. 

      90

    • D. 

      120

    Correct Answer
    A. 30
    Explanation
    The goal for bench stock assets is to establish levels that provide a 30-day supply. This means that the inventory should be sufficient to meet the organization's needs for a period of 30 days without running out of stock. By maintaining a 30-day supply, the organization can ensure that it has enough stock to support its operations without excessive inventory carrying costs or the risk of stockouts.

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  • 22. 

    Provided it is still serviceable, which type of shelf life item are you allowed to inspect and re-mark with a new expiration date?

    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      II

    • C. 

      III

    • D. 

      IV

    Correct Answer
    B. II
    Explanation
    Type II shelf life items are allowed to be inspected and re-marked with a new expiration date, as long as they are still serviceable.

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  • 23. 

    Who in the maintenance group (MXG) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements?

    • A. 

      MXG Commander

    • B. 

      MXG Superintendent

    • C. 

      MXG Deputy Commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    D. Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)
    Explanation
    The Maintenance Squadron (MXS) Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT) is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements in the maintenance group (MXG). They oversee the operations and maintenance activities within the squadron and are responsible for coordinating resources and ensuring that the necessary capabilities are in place to meet the requirements of local manufacturing.

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  • 24. 

    What agency acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data?

    • A. 

      Audio Visual Center

    • B. 

      Engineering Data Service Center

    • C. 

      AF Primary Standards Laboratory

    • D. 

      Communication and Information System

    Correct Answer
    B. Engineering Data Service Center
    Explanation
    The Engineering Data Service Center acts as a central repository of engineering drawings and other engineering data. This means that it is responsible for storing and managing these important documents and information. It is likely that the center is specifically dedicated to the storage and organization of engineering data, making it the correct answer for this question.

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  • 25. 

    Which of the following is not an obvious sign of pollution?

    • A. 

      Oil sheen on standing water

    • B. 

      Stressed vegetation

    • C. 

      Stains on ground

    • D. 

      Cloudy water

    Correct Answer
    D. Cloudy water
    Explanation
    Cloudy water is not an obvious sign of pollution because it can be caused by natural factors such as sediment or minerals in the water. While pollution can contribute to cloudy water, it is not a definitive indicator on its own. On the other hand, oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, and stains on the ground are more commonly associated with pollution and can be seen as clear signs of environmental contamination.

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  • 26. 

    Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter?

    • A. 

      Operations officer

    • B. 

      Section supervisor

    • C. 

      Squadron commander

    • D. 

      Squadron safety monitor

    Correct Answer
    B. Section supervisor
    Explanation
    The section supervisor is responsible for developing a hazard communication (HAZCOM) training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to in a particular workcenter. This is because the section supervisor is in charge of overseeing the day-to-day operations and safety of the workcenter and is therefore responsible for ensuring that all personnel are aware of and trained on the hazards they may encounter. The operations officer, squadron commander, and squadron safety monitor may have oversight and leadership roles, but the section supervisor is specifically responsible for the training plan.

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  • 27. 

    * Which tag should you use to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged?

    • A. 

      AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag

    • B. 

      DD Form 1574, Serviceable Tag-Material

    • C. 

      DD Form 1577–1, Unserviceable (Condemned) Tag-Material

    • D. 

      DD Form 1577–2, Unserviceable (Reparable) Tag

    Correct Answer
    A. AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag
    Explanation
    The AFTO Form 20, Caution Tag should be used to document that a part has been properly drained and/or purged. This tag is specifically designed to indicate cautionary information and instructions regarding the status or condition of an item. By using this tag, it ensures that anyone handling the part is aware of the proper draining and purging procedures that have been completed.

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  • 28. 

    Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian?

    • A. 

      Section supervisor

    • B. 

      Squadron Commander

    • C. 

      Flight Commander/Chief

    • D. 

      Operations Officer/Maintenance Superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    B. Squadron Commander
    Explanation
    The Squadron Commander must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian. This is because the Squadron Commander is responsible for the overall management and organization of the squadron, including the appointment of key personnel such as equipment account custodians. The equipment account custodian is responsible for the proper storage, maintenance, and accountability of all equipment assigned to the squadron.

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  • 29. 

    What specific block of supply training must an individual receive before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor?

    • A. 

      I

    • B. 

      III

    • C. 

      IIB

    • D. 

      IIA

    Correct Answer
    C. IIB
    Explanation
    An individual must receive training in Block IIB of the supply training before assuming duties as a due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitor.

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  • 30. 

    What form is used to document all report of surveys (ROS)?

    • A. 

      AF IMT 453, Report of Survey Register

    • B. 

      AF IMT 1185, Statement of Record Data

    • C. 

      DD Form 362, Statement of Charges/Cash Collection Voucher

    • D. 

      DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss

    Correct Answer
    D. DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss
    Explanation
    The correct answer is DD Form 200, Financial Liability, Investigation of Property Loss. This form is used to document all reports of surveys (ROS). It is specifically designed for investigating property loss and determining financial liability. The form helps to record the details of the investigation, including the circumstances of the loss, the individuals involved, and the findings of the investigation. It is an important document for tracking and managing property losses within the organization.

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  • 31. 

    Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records?

    • A. 

      Flight Service Center (FSC).

    • B. 

      Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

    • C. 

      Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO).

    • D. 

      Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO).

    Correct Answer
    B. Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).
    Explanation
    The Equipment Liaison Office (ELO) is responsible for managing special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets on in-use detail records. This office is specifically tasked with accounting for these assets and ensuring their proper management and maintenance. The other options, such as the Flight Service Center (FSC), Command Equipment Management Office (CEMO), and Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO), do not have the same level of responsibility for SPRAM assets. Therefore, the correct answer is the Equipment Liaison Office (ELO).

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  • 32. 

    Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians?

    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander

    • C. 

      Mission Support Group (MSG) commander

    • D. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) commander

    Correct Answer
    C. Mission Support Group (MSG) commander
    Explanation
    The Mission Support Group (MSG) commander is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians, unless delegated. This means that the MSG commander holds the authority and accountability for reviewing and approving or denying SPRAM authorizations. The other options, such as the Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) commander, Maintenance Group (MXG) deputy commander, and Maintenance Group (MXG) commander, do not have the specified responsibility for reviewing SPRAM authorizations.

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  • 33. 

    Which Precious Metals Indicator Code (PMIC) indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals?

    • A. 

      A

    • B. 

      C

    • C. 

      G

    • D. 

      P

    Correct Answer
    B. C
    Explanation
    The correct answer is C. The PMIC code C indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals. This code is used to classify and identify items that are made from a mixture of different precious metals, such as gold, silver, platinum, etc. By using this code, it becomes easier to track and manage the inventory of precious metal items and ensure accurate identification and classification.

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  • 34. 

    Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day?

    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    B. D04, Daily Document Register
    Explanation
    The Daily Document Register (D04) is the supply tracking document that provides information on all document numbers processed during the day. This document keeps a record of all the documents that have been processed, allowing for easy tracking and reference. It is an essential tool for ensuring the accuracy and efficiency of supply chain operations.

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  • 35. 

    Which supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A?

    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    A. D18, Priority Monitor Report
    Explanation
    The Priority Monitor Report (D18) is the correct answer because it is the supply tracking document that is produced daily and lists all back-ordered parts with an urgency of need (UND) code of A. This report helps to prioritize the urgent need for these back-ordered parts and ensures that they are addressed promptly.

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  • 36. 

    Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support?

    • A. 

      D18, Priority Monitor Report

    • B. 

      D04, Daily Document Register

    • C. 

      M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report

    • D. 

      D23, Repair Cycle Asset Management List

    Correct Answer
    C. M–24, Organization Effectiveness Report
    Explanation
    The Organization Effectiveness Report (M-24) is a supply tracking document that provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support. This report allows management to track and analyze the effectiveness of the organization's supply support, ensuring that issue and bench stock supplies are being properly monitored and managed. The report helps identify any issues or inefficiencies in the supply chain and allows for appropriate action to be taken to improve supply support.

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  • 37. 

    Who must authorize temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms?

    • A. 

      Aircraft commander

    • B. 

      Host installation commander

    • C. 

      Operations Group Commander

    • D. 

      Mission Support Group commander

    Correct Answer
    B. Host installation commander
    Explanation
    The host installation commander must authorize the temporary storage of in-transit classified material in cargo security cages and alarmed rooms. This individual is responsible for overseeing the overall operations and security of the installation, including the authorization of storage locations for classified material. The aircraft commander, operations group commander, and mission support group commander may have authority over other aspects of the operation, but the host installation commander is specifically responsible for authorizing the storage of classified material.

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  • 38. 

    When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with an aircraft which has secret or confidential equipment installed, she/he must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every

    • A. 

      Hour

    • B. 

      2 hours

    • C. 

      3 hours

    • D. 

      4 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 3 hours
    Explanation
    When the aircraft owner or user is not present with the aircraft that has secret or confidential equipment installed, it is necessary to arrange for security checks to be conducted every 3 hours. This is done to ensure the safety and protection of the sensitive equipment and to prevent unauthorized access or tampering. Regular security checks at frequent intervals help to maintain the security and integrity of the aircraft and its confidential equipment.

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  • 39. 

    Who is the final authority for reviewing a unit’s list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming?

    • A. 

      Flight commander/Chief

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group commander

    • C. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector

    • D. 

      MX Operations Officer (MOO)/maintenance superintendent (MX SUPT)

    Correct Answer
    C. Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector
    Explanation
    The Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Chief Inspector is the final authority for reviewing a unit's list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming. This individual is responsible for ensuring that all supply assets are properly maintained and in operational condition. They have the expertise and knowledge to determine which assets require these checks and programming, and their authority ensures that all necessary maintenance and programming is completed accurately and efficiently.

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  • 40. 

    Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request?

    • A. 

      Customer

    • B. 

      Maintenance Supply support

    • C. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • D. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Customer Service

    Correct Answer
    A. Customer
    Explanation
    The customer is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request. As the end user of the parts, the customer is in the best position to assess their needs and prioritize the urgency of the delivery. They have the knowledge of their operational requirements and can determine the impact of delayed or expedited delivery. Therefore, it is the customer's responsibility to communicate their delivery priority to the relevant parties involved in the supply chain.

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  • 41. 

    Which urgency justification codes (UJCs) are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare?

    • A. 

      1A or JA

    • B. 

      AR or BR

    • C. 

      AA or AM

    • D. 

      BM or CM

    Correct Answer
    B. AR or BR
    Explanation
    The urgency justification codes (UJCs) AR or BR are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare.

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  • 42. 

    Before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area, who must Maintenance coordinate with?

    • A. 

      Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) Flight Service Center

    • B. 

      Maintenance Group (MXG) Quality Assurance

    • C. 

      MXG Maintenance Data System Analysis

    • D. 

      LRS material management element

    Correct Answer
    D. LRS material management element
    Explanation
    Maintenance must coordinate with the LRS material management element before a supply point can be established and located in a maintenance work area. This is because the LRS material management element is responsible for managing and providing the necessary materials and supplies for maintenance operations. They ensure that the maintenance work area has the required inventory and resources to carry out their tasks efficiently.

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  • 43. 

    Once established, how often must supply point accounts be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor?

    • A. 

      Annually.

    • B. 

      Semiannually.

    • C. 

      Quarterly.

    • D. 

      Monthly.

    Correct Answer
    B. Semiannually.
    Explanation
    Supply point accounts must be reconciled by the workcenter supply point monitor twice a year, or semiannually. This means that the reconciliation process should be conducted every six months to ensure accuracy and proper management of the supply point accounts.

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  • 44. 

    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the

    • A. 

      Operations Officer

    • B. 

      Aircraft Section flight chief

    • C. 

      Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)

    • D. 

      Aircraft Maintenance Unit’s (AMU) Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation (PS&D) dedicated scheduler

    Correct Answer
    C. Maintenance Operations Center (MOC)
    Explanation
    When a mission capable (MICAP) part issues and is placed in the tail number bin (TNB), supply personnel notify the Maintenance Operations Center (MOC). The MOC is responsible for coordinating and managing the maintenance activities of the aircraft. They will ensure that the MICAP part is properly documented and scheduled for installation by the appropriate maintenance personnel. This notification allows the MOC to track the status of the part and ensure that it is available when needed for maintenance actions.

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  • 45. 

    * When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, what type of deficiency report is submitted?

    • A. 

      Deficiency Report (DR)

    • B. 

      Supply Discrepancy Report

    • C. 

      Maintenance cross-tell report

    • D. 

      Product Quality Deficiency Report

    Correct Answer
    B. Supply Discrepancy Report
    Explanation
    When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange, a Supply Discrepancy Report is submitted. This type of report is used to document any discrepancies or issues with the supply or inventory, such as receiving the wrong item or a damaged item. By submitting a Supply Discrepancy Report, the requester can request a refund or a replacement item to rectify the discrepancy.

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  • 46. 

    Who has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group?

    • A. 

      Originator

    • B. 

      Action Point

    • C. 

      Screening Point

    • D. 

      Originating Point

    Correct Answer
    D. Originating Point
    Explanation
    The originating point has the responsibility for overall Deficiency Report program management for the submitting organization or group. This means that they are in charge of overseeing and managing the entire program, including the process of identifying and reporting deficiencies. They are responsible for ensuring that all necessary actions are taken to address and resolve the reported deficiencies.

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  • 47. 

    Who acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and submitting organization?

    • A. 

      Originator

    • B. 

      Action Point

    • C. 

      Screening Point

    • D. 

      Originating Point

    Correct Answer
    B. Action Point
    Explanation
    The Action Point acts as the Deficiency Report focal point between the support point and the submitting organization. This means that the Action Point is responsible for receiving and addressing any deficiency reports that are submitted by the support point or the submitting organization. They act as the central point of contact and coordination for resolving any deficiencies that are identified.

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  • 48. 

    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, a deficiency report (DR) must be submitted to the Screening Point within

    • A. 

      8 hours

    • B. 

      16 hours

    • C. 

      24 hours

    • D. 

      32 hours

    Correct Answer
    C. 24 hours
    Explanation
    Once a Category I deficiency is discovered, it is important to submit a deficiency report (DR) to the Screening Point within a specific timeframe to ensure timely action is taken. The correct answer of 24 hours indicates that the DR must be submitted within this timeframe. This allows for prompt identification and resolution of the deficiency, helping to maintain safety and efficiency in the process.

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  • 49. 

    Which is not normally a Maintenance Group (MXG) technical order distribution office (TODO) duty?

    • A. 

      Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required

    • B. 

      Assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts

    • C. 

      Advising MXG/CC on TO availability

    • D. 

      Resolving TO availability problems

    Correct Answer
    A. Establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required
    Explanation
    The MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duties include assisting units in establishing additional TODO accounts, advising MXG/CC on TO availability, and resolving TO availability problems. However, establishing technical order distribution account (TODA) sub-accounts as required is not normally a duty of the TODO office.

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  • 50. 

    What Maintenance Operations Flight section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies?

    • A. 

      Maintenance Supply Liaison

    • B. 

      Maintenance Operations Center

    • C. 

      Maintenance Management Analysis

    • D. 

      Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation

    Correct Answer
    D. Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation
    Explanation
    The Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation section is responsible for periodically reviewing maintenance information system (MIS) products to ensure proper documentation and management of time compliance technical orders (TCTOs) by owning and managing agencies. This section is specifically tasked with coordinating and scheduling maintenance activities, managing maintenance documentation, and ensuring compliance with maintenance plans and procedures. They play a crucial role in maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of maintenance operations by ensuring that all necessary documentation and procedures are properly managed and followed.

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